MCQ QUESTIONS Flashcards
1
Q
The Trachea is protected by the:
A
epiglottis
2
Q
What kind of shock is caused by Cardiac Tamponade?
A
cardiogenic shock
3
Q
The study of drugs and medications is called:
A
pharmacology
4
Q
The vitamin essential for blood clotting is
A
vitamin K
5
Q
The respiratory centre in the brain usually reacts to variations in the amount of:
A
carbon dioxide
6
Q
How far should a BP cuff be inflated after the Pulse is no longer Palpable?
A
30mmHg
7
Q
How high should ST elevation be in a patients ECG if STEMI is present?
A
> 2mm in V2/V3 and >1mm in all other leads
8
Q
What is the function of the pleurae?
A
To compartmentalise, protect, and lubricate the lungs
9
Q
Valsalva is used to treat?
A
Narrow and Regular Tachyarrythmias
10
Q
A paramedic must seek medical oversight before administration of which drug?
A
Ticagrelor
11
Q
R sided AMI is suspected in patients with?
A
ST elevation > 1mm in leads V3R and V4R
12
Q
Which of the following may cause Hypotension (as per PHECC CPG’s)
A
Glucagon
13
Q
A reported side effect of Clopidogrel is:
A
dyspepsia
14
Q
Which sound is commonly heard in a patient with Croup?
A
Stridor
15
Q
During the primary survey of a trauma patient, you note that the patient is agitated and confused, and has multiple injuries from an altercation. Which of the following choices is the most appropriate first treatment priority?
A
correction of possible hypoxia
16
Q
The amount of medication necessary to take effect
is called
A
Therapeutic effect
17
Q
What is the correct dose of Ipratropium Bromide for adult patients?
A
500mcg NEB
18
Q
The minimum systolic pressure required for the administration of Glycerltrinitrate (GTN) is:
A
90mmHg
19
Q
posterior MI is suspected in patients with ST elevation in?
A
V7, V8, V9 > 0.5mm
20
Q
What is classified as ““symptomatic”” in a
patient who is bradycardic?
A
acute altered mental state
21
Q
Isolated Anterior ST depression can be a sign of?
A
posterior STEMI
22
Q
A STEMI is present on an ECG if ST
elevation is present in?
A
≥2 contiguous leads or presumed new
LBBB with AMI symptoms
23
Q
At what rate should oxygen be delivered to a patient
experiencing Sickle Cell Crisis?
A
15 L/Min via non rebreather mask
24
Q
Which of the following best describes Angina?
A
It occurs because there is not enough oxygen to meet the demands of the body
25
The term affinity, as it applies to pharmacology, is MOST accurately defined as the
Attraction between a medication and its receptor
26
A patient with status asthmaticus commonly presents with:
Physical exhaustion and inaudible breath sounds.
27
In cardiac patients, O2 should be withheld unless the
02 sats drop below 94% T/F?
TRUE
28
In the upper airway, the cricoid cartilage is unique because of
its complete ring shape
29
You have a patient suffering from stabbing chest pain (associated with breathing), they have a temp of 38.7, you hear a wheeze and rales on auscultation. What is the most likely reason for this complaint?
Pleurisy
30
What type of chest injury is characterised by air accumulation in the pleural space when a perforation in the lung parenchyma acts as a one-way valve?
Pneumothorax
31
The spleen is located on what side of the body?
LEFT
32
Which of the following routes of drug administration has the fastest absorption rate?
IV
33
The fluid which is contained within the body the cell is called?
intracellular fluid
34
Touching a responsive patient without first obtaining consent is:
Battery
35
The letter 'I' in MOI stands for:
Injury
36
How do you calculate minute Volume ?
Tidal volume X RR = Minute volume
37
What tissue lines the trachea?
Epithelial tissue
38
What is the correct line of treatment for an unconscious patient (30yo) with an BGL of 3.1mmols/l?
Glucagon 1mg
39
In an Inferior AMI: what ECG is indicated?
Right sided
40
How is an NPA measured
Nasal passage to tragus
41
The right atrium, right ventricle and part of the left ventricle are supplied by the:
Right Coronary Artery
42
During life threatening conditions Oxygen is titrated to…
94-98%
43
The maximum dose of GTN you administer to a 9 year old experiencing chest pain is
Not indicated for paediatrics
44
If a patient is gasping, which is the appropriate O2 administration device?
BVM
45
The peritoneum is made of which type of membrane?
