MCQs

Question 1

1. API 577 is a recommended practice that specifically provides guidance for who?
   A) All users of the API 577 document B) Both Welding Engineers/Inspectors C) API authorized inspectors only D) AWS Welding Inspectors only

Answer 1

C
Reference: Section 1 Scope

Question 2

2. API 577 is a recommended practice that covers which of the following: A) Welding inspection for fabrication/repair of Oil & Gas industry pressure equipment B) Welding inspection for fabrication/repair of refinery/chem. plant equipment and piping C) Welding inspection for all activities performed on Oil & Gas industry pressure equipment D) Welding inspection for all activities performed on refinery/chem. plant equipment and piping

Answer 2

B
Reference: Section 1 Scope

Question 3

3. Which of the following items of knowledge are not covered in API 577 to aid inspectors in fulfilling their role implementing API codes and standards?
   A) Common welding processes/welding procedures B) Metallurgical effects from welding C) Welder qualifications D) Welding techniques

Answer 3

D
Reference: Section 1 Scope
Correct = Inspection techniques

Question 4

4. Which of the following codes and standards of API are covered in API 577 to aid inspectors in fulfilling their role of implementing API codes and standard requirements?
   A) API 510, API 570, and API STD 653 B) API 510, API 570, API STD 653, and API RP 582 C) API 510, API 570, API STD 653, API RP 582, and API 578 D) API 510, API 570, API STD 653, API RP 582, API 578, and API 580

Answer 4

B
Reference: Section 1 Scope

Question 5

5. API 577 intends that welds selected for inspection, and the appropriate inspection techniques, should be determined by (who): A) Welding inspectors, engineers, or other responsible personnel using applicable codes/STDs B) Welding inspectors or other responsible personnel using applicable codes/STDs C) Welding inspectors using applicable codes/STDs D) None of the above are correct

Answer 5

A
Reference: Section 1 Scope

Question 6

6. Who should be consulted on any critical, specialized or complex welding issues?
   A) API Authorized Welding Inspector B) National Board Authorized Inspector C) Welding Inspector D) Welding Engineer

Answer 6

D
Reference: Section 1 Scope

Question 7

1. Which of these statements are correct regarding all codes and standards referenced by API 577?
   (All codes and standards are …) A) Subject to periodic revision, and the most recent revision available should be used B) Subject to periodic revision, and the revision used in construction should be used C) Subject to periodic revision and the most recent revision available shall be used D) Subject to periodic revision and the revision used in construction shall be used

Answer 7

A
Reference: Section 2
References Most recent revision should be used

Question 8

2. Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers the detailed requirements for Hot Tapping or welding on In-Service Piping?
   A) API Publication 2201 B) API Publication 2207 C) API Publication 2217A D) API 582

Answer 8

A
Reference: Section 2
References  MUST KNOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Question 9

3. Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers the detailed requirements for preparing tank bottoms for hot work?
   A) API Publication 2201 B) API Publication 2207 C) API Publication 2217A D) API 582

Answer 9

B
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
API Publications

Question 10

4. Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers the detailed guidelines for work in inert confined spaces in the Petroleum Industry?
   A) API Publication 2201 B) API Publication 2207 C) API Publication 2217A D) API 582

Answer 10

C
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
API Publications

Question 11

5. Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers supplementary welding guidelines for the Chemical, Oil & Gas Industries?
   A) API Publication 2201 B) API Publication 2207 C) API Publication 2217A D) API 582

Answer 11

D
Reference: Section 2
References  MUST KNOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Question 12

6. Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers Inspection of Pressure Vessels?
   A) API 510 B) API 572 C) API 574 D) NB 23

Answer 12

B
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
API Publications

Question 13

7. Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers Inspection Practices for piping system components?
   A) API 570 B) API 572 C) API 574 D) API 575

Answer 13

C
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
API Publications

Question 14

8. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Maintenance, Inspection, Rating, Repair, and Alteration requirements for Pressure Vessels?
   A) API 510 B) API 570 C) API 572 D) NB 23

Answer 14

A
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
API Publications

Question 15

9. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers the Inspection, Repair, Alteration, and Rerating of In-Service Piping Systems?
   A) API 510 B) API 570 C) API 572 D) API 574

Answer 15

B
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
API Publications

Question 16

10. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Material Verification Program for New & Existing Alloy Piping Systems?
    A) API 572 B) API 574 C) API 575 D) API 578

Answer 16

D
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
API Publications

Question 17

11. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Process Piping?
    A) ASME B31.1 B) ASME B31.3 C) ASME B31.4 D) API 570

Answer 17

B
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
ASME Publications

Question 18

12. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Power Piping?
    A) ASME B31.1 B) ASME B31.3 C) ASME B31.4 D) API 570

Answer 18

A
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
ASME Publications

Question 19

13. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Pipe Flanges and Flanged Fittings?
    A) ASME B16.5 B) ASME B16.9 C) ASME B16.34 D) None of these are correct

Answer 19

A
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
ASME Publications

Question 20

14. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Factory-Made Wrought Steel Butt-welding Fittings?
    A) ASME B16.5 B) ASME B16.9 C) ASME B16.34 D) None of these are correct

Answer 20

B
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
ASME Publications

Question 21

15. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers flanged, threaded, and welding-end valves?
    A) ASME B16.5 B) ASME B16.9 C) ASME B16.34 D) None of these are correct

Answer 21

C
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
ASME Publications

Question 22

16. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers the specifications for Welding rods, Electrodes, & Filler metals?
    A) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part A B) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part B C) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part C D) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part D

