MCQ Recalls Flashcards

1
Q

Immediate treatment for avulsed tooth that can’t be replantation?

A

Placed in refrigerated cow milk

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2
Q

Pre-eclampsia woman at 30 weeks - what are the cardiovascular changes?

A

High BP due to increased SVR.
Reduced cardiac output due to combination of diastolic dysfunction and increased after load

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3
Q

Dose of adenosine for SVT?

A

incremental dose of 6mg, 12 mg, then further 12 mg if needed.

Usually attempt vagal manoeuvres prior to adenosine

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4
Q

ECG findings of Brugada?

What’s the management?

A

Coved ST segment elevation ≥2mm in one or more right precordial leads V1-V3.
- The elevation is followed by a negative T wave

ICD implantation is recommended.

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5
Q

5 kpa = ?mmHg?

A

5x7.5 = 37.5mmHg

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6
Q

What is the use of a Arndt connector?

A

For bronchial blocker - used to establish OLV.

side port for circuit.
Straight port for bronchoscope
Side, diagonal port fro bronchial blocker

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7
Q

ANZCA return to practice guideline - how long in terms of supervision is required for every year missing?

A

4 weeks

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8
Q

When does thyroid storm present in the periop period?

A

Usually in early post-op period, but also on induction, intra-op, and in the first 4 days after surgery

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9
Q

Symptoms of thyroid storm?

A

High fever, tachycardia, hypertension, agitation/confusion, jaundice, abdominal pain.

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10
Q

Treatment of thyroid storm perioperatively

A

Beta-blockers in the acute phase (propranolol, labetalol)

Corticosteroids

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11
Q

TTE findings of pulmonary HTN ?

A

Elevated tricuspid regurgitation velocity of > 3.4m/s

Estimated RVSP of >35-40mmHg

RV/RA dilation, RV hypertrophy, reduced RV systolic function

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12
Q

Methylene blue vs. patent blue?

A

Methylene blue
- lower anaphylaxis
- higher fat necrosis at injection site
- similar sentinel node identification
- does not cause drop in pulse ox

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13
Q

What can cause auto stimulation for a deep brain stimulator/vagal nerve stimulator used for refractory epilepsy

A

Tachycardia

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14
Q

Treatment for recurrent Torsade?

A

Lignocaine or mexiletine

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15
Q

What is a Watchman device?

A

Small, implantable medical device designed to reduce the risk of stroke in patients with non-valvular AF.

Designed to close off the LA appendage

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16
Q

Which anti-emetics should patients with Parkinson’s disease avoid?

A

Metoclopramide
Prochloreperazine
Chlorpromazine
Droperidol
Promethazine

Safer options are domperidone, ondansetron, cyclizine

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17
Q

Major findings of the METS study in terms of
- NT Pro BNP
- Subjective assessment
- 6MWT
- DASI

A

Elevated BNP >300 = increased risks of post-op 30 day myocardial injury/death

Subjective assessment = poor agreement with validated questionnaires

DASI, combined with Revised Cardiac Risk Index, associated with 30d mortality or MI, but not as strong as pro BNP

6MWT below 350m =poorer outcome

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18
Q

What does pulse pressure variation indicate?

A

a PPV of >15% in a mechanically ventilated patient indicates fluid responsiveness

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19
Q

Dose of midazolam in children for status epilepticus?

For 20kg child

A

Buccal 0.3mg/kg -> 6mg
IN 0.3mg/kg -> 6mg
IV 0.15mg/kg -> 3mg
IM 0.2mg/kg -> 4mg

20
Q

TAVI vs. SAVR disadvantages

A

Higher risk of paravalvular leak

Increased need of PPM

Higher is of vascular Cx

Potential for valve pop-outs

Higher risk of coronary occlusion

Higher reintervention rate

21
Q

Posterior shoulder pain post interscalene nerve block - which nerve should be targeted?

A

Suprascapular nerve

22
Q

What did the PREVENTT trial show?

A

Pre-op IV iron for major abdominal surgery.
- Increased pre-op Hb level by 8g/L
- No significant difference in need for blood transfusion or death at 30 days.
- No diff in safety and secondary outcomes

23
Q

Chin numbness post 3rd molar extraction cause by neuropraxia of which nerve

A

Inferior alveolar nerve

24
Q

Main sensory innervation to the breast comes from?

A

Anterior and lateral cutaneous branches of the thoracic intercostal nerves T3-T5

Supraclavicular nerve from C3-C4 innervating the upper and lateral portions of the breast

25
Benefits of Intraop 20mmol/L magnesium
Reduce anaesthetic requirement Analgesia Potentiates NDMR Lower PONV and shivering Haemodynamic stability
26
Treatments of a Tet spell? (cyanosis when SNS activated)
Fluid bolus Vasopressor Beta-blocker Sedation
27
What is a tet spell?
Reduced pulmonary blood flow -> increased right to left shunt in TOF -> cyanosis
28
What does TAPSE indicate?
RV systolic function / contractility <17 = RV dysfunction
29
Key differences of CALS vs. conventional ALS?
Avoidance of external chest compressions and full dose adrenaline Three-stacked shocks + resterntomy within 5 mins of arrest
30
What is the Borg scale during stress test
Rating of perceived exertion
31
Rumack-Matthew nomogram is validated for use in paracetamol overdose with
Single ingestion of immediate release only
32
Prilocaine bier’s block who not to give it to patients with?
G6PD deficiency
33
Heart transplant patient has increased sensitivity to
Adenosine
34
NNT of ibuprofen?
2.4, very good 1.6 for ketorelac
35
DDAVP indications include EXCEPT - Haemophilia B - Uraemic bleeding - vWD type 2a - Diabetes inspidius - Noctural polyuria
Haem B
36
V5 ECG dot location?
Anterior axillary line, 5th intercostal space
37
Tracheal deviation away from lung white out. Ddx?
Mass effect - Pleural effusion - Intra-pulmonary mass - Diaphragmatic hernia
38
Tracheal deviation toward lung white out. Ddx?
Mainstem obstruction Pneumonectomy Pulmonary hypoplasia Due to volume loss
39
When to prognosticate after cardiac arrest?
72 hours
40
What is formication?
Sensation of ants or insects crawling on or under the skin. A specific type of paraesthesia
41
What is warm ischaemia time?
Time an organ remains at body temperature after blood flow is stopped, or before it is cooled for preservation
42
Cut off of EtCO2 to rule out oesophageal intubation?
>10mmHg
43
Treatment of extravasated Norad?
SC phentolamine
44
What does cryoprecipitate contain?
Fibrinogen Factor 13, factor VIII vWF Fibronectin
45
Most common cause of cardiac arrest intra-op?
major haemorrhage
46
What does addition of heavy formulation to 0.5% bupivocaine do cf. standard 0.5% plain
higher block shorter duration
47
Typical diagnostic criteria for serum tryptase for anaphylaxis?
1.2x baseline level, and the increase is greater than 2ng/ml