SEROUS
46
Medication used by trauma patients for pre-existing conditions may cause which of the following?
Beta-blockers may prevent tachycardia with blood loss
47
The term automaticity refers to the ability of a cell to:
initiate an impulse on its own.
48
Hyperglycaemia results in skin that is
Warm and dry
49
The coronary arteries fill with blood during:
ventricular diastole.
50
Which of the following most accurately describes septic shock?
Leaking blood vessels and vasodilation due to infection
51
The trade name:
is the unique name given by a manufacturer
52
During the resuscitation of an elderly patient always:
Check for a DNR
53
The generic name for aspirin is
Acetylsalicylic acid
54
When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, the bevelled edge should face ________
Medially
55
Chemical control of respiration is triggered by the
rise of pCO2 in the body
56
Which ONE of the following best describes the region from which the coronary arteries originate?
Ascending aorta
57
58
The term abduction refers to movement of a body part…..?
Away from the midline
59
Increased cell production in a normal tissue/organ is known as?
Hyperplasia
60
What is the mechanism of action of aspirin in a suspected MI?
Inhibits platelet aggregation
61
Passive stretching exerted by blood on the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole is referred to as…?
Preload
62
The term automaticity refers to the ability of a cell to
Initiate an impulse on its own
63
Two valves called the semilunar valves are the?
Pulmonary valve/ Aortic valve
64
What is the typical tidal volume of a male patient?
500ml
65
What tissue lines the trachea?
Epithelial
66
For resting potential in a cardiac cell to exist, there must be an….?
Adequate number of potassium ions inside the cell and sodium ions outside the cell
67
Under normal conditions, the strength of cardiac contraction is regulated by
The frank-sterling mechanism
68
What is the frank sterling mechanism?
*not an MCQ question but you should probably learn it you dumb bitch*
Force of contraction of the heart muscle is directly proportional to the initial length of the muscle fibres.
KP: the more the heart muscle stretches during filling (diastole) the more forcefully it contracts during pumping (systole)
69
What is a tension pneumothorax?
Air accumulates in the pleural space and becomes trapped, creating a one way valve effect
Causes: trauma/perforation in the lung parenchyma
70
What is a simple pneumothorax?
AKA: collapsed lung
Occurs when air leaks into the pleural space. This air causes the lung to partially/fully collapse
Difference to tension:
There is no one way valve effect->air can escape the pleural space preventing a buildup of pressure
71
What is spontaneous pneumothorax?
A collapsed lung that happens without an injury
TYPES
Primary spontaneous pneumothorax: no underlying health condition/disease. Can happen if abnormal air pockets in the lung (blebs) break apart and release air
Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax: caused by certain lung diseases. Lung becomes blocked, causing bulging areas (bullae) that can burst
72
What is affinity (as it applies to pharmacology)
Attraction between a medication and its receptor
73
How long is a pulse check on a hypothermic patient
30-45s
74
CPAP should be started at which pressure?
5cm H2O
75
What year was PHECC established
2000
76
What is diffusion?
A substance moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration without the use of energy
77
The PR interval on an ECG starts where?
Start of the P wave
78
What are the two laws relevant to respiration?
Henry’s Law: how partial pressure causes oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide release
LUNGS->BLOOD (O2)
TISSUE->BLOOD (CO2)
Boyles law: pressure and volume are inversely proportional. As one increases, the other decreases.
The difference in pressure between the atmosphere and the lungs drives the flow of air
79
What are barbiturates?
CNS depressants
80
What process is used when glucose enters a body cell?
Facilitated diffusion
WTF is that?
It’s a type of passive transport that allows molecules to move across a cell membrane with the help of specialised proteins
What does that actually mean?
Imagine ur wanna go to the club but the bouncer says no cuz ur a loser (in this scenario ur glucose)
Then ur mate (who’s a regular and a bestie with the bouncer pulls up- ur mates the protein)
The bouncer (the membrane) will let you in only if you’re with your super cool protein mate, so you tag on and into the club you gooooo💃🕺🏼💃
81
The partial pressure of oxygen is….in atmospheric air?
159mmHg
82
Integumentary also refers to what?
THE SKIN
83
When stimulated, baroreceptors cause the heart rate to …..
DECREASE
84
What are organelles?
Found within the cells cytoplasm and operate in a cooperative and organised fashion to maintain life of the cell
85
GTN does what to the heart?
Reduces preload
86
The normal duration of the QRS complex is?
0.04-0.12s
87
The pressure in the left ventricle at the end of diastole is the….