Answer 22

C
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
ASME Publications

Question 23

17. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers the specifications and properties for Materials?
    A) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part A B) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part B C) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part C D) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part D

Answer 23

D
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
ASME Publications

Question 24

18. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers these respective items (Nondestructive Examination, Rules for Construction of Pressure Vessels, & Qualification Standard for Welding Procedures, Welders, and Welding Operators)?
    A) ASME B&PVC Section V, Section VIII, & Section IX respectively B) ASME B&PVC Section IX, Section VIII, & Section V respectively C) ASME B&PVC Section VIII, Section V, & Section IX respectively D) ASME B&PVC Section II Part B, Section II Part C, and Section II, Part D respectively

Answer 24

A
Reference: Section 2
References  Know the
ASME Publications

Question 25

19. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers the recommended practice for Personnel Qualification and Certification in Nondestructive Testing? A) ASNT Central Certification Program B) SNT-TC-1A C) CP-189 D) None of these

Answer 25

B Reference: Section 2 References  MUST KNOW THIS!!!!!!!!!

Question 26

20. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers the standard for Qualification and Certification of Nondestructive testing personnel? A) ASNT Central Certification Program B) SNT-TC-1A C) CP-189 D) None of these

Answer 26

C Reference: Section 2 References  MUST KNOW THIS!!!!!!!!!

Question 27

1. The shortest distance between the weld root and the face of a fillet weld: A) Theoretical throat B) Fillet weld size C) Effective throat D) Actual throat

Answer 27

D Reference = 3.1 actual throat

Question 28

2. A carbon arc cutting process variation that removes molten metal with a jet of air: A) Air carbon arc cutting B) Carbon arc gouging C) AC carbon arc cutting D) DC carbon arc cutting

Answer 28

A Reference = 3.2 air carbon arc cutting (CAC-A)

Question 29

3. The deflection of an arc from its normal path because of magnetic forces. A) Arc fluctuation B) Arc length C) Arc blow D) Arc short circuiting

Answer 29

C Reference = 3.3 Arc blow

Question 30

4. The distance from tip of the welding electrode to adjacent surface of the weld pool is: A) Arc fluctuation B) Arc length C) Arc blow D) Arc short circuiting

Answer 30

B Reference = 3.4 Arc length

Question 31

5. A discontinuity resulting from an arc, consisting of any localized remelted metal, heat- affected metal, or change in the surface profile of any metal object is called: A) Arc fluctuation B) Arc length C) Arc blow D) Arc strike

Answer 31

D Reference = 3.5 Arc strike

Question 32

6. A group of welding processes that produces coalescence of work pieces by heating them with an arc. The processes are used with or without the application of pressure and with or without filler metal. This is called: A) Arc welding B) Arc gouging C) Arc blow D) Stud welding

Answer 32

A Reference = 3.6 Arc Welding

Question 33

7. A fusion weld made without filler metal is called: A) Arc weld B) Thermite weld C) Autogenous weld D) Stud weld

Answer 33

C Reference = 3.7 Autogenous Weld

Question 34

8. The removal of weld metal and base metal from the weld root side of a welded joint to facilitate complete fusion and complete joint penetration upon subsequent welding from that side is called: A) Air carbon arc cutting B) Back gouging C) Carbon arc gouging D) Carbon arc cutting

Answer 34

B Reference = 3.8 back gouging

Question 35

9. A material or device placed against the backside of the joint, or at both sides of a weld in welding, to support and retain molten weld metal. A) Insert B) Insert strip C) Consumable insert D) Backing

Answer 35

D Reference = 3.9 backing

Question 36

10. The metal or alloy that is welded or cut. A) Base metal B) Oxidized surface C) Carburized surface D) None of these are correct

Answer 36

A Reference = 3.10 base metal

Question 37

11. The angle between the bevel of a joint member and a plane perpendicular to the surface of the member is called: A) Bevel face B) Chamfer face C) Bevel angle D) Groove angle

Answer 37

C Reference = 3.11 bevel angle

Question 38

12. A non-standard term for excessive visible root reinforcement in a joint welded from one side or a hole through the root bead. Also, a common term used to reflect the act of penetrating a thin component with the welding arc while hot tap welding or in-service welding is called: A) Excessive Penetration B) Burn-Through C) Excessive Root Reinforcement D) None of these are correct

Answer 38

B Reference = 3.12 burn-through

Question 39

13. An arc welding power source with a volt-ampere relationship yielding a small welding current change from a large arc voltage change is called: A) Direct current electrode negative B) Direct current electrode positive C) Constant voltage power supply D) Constant current power supply

Answer 39

D Reference = 3.13 constant current power supply

Question 40

14. An arc welding power source with a volt-ampere relationship yielding a large welding current change from a small voltage change is called: A) Constant voltage power supply B) Constant current power supply C) Direct current electrode negative D) Direct current electrode positive

Answer 40

A Reference = 3.14 constant voltage power supply

Question 41

15. A fracture type discontinuity characterized by a sharp tip and high ratio of length and width to opening displacement is called: A) Hot cracking B) Longitudinal cracking C) Crack D) Lamellar tear

Answer 41

C Reference = 3.15 crack

Question 42

16. A discontinuity or discontinuities that by nature or accumulated effect render a part or product unable to meet minimum applicable acceptance standards or specifications, and the term designates rejectability … This is called a: A) Rejectable discontinuity B) Defect C) Recordable indication D) Reportable indication

Answer 42

B Reference = 3.16 defect

Question 43

17. The arrangement of direct current arc welding leads in which the electrode is the negative pole and work piece is the positive pole of the welding arc … is called: A) Reverse Polarity B) Positive polarity C) Direct current electrode positive D) Direct current electrode negative

Answer 43

D Reference = 3.17 DCEN  STRAIGHT POLARITY

Question 44

18. The arrangement of direct current arc welding leads in which the electrode is the positive pole and the work piece is the negative pole of the welding arc … is called: A) Direct current electrode positive B) Direct current electrode negative C) Straight Polarity D) Positive polarity

Answer 44

A Reference = 3.18 DCEP  REVERSE POLARITY

Question 45

19. An interruption of the typical structure of a material, such as a lack of homogeneity in its mechanical, metallurgical, or physical characteristics that is not necessarily a defect. A) Recordable indication B) Reportable indication C) Discontinuity D) Linear or rounded discontinuity

Answer 45

C Reference = 3.19 discontinuity

Question 46

20. The change in shape or dimensions, temporary or permanent, of a part as a result of heating or welding is called: A) Deflection B) Distortion C) Beyond yield stress (yielded) D) Annealed

Answer 46

B Reference = 3.20 distortion

Question 47

21. The metal or alloy to be added in making a welded joint … is called: A) Flux B) Fluxing agent C) Fluxing compound D) Filler metal

Answer 47

D Reference = 3.21 filler metal

Question 48

22. For equal leg fillet welds, the leg lengths of the largest isosceles right triangle that can be inscribed within the fillet weld cross section … is called: A) Fillet weld size B) Fillet weld throat C) Fillet weld actual throat D) Filler weld effective throat

Answer 48

A Reference = 3.22 fillet weld size

Question 49

23. A non-standard term for weld interface is called: A) HAZ B) Weld Heat affected zone C) Fusion line D) Grain boundary

Answer 49

C Reference = 3.23 fusion line

Question 50

24. The total included angle of the groove between work pieces is called: A) Bevel angle B) Groove angle C) Weld joint angle D) Fit up angle

Answer 50

B Reference = 3.24 groove angle

Question 51

25. The portion of the base metal whose mechanical properties or microstructure have been altered by the heat of welding or thermal cutting is called: A) Fusion line B) Grain boundary C) Weld overlap zone D) HAZ

Answer 51

D Reference = 3.25 HAZ (heat affected zone)

Question 52

26. Energy supplied by the welding arc to the work piece that is calculated using voltage, amperage, and weld travel speed … The Formula = (V x amperage) ÷ 60 weld travel speed given in inches/minute … is called: A) Heat input B) Welding supply C) Heat output D) None of these are correct

Answer 52

A Reference = 3.26 Heat Input & Formula  Expect a question on the formula

Question 53

27. Cracking formed at temperatures near the completion of solidification is called: A) Shrinkage cracking B) Heat affected zone cracking C) Hot cracking D) Grain boundary cracking

Answer 53

C Reference = 3.27 hot cracking

Question 54

28. Entrapped foreign solid material, such as slag, flux, tungsten, or oxide is called: A) Lamination B) Inclusion C) Delamination D) None of these are correct

Answer 54

B Reference = 3.28 inclusion

Question 55

29. A weld discontinuity in which complete coalescence did not occur between weld metal and fusion faces or adjoining weld beads is called: A) Lack of penetration B) Incomplete joint penetration C) Incomplete joint fusion D) Incomplete fusion

Answer 55

D Reference = 3.29 Incomplete fusion

Question 56

30. A joint root condition in a groove weld in which weld metal does not extend through the joint thickness. A) Incomplete joint penetration B) Lack of penetration C) Incomplete joint fusion D) Incomplete fusion

Answer 56

A Reference = 3.30 Incomplete joint penetration

Question 57

31. An individual who is qualified and certified to perform inspections under the proper inspection code OR who holds a valid and current National Board Commission is an: A) Authorized Inspector B) Owner/User Inspector C) Inspector D) National Board Inspector

Answer 57

C Reference = 3.31 Inspector

Question 58

32. In a multipass weld, the temperature of the weld area between weld passes is called: A) Preheat temperature B) Interpass temperature C) Holding temperature D) None of these are correct

Answer 58

B Reference = 3.32 interpass temperature

Question 59

33. The term IQI means this and it is properly called a(n): A) Penetrameter B) Image Penetrameter C) Image Quality Indication D) Image Quality Indicator

Answer 59

D Reference = 3.33 IQI = Image Quality Indicator No longer a penetrameter

Question 60

34. The distance the weld metal extends from the weld face into a joint, exclusive of weld reinforcement is called: A) Joint penetration B) Penetration C) Joint fusion D) Joint complete fusion

Answer 60

A Reference = 3.34 Joint penetration

Question 61

35. A weld joint classification based on five basic joint configurations such as a butt joint, corner joint, edge joint, lap joint, and t-joint … is called: A) Weldment B) Weld Joint Class C) Joint Type D) Weld Joint Category

Answer 61

C Reference = 3.35 Joint type

Question 62

36. A non-standard term indicating a weld discontinuity in which fusion did not occur between weld metal and fusion faces or adjoining weld beads is called: A) Incomplete joint penetration B) Lack of fusion C) Incomplete joint fusion D) Incomplete fusion

Answer 62

B Reference = 3.36 Lack of Fusion (LOF)

Question 63

37. A subsurface terrace and step-like crack in the base metal with a basic orientation parallel to the wrought surface caused by tensile stresses in the through thickness direction of the base metal weakened by the presence of small dispersed, planar shaped, nonmetallic inclusions parallel to the metal surface … is called: A) Lamination B) Transgranular crack C) Hydrogen Assisted Cracking D) Lamellar Tear