Preload
88
Administration of what drug may cause dizziness?
Glucagon
89
What airway is contraindicated when there is peri orbital bruising and bruising behind the ears?
NPA
90
What is an effector neuron?
Motor neuron - sends signal from CNS to Effector organs
91
What is an afferent neuron?
Sensory neuron- signal from body to CNS
92
What is an effector organ?
Structures that respond to nerve impulses from CNS
93
The epithelial cells of the choroid plexus secrete what?
CSF
94
Metabolism of medication occurs primarily in the….
Liver
95
The largest muscle of respiration is…
The diaphragm
96
Oxygen is transported by?
Erythrocytes
97
Tidal volume is?
The total amount of air forced out
98
During depolarisation of the heart muscle, what enters the cardiac cell?
Sodium
99
A Full CD cylinder being given at 15L-min will last how long?
30 mins
100
What bone is the base of the tongue connected to?
Hyoid bone
101
If a lead comes off a patients chest, what will happen to the waveform?
It won’t be seen on the monitor
102
Nebulised oxygen is administered at what flow rate?
6-8LPM
103
What muscle is associated with the assistance of forced respiration?
Sternocleidomastoid
104
Hypothermia is considered a reversible cause of cardiac arrest T/F?
True
105
Eye to eye contact with the patient communicates what?
Honesty
106
What term is used to describe difficulty when breathing in a supine position?
Orthoponoea
107
How many litres in a CD cylinder?
460
108
Mental health emergencies in the pre hospital environment are dealt with under which of the following:
2001
109
The practitioner's responsibility to maintain quality records is important:
For future legal purposes
110
Which of the following statements is true regarding PCRs?
- you can share the information with neighbours after the incident
- They can be used in a court of law
- You may use the contents for personal research
-The can be disposed of once patient is handed over in the ED
they can be used in the court of law
111
Which medical condition is characterised by significant systemic symptoms, which have resulted from the sudden release of a build-up of toxins, and could result in sudden death?
Toxic shock syndrome
112
Where is the caecum located?
The intestine
113
Where do you park at an accident where there is a chemical hazard sign ?
Uphill and upwind
114
Which medication is listed as a carbohydrate?
Question 24 options:
Glucagon
Glucose gel
Glucose 10%
NACL 0.9%
Glucose 10%
115
At what age is the occurrence of Sudden Infant Death most common?
0-6 months
116
Who is responsible for the dead at a major emergency?
Question 29 options:
Gardaí
Fire
Ambulance control
Medical authority
gardai
117
At the scene of a major incident, which agency transports the casualties?
Question 51 options:
-Local authority
-Police
-HSE
-Incident command
HSE
118
What are the bones of the fingers called?
Phalanges
119
What are gloves, mask, eye protection and gown called?
Question 54 options:
-Disease protection
-Airborne protection
-Standard precautions
-Personal issue
standard precautions
120
Spinal injury may cause:
Question 60 options:
-Distributive shock
-Obstructive shock
-Hypovolemic shock
-Cardiogenic shock
distributive
121
What position do you transport a patient with appendicitis
Question 61 options:
-Trendelenburg
-Prone
-Lithotomy
-Fowlers
fowlers
122
A trauma patient presents with abdominal guarding. This is a sign of:
Question 63 options:
-Pain
-Internal bleeding
-Gastritis
-Appendicitis
internal bleeding
123
Where is the calcaneus?
Question 65 options:
-Shoulder
-Foot
-Spine
-Elbow
foot
124
What is an example of the parental route
Question 66 options:
-IM
-Inhalational
-Rectal
-Oral
IM
125
Which type of a wound has flaps?
Question 70 options:
-Avulsion
-Laceration
-Contusion
-Abrasion
Avulsions
126
Which is a risk factor for pulmonary embolism?
Question 72 options:
-Oral contraceptive
-Asthma
-Being a tall male
-COPD
oral contraceptives
127
How many stages in clinical audit?
Question 82 options:
-3
-4
-5
-6
5
128
CPAP should be commenced at 5cm H2O and titrated to:
10cm
129
67. Male patient, 72 years old, has been outside all night in cold temperatures. Hands feel cold and look waxy to the touch. He is likely suffering from:
Question 96 options:
-Frosting
-Frost nip
-Severe frostbite
-Superficial frostbite
superficial frostbite
130
Dose of midazolam for a 2yo?
Question 97 options:
-2.5mg
-5mg
-7.5mg
-10mg
5mg
131
Semi-circular canals have a role to play in:
Question 98 options:
-Taste
-Smell
-Balance
-Sight
balance
132
Mental health emergencies in the pre hospital environment are dealt with under which of the following:
2001
133
In someone with subcutaneous emphysema what can be felt under the skin?
crackles
134
The nerve controlling the diaphragm is called
- The vagus nerve
- The glossopharyngeal nerve
- The phrenic nerve
-The intercostal nerve
phrenic nerve
135
R sided AMI is suspected in patients with?
-ST elevation > 1mm in leads V3 and V4
-ST elevation > 1mm in leads V3R and V4R
-ST depression > 1mm in leads V3R and V4R
-ST elevation > 2mm in leads V3R and V4R
ST elevation > 1mm in leads V3R and V4R
136
Kussmaul's respirations are found in patients with:
-Hypoglycemia
-Head injury
- DKA
- Hyperglycemia
DKA
WTF is it?
Kussmaul breathing is a type of deep, labored breathing that is often associated with metabolic acidosis, particularly diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although it can occur in other conditions as well. It is characterized by:
Deep and Rapid Breathing: The person breathes more deeply and at a faster rate than normal. The depth and rate can be so pronounced that the breathing sounds forceful or gasping.
Compensation for Acidosis: Kussmaul breathing is the body's attempt to compensate for a buildup of acid in the blood (acidosis). By increasing the rate and depth of respiration, the body tries to "blow off" excess carbon dioxide (CO₂), which is acidic when dissolved in the blood. This helps raise the pH back toward normal levels.
137
When should you consider transporting a trauma patient to a major Trauma Centre (MTC)?
-Transport time < 30 mins to MTC
-Transport time < 45 minutes to MTC
-Transport time < 60 mins to MTC
-Transport time < 120mins to MTC
<45mins
138
Glucagon is produced in the pancreas by which cells
-Delta
-Alpha
-Globlet
-Beta
ALPHA
139
Blood is acidic or alkaline?
alkaline?
140
What effect does the release of angiotensin 2 have on the body
-Vasodilation
-Bronchoconstriction
-Bronchodilation
-Vasoconstriction
vasoconstriction
141
What condition will cause Renin to be released from the Kidneys?
-Hypotension
-Cardiac Tamponade
-Angina
-Hypertension
hypotension
142
Your oesophagus is a muscular tube, which is approx._____cm long, made up of ______ muscle which lies______ to the trachea.
-25/voluntary/superior
-25/voluntary/posterior
-15/voluntary/posteriorly
-25/involuntary/anterior
25/voluntary/posterior
143
Following a head injury, csf and blood is draining from a patient's ear-how should this be managed?
-Pack tightly with gauze
-Tilt head to opposite side
-Gently cover with gauze to prevent infection
-Place patient in Trendelenburg position
Gently cover with gauze to prevent infection
144
How is Sodium Chloride 0.9% classified?
-Isotonic crystalloid
-Hypotonic
-Hypertonic
-Colloid
Isotonic crystalloid
145
Widespread dilation of the arterioles can cause which type of shock?
-Cardiogenic
-Obstructive
-Distributive
-Hypovolaemic
Distributive
146
Spinal injury may cause:
-Neurogenic shock
-Obstructive shock
-Hypovolemic shock
-Cardiogenic shock
Neurogenic
147
What is the white of the eye called?
sclera
148
When managing a patient with Harness induced suspension trauma, it is advisable to treat the patient in which position as soon as is practically possible?
-Recumbent
-Fowlers
-Vertical
-Horizontal
Horizontal
149
Where is yellow bone marrow found?
-Long bones
-Flat bones
-Irregular bones
-Sigmoid bones
Long bones
150
An appropriate response following triage by the clinical support desk for calls categorised as Blue determinants is:
-Protocol 37
-Paramedic transporting vehicle on scene < 19 mins.
-GP referral
-Ensure 3-4 practitioners mobilised to scene.
GP referral
151
Air trapped between the visceral and parietal pleura is indicative of:
-Pleurisy
-Pneumothorax
-Flail chest
-Pleural effusion
Pneumothorax
152
What is the optimum position for a mother delivering a breech baby?
-All fours
-McRoberts
-Fowlers
-Position of comfort
Position of comfort
153
Which of the following is a role of the first crew on scene at a major emergency?
-Maintain communication with command & Control.
-Initiate patient care.
-Transport patients
-Triage SORT
Maintain communication with command and control
154
How would you preserve an amputated finger on route to hospital?