Answer 63

D Reference = 3.37 Lamellar tear

Question 64

38. A type of discontinuity with separation or weakness generally aligned parallel to the worked surface of a metal is called: A) Lamination B) Transgranular crack C) Hydrogen Assisted Cracking D) Lamellar Tear

Answer 64

A Reference = 3.38 Lamination

Question 65

39. A discontinuity with a length that is substantially greater than its width is called: A) Recordable indication B) Reportable indication C) Linear discontinuity D) Rounded discontinuity

Answer 65

C Reference = 3.39 Linear discontinuity

Question 66

40. A crack with its major axis orientation approximately parallel to the weld axis is called: A) Transverse Crack B) Longitudinal Crack C) Transgranular Crack D) Lamellar Tear

Answer 66

B Reference = 3.40 Longitudinal Crack

Question 67

41. The act of determining suitability of some material or component for its intended purpose using techniques that do not affect its serviceability is called: A) Evaluation B) Assessment C) Suitability for Service D) NDE

Answer 67

D Reference = 3.41 Nondestructive Examination or NDE

Question 68

42. The protrusion of weld metal beyond the weld toe or weld root is called: A) Overlap B) Reinforcement C) Undercut D) Underfill

Answer 68

A Reference = 3.42 Overlap

Question 69

43. An oxygen gas cutting process variation that uses acetylene as the fuel gas is called: A) Air carbon arc cutting B) Carbon arc cutting C) Oxyacetylene cutting D) Acetylene cutting

Answer 69

C Reference = 3.43 Oxyacetylene cutting

Question 70

44. Any physical evaluation or test of a material (electrode, wire, flux, weld deposit, base metal, etc.), which has been or will be placed into service, to demonstrate it is consistent with the selected or specified alloy material designated by owner/user. These evaluations or tests may provide either qualitative or quantitative information that is sufficient to verify the nominal alloy composition … is called: A) Inspection B) Positive Materials Verification C) Material Receiving Inspection D) Quality Materials Verification

Answer 70

B Reference = 3.44 Positive Materials Identification

Question 71

45. The mechanical working of metals using impact blows is called: A) Hammering B) Needle gunning C) Cold working D) Peening

Answer 71

D Reference = 3.45 Peening

Question 72

46. Old terminology for IQI still in use today but not recognized by codes & standards is: A) Penetrameter B) Hole-Type IQI C) Wire-Type IQI D) Prenumbra

Answer 72

A Reference = 3.46 Penetrameter

Question 73

47. Cavity-type discontinuities formed by gas entrapment during solidification or in thermal spray deposit are called: A) Cold Lap (LOF) B) Rounded discontinuity C) Porosity D) None of these are correct

Answer 73

C Reference = 3.47 Porosity

Question 74

48. Metal temperature value achieved in a base metal or substrate prior to initiating the thermal operations is called: A) Interpass temperature B) Preheat temperature C) Ambient temperature D) None of these are correct

Answer 74

B Reference = 3.48 Preheat

Question 75

49. Recording on a data sheet of an indication or condition that does not necessarily exceed the rejection criteria but in terms of code, contract or procedure will be documented … is: A) Documented discontinuity B) Documented defect C) Reportable indication D) Recordable indication

Answer 75

D Reference = 3.49 Recordable indication

Question 76

50. Recording on a data sheet of an indication that exceeds the reject flaw size criteria and needs not only documentation, but also notification to the appropriate authority to be corrected … is called: A) Reportable indication B) Recordable indication C) Documented discontinuity D) Documented defect

Answer 76

A Reference = 3.50 Reportable* indication  All reportable indications are

Question 77

51. The portion of the groove face within the joint root is called: A) Root Opening B) Landing or land C) Root Face D) Groove Face

Answer 77

C Reference = 3.51 Root Face* was on 2011 exam!!!

Question 78

52. A separation at the joint root between the work pieces is called: A) Root Face B) Root Opening C) Landing or land D) Groove Face

Answer 78

B Reference = 3.52 Root Opening

Question 79

53. Protective gas used to prevent or reduce atmospheric contamination is called: A) Purging Gas B) Seal Gas C) Acetylene Gas D) Shielding Gas

Answer 79

D Reference = 3.53 Shielding Gas

Question 80

54. A nonmetallic product resulting from the mutual dissolution of flux and nonmetallic impurities in some welding and brazing processes is called: A) Slag B) Slag Inclusion C) Porosity D) None of these are correct

Answer 80

A Reference = 3.54 Slag

Question 81

55. A discontinuity consisting of slag entrapped in the weld metal or at the weld interface is called: A) Elongated Slag B) Rounded Slag C) Slag Inclusion D) None of these are correct

Answer 81

C Reference = 3.55 Slag Inclusion

Question 82

56. Metal particles expelled during fusion welding that do not form a part of the weld are called: A) Arc Strikes B) Spatter C) Slag Inclusion D) Slag covering

Answer 82

B Reference = 3.56 Spatter

Question 83

57. A weld made to hold the parts of a weldment in proper alignment until the final welds are made is called: A) Fillet weld B) Groove weld C) Temporary weld D) Tack weld

Answer 83

D Reference = 3.57 Tack weld

Question 84

58. The distance from the beginning of the joint root perpendicular to the hypotenuse of the largest right triangle that can be inscribed within the cross-section of a fillet weld, and this dimension is based on the assumption that the root opening is equal to zero … is called: A) Weld theoretical throat B) Weld throat C) Weld actual throat D) Weld effective throat