-Wrap the part loosely in saline-moistened sterile gauze.
-Wrap in gauze and transport on ice
-Place in warm water
-Soak in Milk and transport in clear plastic bag
Wrap the part loosely in saline-moistened sterile gauze
155
Which rhythm is represented by a wide QRS complex with no P wave.
-VT
-VF
-Afib
-SVT
VT
156
What is parasuicide?
Non-fatal event with intention
157
Following successful advanced airway insertion on a paediatric patient, how many ventilations per minute should be given?
12-20
158
Which drug is a 5HT3 receptor antagonist?
-Cyclizine
-Chlorphenamine
-Ticagrelor
-Ondansetron
Ondansetron
159
Regarding frostbitten fingers, which is the most appropriate first action?
-Remove jewellery.
-Gradual rewarming
-Active rewarming with the car heater.
-Vigorous rubbing to rewarm.
Gradual rewarming
160
What is the max paediatric dose of Dexamethasone?
12mg
161
What is the correct dose of chlorphenamine for a 5-month-old patient?
0.25 mg/kg IM
162
What does the first E in METHANE represent?
Exact location of the emergency.
163
Anaerobic cell metabolism resulting in the release of a toxin and the death of tissue is the result of:
Compartment syndrome
164
Ventricular systole lasts approximately?
0.3
165
The correct dosage of Midazolam Solution for a three year old ?
5mg Buccal
166
The normal ph of the blood is?
7.35 to 7.45
167
One symptom of significant internal blood loss is:
-hunger
-excessively warm
-thirst
-disinhibition
Thirst
168
Filtration of the products of digestion takes place in the:
Liver
169
Prolonged use of can cause myeloneuropathy
-paracetamol
-methoxyflurane
-nitrous oxide and oxygen
-ibuprofen
nitrous oxide and oxygen
170
Peripheral neuropathy can occur as a result of
-epilepsy
-heart failure
-opiate overdose
-diabetes
Diabetes
171
the umbilical cord, when wrapped around the baby's neck, is known as
nuchal cord
172
IM Naloxone can be administered to a maximum dose of:
2mg
173
The main principles of ethics that underlie all health care Workers are Non-Maleficence, Autonomy, Justice and:
Beneficence
174
Which medical condition is characterised by significant systemic symptoms, which have resulted from the sudden release of a build-up of toxins, and could result in sudden death?
Toxic shock syndrome
175
In carrying out Triage Sort during a Major Incident, the parameters measured are:
Respiratory Rate, Systolic Blood Pressure and GCS
176
With Paraquat poisoning, administration of oxygen is contraindicated T/F
False
177
What does hypoxemia mean?
Low oxygen in blood
Low iron in body tissue
Low iron in blood
Low oxygen in body tissue
low oxygen in blood
178
Platelets...
have a life span of about 120 days
have multiple nuclei
stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel to help form a clot
are the precursors of leukocytes
stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel to help form a clot
179
Thrombocytes are also called?
platelets
180
Erythrocytes are also called?
red blood cells
181
life span of erythrocytes (red blood cells)?
120 days
182
life span of thrombocytes?
7-10 days
183
lifespan of white blood cells?
8hrs - 3 days
184
When stimulated, baroreceptors cause the heart rate to:
Increase.
Decrease.
Become irregular.
Stay the same.
decrease
185
Incomplete glucose breakdown leads to an accumulation of:
lactic acid
pyruvic acid
bicarbonate
carbonic acid
lactic acid
186
How many pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum?
10
187
Paradoxical breathings results from a:
3 more rib fractures
Flail segment
Hemopneumothorax
Pneumothorax
flail segment
188
The Pancreas
has an exocrine function only
has neither an endocrine or exocrine function
has an exocrine and endocrine function
has an endocrine function only
has an exocrine and endocrine function
189
Partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air?
159mmHg
190
The slowest route for absorption of a medication is
IM
191
If the pleural space becomes filled with air or blood:
the lung expands and fills the thoracic space.
increased surface tension ruptures the lung.
surface tension is lost and the lung collapses.
surface tension forces the pleurae together.
surface tension is lost and the lung collapses.
192
Which of the following is the most secure airway?
SGA
NPA
ETT
OPA
ETT
193
Which of the following is correct in relation to the Asystole decision tree CPG
Record two 15 second rhythm strips
Record two 10 second rhythm strips
Record two 20 second rhythm strips
Record two 30 second rhythm strips
10 SECOND
194
The components of each cell are surrounded by a_________ membrane.
Plasma
195
That part of the pharynx above the level of the soft palate is called the:
Palatopharynx
Nasopharynx
Laryngopharynx
Oropharynx
Nasopharynx
196
Stimulation of parasympathetic nervous system causes:
Increased heart rate
Decreased heart rate
Vasoconstriction
Vasodilation
Decreased heart rate
197
The term Abduction refers to movement of a body part....
Away from the midline
198
The structures that are located in the ventricles and are attached to the heart valve flaps are called
iliopsoas tendons
obturator internus tendons
chordae tendineae
papillary muscles
chordae tendineae
199
Standard ECG paper travels at a rate of?
25mm per second
200
The layers of the wall of the heart, beginning with the outermost layer, are:
epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium
201
The three phases of respiration are
Inspiration, expiration, pause
Expiration, inspiration, pause
Pause, expiration, inspiration
Expiration, pause, inspiration
Inspiration, expiration, pause
202
Movement of water molecules occurs by?
Osmosis
203
The anatomical structure where the trachea splits into two bronchi is called the __________
carina
204
How long should an irregular pulse be checked for?
60 seconds
205
Ventricular systole lasts approximately
0.3 sec
206
The muscular layer of the heart is known as what?
myocardium
207
The process of moving air into and out of the lungs is called?
Ventilation
208
Stimulation of Beta 1 receptors causes:
Increased heart rate
209
A condition, in which air fills the stomach, as a result of high volume and pressure during artificial ventilation is called:
Gastric Distension
210
The study of metabolism and action of medications within the body, with particular emphasis on absorption, duration of action and method of excretion is:
Pharmacokinetics
211
Where should vitals be obtained?
Focused exam
212
Which of the following groups of vessels supplies blood to the myocardium?
Pulmonary
Coronary
Cerebral
Mesenteric
Coronary
213
What is the cause of an ischaemic stroke?
Thrombus occluding major blood vessel resulting
in cerebral ischemia
Thrombus occluding major blood vessel resulting in
myocardial ischemia
Rupture of major blood vessel of the brain resulting in
cerebal ischemia
Thrombus occluding carotid artery resulting in
myocardial ischemia
Thrombus occluding major blood vessel resulting
in cerebral ischemia
214
What oxygen would you give a pre-term neonate?
FI02 21%
FI02 20%
FI02 100%
FI02 30%
FI02 30%
215
If paedal oedema is present, which side of the heart is failing?
Anterior
Posterior
Left
Right
right
216
Obstructive shock is?
There is an obstruction in the patient's airway
There is a obstruction in major blood vessels of the brain
causing the vagus nerve to be stimulated
a widespread catastrophic vasodilation of the bodies
major blood vessels
an obstruction is causing blood flow reduction
going into and out of your heart or great vessels
an obstruction is causing blood flow reduction
going into and out of your heart or great vessels
217
The golden hour is?
Time of injury to treatment of first aid
Time of injury to Emergency department admission
Time of injury to surgical intervention
Time of injury to medical assistance
Time of injury to surgical intervention
218
The illium is located where?
upper pelvis
219
The acetabulum is which part of the pelvis?
The socket
220
in relation to the pelvis, the Pubis is located?
medially
221
Where do you Park at a civil disturbance
at a designated ambulance parking area
222
what is the prefered site for an IM injection on a paediatric patient
Mid lateral thigh
223
A clinical near miss is defined as?
an error that has the potential to cause an adverse event (patient harm) but fails to do so because it was intercepted
224
Define "hypoventilation"
when a patient is breathing at such a low rate that gas exchange becomes reduced and C02 builds up in the blood
225
An aortic aneurysm is?
A balloon like bulge in the aorta caused by blood leaking between the layers of the vessel
226
What are the indications for CPAP?
Clinical signs of APO, RR > 25, Sp02 < 95%
227
The maximum number of times to shock a severely hypothermia patient in cardiac arrest
3
228
You are dealing with a patient who you think will self harm, you should
call the Gardai
229
what area of the throat is suctioned?
oropharynx
230
What part of the heart does v3r and v4R show?
Right Ventricle
231
what is the superior part of the lung called?
apex
232
what is the average length of the spinal cord?
45 cm
233
what is the difference between ligaments and tendons?
ligaments attach bone to bone, tendons attach muscle to bone
234
the osophagous is located in which cavity
Thoracic
235
what should be considered prior to salbutamol administeration?
peek flow
236
The spleen is found in which abdominal region?