Answer 84

A Reference = 3.58 Theoretical throat

Question 85

59. A crack with its major axis oriented approximately perpendicular to the weld axis is: A) Longitudinal crack B) Hot crack C) Transverse crack D) Lamellar tear

Answer 85

C Reference = 3.59 Transverse Crack

Question 86

60. The angle less than 90 degrees between the electrode axis and a line perpendicular to the weld axis, in a plane determined by the electrode axis and the weld axis is called: A) Bevel angle B) Travel angle C) Groove angle D) Deposition angle

Answer 86

B Reference = 3.60 Travel angle

Question 87

61. A discontinuity consisting of tungsten entrapped in weld metal is called: A) Inclusion B) Slag C) Non-metallic inclusion D) Tungsten inclusion

Answer 87

D Reference = 3.61 Tungsten inclusion

Question 88

62. A groove melted into the base metal adjacent to the weld toe or weld root and left unfilled by weld metal is called: A) Undercut B) Underfill C) Lack of fusion (LOF) D) Incomplete fusion

Answer 88

A Reference = 3.62 Undercut

Question 89

63. A condition in which the weld joint is incompletely filled when compared to the intended design is called: A) Undercut B) Lack of fusion (LOF) C) Underfill D) Incomplete fusion

Answer 89

C Reference = 3.63 Underfill

Question 90

64. Written verification that a welder has produced welds meeting a prescribed standard of welder performance is called: A) Welder qualification B) Welder certification C) Welder performance demonstration D) None of these are correct

Answer 90

B Reference = 3.64 Welder Certification

Question 91

65. A joining process that produces coalescence of base metals by heating them to the welding temperature, with or without the application of pressure or by the application of pressure alone, and with or without the use of filler metal is called: A) Thermite welding B) Arc welding C) Semi-automatic welding D) Welding

Answer 91

D Reference = 3.65 Welding

Question 92

66. An individual who holds an engineering degree and is knowledgeable and experienced in the engineering disciplines associated with welding is called: A) Welding Engineer B) Welding Specialist C) Quality Welding Specialist D) None of these are correct

Answer 92

A Reference = 3.66 Welding Engineer

Question 93

67. An assembly whose component parts are joined by welding is called: A) Weld Joint B) Joint type C) Weldment D) Groove weld or fillet weld

Answer 93

C Reference = 3.67 Weldment

Question 94

68. The junction of members or the edges of members which are to be joined or have been joined by welding is called: A) Weldment B) Weld joint C) Groove weld or fillet weld D) None of these

Answer 94

B Reference = 3.68 Weld Joint

Question 95

69. Weld metal in excess of the quantity required to fill a joint is called: A) Weldment excess B) Overlap C) Weldment overfill D) Weld reinforcement

Answer 95

D Reference = 3.69 Weld Reinforcement

Question 96

70. The junction of the weld face and the base metal is called: A) Weld toe B) Weld fusion zone C) Weld root D) Weld fusion line

Answer 96

A Reference = 3.70 Weld Toe

Question 97

1. Welding inspection is a critical part of an overall: A) Weld inspection plan B) Weld quality assurance program C) Quality assurance plan D) Inspection program

Answer 97

B Reference: Section 4.1  Welding Inspection (General)

Question 98

2. Welding Inspection includes much more than just the non-destructive examination of the completed weld. Many other issues are important & they include all of these below except: A) Review of specs & welding procedures B) Review of joint design C) Review of cleaning procedures D) Review of Material Verification Program

Answer 98

D Reference: Section 4.1  Welding Inspection (General)

Question 99

3. Welding inspection activities can be separated into three stages corresponding to the welding work process and include all of the following except: A) Prior to welding B) During welding C) During audits after weld inspections D) Upon completion of welding

Answer 99

C Reference: Section 4.1  Welding Inspection (General)

Question 100

4. What is the most important stage of welding to assure that welding problems are avoided and changes and corrections necessary are made? A) In the planning and preparation stage before any welding on job begins B) Just immediately before the planned start of welding on a new job C) During the welding of initial production joints D) Either during welding or immediately after

Answer 100

A Reference: Section 4.2  Tasks prior to Welding

Question 101

5. Prior to welding, a review of drawings, standards, codes, and specifications is done to: A) Understand the requirements for the welding and identify any inconsistencies B) Ensure that the welder understands the specification and is qualified C) Ensure that the drawings meet the specifications D) None of these are correct per API 577

Answer 101

A Reference: Section 4.2.1  Drawings, Codes & Standards

Question 102

6. Which of the following are NOT Quality Control items to assess prior to welding? A) Welding symbols, weld sizes, weld joint designs, & weld dimensions are clearly specified B) Weld maps identify welding procedure specification (WPS) used for specific weld joints C) Dimensions are detailed and any potential for distortion has been addressed D) Welding consumables specified are the ones being used in the welding

Answer 102

D Reference: Section 4.2.1.1  QC Items to Assess Prior to Welding

Question 103

7. Which of the following are NOT Quality Control items to assess prior to welding? A) Proper handling of consumables, if any, has been identified B) Weather protection and wind break requirements have been defined. C) Mechanical properties are identified & required testing has been performed D) Base material requirements have been specified (regarding impact tested materials)

Answer 103

C Reference: Section 4.2.1.1  QC Items to Assess Prior to Welding

Question 104

8. Which of the following are NOT Quality Control items to assess prior to welding? A) Pressure testing requirements, if any, clearly specified B) Inspection hold-points/NDE requirements met by Contractor C) Preheat requirements and acceptable preheat methods defined D) Post-weld heat treatment (PWHT) requirements and acceptable PWHT method defined

Answer 104

B Reference: Section 4.2.1.1  QC Items to Assess Prior to Welding

Question 105

10. Inspectors shall review requirements for the weldment with the personnel involved with executing the work (prior to work) and this can include all of the following entities except: A) Design engineer B) Welding engineer C) Welding organization D) Project Management organization

Answer 105

D Ref: Sect. 4.2.2 Welding Inspection – weldment requirements  Insp Org!