Left hypochondrium
Left lumbar
Right iliac
Epigastrium
Left hypochondrium
237
How many pairs of false ribs does an adult have?
3
238
he pulse that can be palpated near the top of the foot is the:
dorsalis pedis
239
Which of the following fractures would most likely be associated with the presence of surgical emphysema
Clavical
Femur
Humerous
Mandible
Clavical
240
Epistaxis should initially be treated by applying digital pressure for
15mins
241
The bone on the thumb side of the forearm is
Radius
242
The production of mucus is the primary function of
Goblet
243
What type of joint is located at the hip?
Ball and socket
244
Increased Sympathetic Nerve stimulation of blood vessels will have what effect?
Vasoconstriction
Vasoldilation
No affect
There is no sympathetic nerve stimulus to blood vessels
Vasoconstriction
245
How many items need to be present to highlight Sepsis red flag?
> 1
246
The prefix phlebo means?
vein
247
The cephalic vein is located in the ___________
arm
248
what is known as the "Master Gland"?
piturity
249
The mediastinum is located in which cavity
Thoracic
250
What condition involves the destruction of alveolar sacs?
Emphysema
251
The most immediate life threatening condition resulting from injury to solid abdominal organs is which of the following?
Multiple organ failure
Catastrophic Heamorrhage
Acute respiratory failure
Peritonitis
Catastrophic Heamorrhage
252
Gluconeogenesis refers to
The creation of glucose
253
Which part of the brain is responsible for coordinating muscle movements and maintaining balance?
Cerebellum
254
How many bones in your hand
27
255
What is the specific consideration for the treatment of Paraquat poisioning?
Do not administer 02
unless Sp02 < 92%
Administer 100% high
flow 02
Only give 02 if patient is hypoxic
Never administer 02 when treating Paraquat poisoning
Do not administer 02
unless Sp02 < 92%
256
What is the largest sesamoid bone in the body?
patella
257
Which of the following conditions would LEAST likely present with an acute onset of respiratory distress
Anaphylaxis
Pneumonia
Asthma
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumonia
258
Between which layers would you find an epidural bleed?
Dura and Skull
259
Which layer of the blood vessel is made up of elastic fibres and muscle and provides for strength and contractility?
Tunica media
260
The innermost meningeal layer that rests directly on the spinal cord is the
Pia mater
261
The appendix is located in the?
RLQ
262
What does parenteral drug administration mean?
any route of administration other than the digestive tract (PO)
263
Flattened, closed sacs of synovial fluid found where a tendon rubs against a bone, ligament, or other tendon are called
Bursae
264
The transverse plane:
Divides superior from inferior
265
The liver, which is rather fragile and is easily injured in accidents
Takes up most of the area
beneath the diaphragm on the
right
266
Accumulation of fluid within abdominal cavity is called
Acities
267
Osteoporosis tends to progress more rapidly in:
bones in the arms
post menopause
bones in the lower legs
males over 60
post menopause
268
What is the normal resp rste of a 4-6 month old?
30 - 60 min
269
When the pH that is greater than 7.45, it is:
Alkalosis
270
Which area of the brain contains nerve fibres that form a bridge between the two sides of the cerebrum?
Pons
Corpus callosum
Midbrain
Medulla
Corpus callosum
271
What causes decreased BP in neurogenic shock?
Polyuria
Movement of fluid into the cells
Disrupted SNS communication
Movement of fluid into the vasculature
Disrupted SNS communication
272
Cor pulmonale is MOST accurately defined as:
Right heart failure secondary to chronic lung disease
273
In the phonetic alphabet, the number '9' is represented by the word:
Nine-er
274
The type of pain felt in hollow organs is termed
Visceral
275
What is the Hydrocortisone dose for COPD?
200mg
276
Which of the following signs would you MOST likely expect to see as you assess a patient with a slow lower gastrointestinal bleed?
melena
277
Normal HR expected for a newborn infant?
90-180
278
First set of vital signs that you obtain is known as the…
Baseline
279
A systemic head to toe examination looking for non life threatening injuries in a patient is part of….
Secondary survey
280
Capillary refill is the most reliable indicator of cardiovascular status in which patient group….
Children
281
What two sections of the spinal cord are most susceptible to injury?
Cervical and lumbar
282
What are the three main parts of the brain?
Cerebrum, cerebellum and brain stem
283
What are the blood vessels that return blood from the head
Jugular
284
The shoulder girdle consists of?
Clavicles and the scapulae
285
Bands of tough, flexible connective tissue which join the articular surfaces of bones are called?
Ligaments
286
What part of the brain is regarded as the control centre for respiration?
Medulla oblongata
287
Electrical impulses that are produced in the spinal cord and transmitted along the ….nerve to the muscle and cause it to contract
Motor
288
The outer most layer of the skin is the…
Epidermis
289
….. blood pressure reflects relaxation of the heart
Diastolic
290
What is another term for lower jaw?
Mandible
291
What is the sequence of layers of the meninges?
Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pía mater
292
What is the largest artery in the body?
Aorta
293
What organs are commonly found in the URQ?
Liver, gallbladder, duodenum, small portion of pancreas
294
How many bones are in the spine?
33
295
Name three types of muscular tissue?
Skeletal, smooth, cardiac
296
The amount of air that passes into and out of the lungs in one breath is called the….
Tidal volume
297
What are the four characteristics of skeletal muscle?
Excitability/ contractility/ extensibility/ elasticity
298
Where does external respiration take place in the lungs?
Alveoli
299
Pathology is the study of
Disease
300
How many additional responders are mobilised for a cardiac arrest?
3-4
301
The term anoxia refers to…
Complete lack of oxygen in the body tissue
302
When you open an infants airway you should….
Maintain the head in a neutral inline position
303
What percentage of oxygen is contained in expired air?
16%
304
A simple face mask at a flow of 6-8LPM can deliver a maximum oxygen concentration of….
60%
305
The inability to speak or write due to a brain injury is called?
Aphasia
306
Parkinson’s disease is associated with a deficiency in what hormone?
Dopamine
307
The mechanical process of removing waste materials or poisons from the blood is called…
Haemodialysis
308
IM injection should be delivered at what angle?
90° angle
309
In compensatory shock what happens to SBP?
Remains steady
310
A conscious patient with a sucking chest wound should be transported in what position?
Lying on the injured side
311
How long should pressure be applied for epistaxis
15 min
312
What are agonal respirations
Occasional gasping breaths unable to maintain life
313
In the continuum of pre-hospital emergency care , covering Responders and Practitioners, how many levels are there?
6
314
What type of civil disorder involves several sites of disturbance
running disorder
315
The ethical principle meaning equal and fair distribution of care to all patients is?
justice
316
The ethical principle meaning doing no harm to a patient is known as
nonmaleficience
317
The ethical principle meaning the right of the patient to make their own choices is
autonomy
318
The statutory instrument establishing the ability of paramedics to administer medications is?
SI 300 of 2014
319
A function of the Pre-Hospital Emergency Care Council (PHECC) is to?
Develop training and educational standards
320
The PHECC code of professional conduct and ethic's is ?
A document that a Paramedic signs a declaration to comply with
321
What do the initials CPC stand for?
Continual Professional Competency
322
The statutory instrument that established the Pre-hospital Emergency Care Council is
SI 109 of 2000
323
The 18 care principles that underpin clinical practice guidelines are?
goals of care that apply to all patients
324
The ethical principle meaning acting in the best interest of the patient is
beneficience
325
A normally filled D size Entenox holds how much oxygen
326
The term oliguria means
reduced urine output
327
The term anuria means
absence of urine output
328
You are providing rescue breaths with a BVM with supplementary oxygen. Why is it important to deliver the breaths slowly over two seconds?
Slow ventilations reduce the risk of gastric inflation/ aspiration of vomit
329
The serous membrane which lines the abdomen and covers the abdominal organs is called
Peritoneum
330
You have noticed your colleague administer an incorrect medication. You should:
advise your colleague to follow the organisation's adverse event policy
331
How many dispatch classifications are there in the Advanced Medical Priority Dispatch System (AMPDS):
6
332
As shock worsens, the pulse will become
rapid and weak
333
How does activated charcoal work on an ingested poison
adsorbtion of the toxin (sticks to toxin)
334
The purpose of placing a neonate in a polythene bag without drying first is to
retain heat
335
Which of the following neonates should be placed in a polythene bag
≤ 32 weeks
336
Ketone measurement should be considered for a patient with blood sugars of
11-20 mmol/L
337
When caring for a patient with decompression illness, aeromedical transport flight level should not exceed
1000 feet
338
When resuscitating a newborn neonate, the ratio of compressions to ventilation is
3:1
339
The minimum recommended cooling time for a burn to a paediatric patient is:
20 minutes