Question 106

11. Inspectors shall review requirements for the weldments (prior to work) and this can include all of the following QC items to assess except: A) Competency of inspection organization to supervise work process B) Competency of welding organization to perform welding activities per Codes/STDs/Specs C) Roles/responsibilities of engineers/welding org & inspectors is defined/appropriate for work D) Independence of inspection organization from production organization is clear/demonstrated

Answer 106

A Ref: Sect. 4.2.2.1 Weldment Requirements  QC Items to Assess!

Question 107

12. Inspectors reviewing requirements for the weldments (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector action is required regarding QC items should take action as follows: A) Make a log entry on the matter and await welding results B) Document the deficiencies thoroughly and await welding results C) Highlight deficiencies and concerns with the organizations to appropriate personnel D) Highlight deficiencies/concerns to the appropriate personnel and demand corrective actions

Answer 107

C Ref: Sect. 4.2.2.2 Weldment Requirements  Potential Inspector Action!

Question 108

13. Inspectors shall review welding procedures (WPS) & qualification records (WPQs) prior to work to assure that: A) All procedures & qualification records are completed B) All procedures & qualification records are completed and acceptable for work C) All procedures & qualification records are completed and signed by the Engineer D) None of the above are correct

Answer 108

B Ref: Sect. 4.2.3 Procedures & Qualification Records!

Question 109

15. Inspectors reviewing welding procedures & qualification records (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector action is required regarding QC items should take all of the following actions EXCEPT: A) Obtain acceptable WPS(s) and PQR(s) for the work B) Qualify WPS(s) where required and witness qualification effort C) Qualify or re-qualify welders as required & witness a percentage of welder qualifications D) Qualify WPQs where required and any PQRs needed & witness a % of welder qualifications

Answer 109

D Ref: Sect. 4.2.3.2  Procedures/Qual records  potential inspector action!

Question 110

16. Inspectors shall review NDE Information prior to work to assure that: A) Confirm the NDE procedure(s) from inspection organization are acceptable for the work B) Confirm the NDE examiner(s) from inspection organization are acceptable for the work C) Confirm the NDE equipment from inspection organization is acceptable for the work D) Confirm the NDE examiner(s) are certified to ASNT CP-189 standard

Answer 110

D Ref: Sect. 4.2.4 NDE Information!

Question 111

17. Inspectors reviewing NDE Information (prior to work) should assess all of the following Quality Control items except: A) NDE examiners are properly certified for the NDE technique B) Condition of the equipment is acceptable C) NDE procedures are current and accurate D) Calibration of NDE equipment is current

Answer 111

B Ref: Sect. 4.2.4.1  NDE Information  QC Items to Assess!

Question 112

18. Inspectors reviewing NDE Information (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector action is required regarding QC items should take which of these actions? A) Identify & correct deficiencies in certifications & procedures & obtain calibrated equipment B) Identify & correct deficiencies in certifications & procedures C) Identify & correct deficiencies in certifications D) None of these are correct

Answer 112

A Ref: Sect. 4.2.4.2  NDE Information  Potential Inspector Action!

Question 113

19. Inspectors shall check Welding equipment & Instruments prior to work to: A) Confirm Welding equipment & Instruments operate properly and are in good condition B) Confirm Welding equipment & Instruments operate properly and are calibrated C) Confirm Welding equipment & Instruments operate properly D) Confirm Welding equipment & Instruments are calibrated

Answer 113

B Ref: Sect. 4.2.5  Welding equipment & Instruments

Question 114

20. Inspectors checking welding equipment & instruments prior to work should assess all of the following Quality Control items except: A) Welding machine calibration is current B) Instruments (ammeters, voltmeters, contact pyrometers) have current calibrations C) Welding cabinets for large quantity storage of hermetically sealed containers exists on job D) Welding consumable storage ovens operate (automatic heat control, visible temp indication)

Answer 114

C Ref: Sect. 4.2.5.1  Welding Equip & Instruments  QC Items to Assess!

Question 115

21. Inspectors checking welding equipment & instruments (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector action is required regarding QC items should ensure which of these actions is taken? A) Calibrate equipment and instruments and reject any defective equipment and instruments B) Calibrate equipment and instruments and replace any defective equipment and instruments C) Recalibrate equipment and instruments and replace any defective equipment and instruments D) None of these are correct

Answer 115

C Ref: Sec. 4.2.5.2  welding equip & instrument  Potential inspector action

Question 116

22. Inspectors shall check Heat Treatment & Pressure Testing procedures/associated equipment prior to work to in order to: A) Confirm Heat Treatment & Pressure testing procedures/associated equipment are acceptable B) Confirm Heat Treatment & Pressure testing associated equipment is acceptable C) Confirm Heat Treatment & Pressure testing procedures are acceptable D) None of these are correct

Answer 116

A Ref: Sect. 4.2.6  Heat Treatment & Pressure Testing

Question 117

23. Inspectors checking Heat Treatment & Pressure Testing procedures/associated equipment prior to work should assess all of the following Quality Control items except: A) Heat treatment procedure is available & appropriate & equipment calibrations are current B) Pressure testing equipment & gauges calibrated & meet appropriate test requirements C) Pressure testing procedures are available and detail the testing requirements D) Trained personnel to perform activities have been approved for the work

Answer 117

D Ref: Sect. 4.2.6.1  Heat Treat & Press Testing  QC Items to Assess!

Question 118

24. Inspectors checking Heat Treatment & Pressure Testing procedures/associated equipment (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector action is required regarding QC items should ensure which of these actions is taken? A) Obtain calibrated equipment & identify & correct deficiencies in equipment & procedures B) Obtain calibrated equipment & identify & correct deficiencies in procedures C) Obtain calibrated equipment & identify & correct deficiencies in equipment D) None of these are correct

Answer 118

B Ref: Sec. 4.2.6.2  Heat Treat & Press Testing  Potential Inspector Action

Question 119

25. Inspectors shall check all Materials (for welding) prior to work to in order to ensure all of the following except: A) Ensure all filler metals, base materials, and backing ring materials are properly identified B) Ensure all filler metals, base materials, and backing ring materials are properly marked C) Ensure material traceability is maintained as per mandatory API 578 requirements D) Ensure PMI is performed (if required) to verify the material composition

Answer 119

C Ref: Sect. 4.2.7  Materials

Question 120

26. Inspectors checking Materials prior to work should assess all of the following Quality Control items except: A) Material test certifications are available & items properly marked (incl. back-up rings if used) B) Electrode marking/bare wire flag tags/identification on wire spools as-specified C) Filler material markings are visible and known to the welding organization D) Base metal markings are traceable to a material certification

Answer 120

C Ref: Sec. 4.2.7.1  Matls  QC Items to Assess  Filler matl to be traceable

Question 121

27. Inspectors checking Materials prior to work should assess all of the following Quality Control items except: A) Paint striping color code meets requirements of PFI-ES-22 B) Recording of filler and base metal traceability information is performed C) Base metal stampings are low stress and not detrimental to the component D) PMI records supplement material traceability/confirm material of construction

Answer 121

A Ref: Sect. 4.2.7.1  Matls  QC Items  Color Code = Correct for material

Question 122

28. Inspectors checking Materials (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector action is required regarding QC items should ensure which of these actions is taken? A) Reject/quarantine non-traceable or improperly marked materials or inappropriate materials B) Have quarantined non-traceable or improperly marked materials or inappropriate materials C) Do not approve non-traceable or improperly marked materials or inappropriate materials D) Reject non-traceable or improperly marked materials and reject inappropriate materials

Answer 122

D Ref: Sect. 4.2.7.2  Materials  Potential Inspector Action

Question 123

30. Final tasks upon completion of the weldment and work should include those that assure final weld quality before placing the weldment in service & they include all of these except: A) Document Audit (Perform final audit of Insp dossier to identify inaccuracies/incomplete info) B) Appearance & finish (Verify post-weld acceptance, appearance & finishing of welded joints) C) NDE review (Verify NDE is performed at selected locations & review examiner’s findings) D) Identify non-conformances and defects and take immediate corrective actions

Answer 123

D Ref: Sect. 4.4 (all)  TASKS UPON COMPLETION OF WELDING

Question 124

31. Final tasks upon completion of the weldment and work should include those that assure final weld quality before placing the weldment in service & they include all of these except: A) Document Audit (Perform final audit of Insp dossier to identify inaccuracies/incomplete info) B) Appearance & finish (Verify post-weld acceptance, appearance & finishing of welded joints) C) NDE review (Verify NDE is performed at selected locations & review examiner’s findings) D) PWHT (Verify PWHT is performed to the procedure and produces acceptable results) E) Pressure Testing (Verify Pressure Test is performed to the procedure) F) All are incorrect … Time for smoke break because I never do it right

Answer 124

F Ref: Sect. 4.4 (all)  TASKS UPON COMPLETION OF WELDING

Question 125

32. If defects or non-conformances (Inspector has work issues) to specification are found by the Inspector, this should be handled when and in what manner (Identify False statement): A) Inspector takes actions on these issues at any time during the welding inspection B) Inspector takes actions on these issues after his welding inspections by report issuance C) Inspector takes steps to ensure correction of the issues before welding proceeds further D) Inspector brings issues to attention of those responsible before welding proceeds further

Answer 125

B Ref: Sect. 4.5  NON-CONFORMANCES AND DEFECTS

Question 126

33. Which of these statements are false regarding NDE Examiner Certifications? A) ASME V may require examiners be qualified in accordance with ASNT SNT-TC-1A B) ASME V may require examiners be qualified in accordance with ANSI/ASNT CP-189 C) ASNT SNT-TC-1A & CP-189 are mandatory whenever ASME V code applies to welding D) ASNT SNT-TC-1A & CP-189 are guidelines & STDs for certification of NDE insp personnel

Answer 126

C Ref: Sect. 4.6  NDE Examiner Certifications

Question 127

34. Which of these statements are false regarding Safety Precautions for Welding? A) The arc is a source of both visible and infrared light, but not ultraviolet light. B) Eye protection using proper filters and proper clothing to cover the skin should be used C) Proper ventilation is necessary to remove air-borne particulates that include vaporized metal D) In areas of inadequate ventilation (confined space), filtered breathing protection may be req’d

Answer 127

A Ref: Sec. 4.7  Safety Precaution  Ultraviolet light may cause severe burn

Question 128

35. Which of these statements are false regarding Safety Precautions for Welding? A) Welding can produce sparks and other airborne debris that can burn the eyes B) Ventilation practices in confined spaces should be carefully reviewed before work begins C) Appropriate precautions around welding include eye protection/proper clothing to cover skin D) Use of gas-shielded processes in confined spaces can create a nitrogen-deficient environment

Answer 128

D Ref: Sect. 4.7  Safety Precautions

Question 129

1. The inspector should understand the basic arc welding processes most frequently used in the fabrication and repair of refinery and chemical process equipment. These processes include all of the following except: A) Shielded metal arc welding (SMAW) and gas tungsten arc welding (GTAW) B) Submerged arc welding (SAW) and Gas metal arc welding (GMAW) C) Cored flux arc welding (CFAW) D) Stud arc welding (SW)

Answer 129

C Ref: Sect. 5.1  Welding Processes  General

Question 130

2. Which of these statements regarding SMAW is False? A) SMAW uses arc heat (coming from tip of consumable covered electrode) to melt base metal B) SMAW shielding is provided from the decomposition of the electrode covering C) SMAW is the most widely used of the various arc welding processes D) SMAW uses an arc between a bare electrode and the weld pool.

Answer 130

D Ref: Sect. 5.2  Welding Processes  SMAW

Question 131

3. Which of these statements regarding SMAW is False? A) SMAW uses either ac or dc, depending on welding power supply & electrode selected B) SMAW power supply that is preferred is the CV or constant-voltage power supply C) SMAW is performed without the application of pressure D) SMAW is always a manual welding process

Answer 131

B Ref: Sect. 5.2  Welding Processes  SMAW

Question 132

6. Limitations associated with the SMAW process include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Slag must be removed before depositing a weld bead adjacent to a previously deposited bead B) Slag must be removed before depositing a weld bead onto a previously deposited weld bead C) Deposition rates are lower than for all other processes (GTAW, GMAW, FCAW, SAW) D) Slag must be removed at stops and starts

Answer 132

C Sec. 5.2.3  Welding Processes  SMAW Limitations such as GMAW is

Question 133

7. Which of these statements regarding GTAW is False? A) GTAW DCEN welding offers advantages of deeper penetration and faster welding speeds B) GTAW uses an arc between a consumable tungsten electrode and the weld pool C) GTAW is used with a shielding gas & without the application of pressure D) GTAW can be used with or without the addition of filler metal

Answer 133

B Ref: Sect. 5.3  Welding Processes  GTAW  Non-consumable tungsten

Question 134

9. Limitations associated with the GTAW process include all of the following EXCEPT: A) The welding equipment is more complex, more costly, and less portable than that for SMAW B) Deposition rates = lower than rates possible with consumable electrode arc welding processes C) GTAW has a low tolerance for contaminants on filler or base metals D) Difficult to shield the weld zone properly in drafty environments

Answer 134

A Sec. 5.3.2  Processes  Limitations of GTAW  A = GMAW limitation 

Question 135

10. Which of these statements regarding GMAW is False? A) GMAW uses shielding from externally supplied gas and without the application of pressure B) GMAW uses an arc between continuous filler metal electrode and the weld pool C) GMAW uses CC power supply & either short circuiting/globular/spray method D) GMAW may be operated in semiautomatic, machine, or automatic modes only

Answer 135

C Ref: Sect. 5.4  Welding Processes  GMAW  C = CV power supply used

Question 136

11. Which of these statements regarding GMAW-S (Short-circuiting transfer) is not true? A) It creates fast freezing weld pool best suited for joining thin sections/out-of position/root pass B) It covers lowest range of welding currents/electrode diameters associated GMAW processes C) Due to fast-freezing nature of this process, the potential for lack of sidewall fusion exists D) It results in a highly directed stream of discrete drops accelerated by arc forces

Answer 136

D Sec. 5.4.1  Welding Processes  D = GMAW Spray transfer characteristic

Question 137

12. Some commonly accepted advantages of the GMAW process include all of these except: A) Minimal post-weld cleaning is required due to absence of slag B) Deposition rates are significantly higher than those with SMAW C) Allows for the excellent control of the root pass weld penetration D) Only consumable electrode process used to weld most commercial metals/alloys

Answer 137

C Sect. 5.4.4  Processes  GMAW Advantages  C = GTAW Advantage

Question 138

13. Limitations associated with the GMAW process include all of the following EXCEPT: A) GMAW has a low tolerance for contaminants on filler metals or base metals B) The welding arc should be protected from air drafts that will disperse the shielding gas C) When using the GMAW-S process, the weld is more susceptible to lack of adequate fusion D) The welding equipment is more complex, more costly, and less portable than that for SMAW

Answer 138

A Sect. 5.4.5  Processes  Limitations of GMAW  A = GTAW Limitation

Question 139

14. Some commonly accepted advantages of the FCAW process include all of these except: A) Shielding is produced at the weld surface (more tolerant of stronger air currents than GMAW) B) Only consumable electrode process that can be used to weld most commercial metals/alloys C) Slag that supports and shapes the weld bead and flux that provides metallurgical benefits D) High deposition and productivity rates than other processes such as SMAW

Answer 139

B Sect. 5.5.1  Processes  FCAW Advantages A = GMAW Advantage

Question 140

1. Qualified welding procedures detail the steps necessary to make a specific weld and generally consist of all of the following except: A) Details of weld mechanical properties B) Welding process variables C) Details of the weld joint D) A written description

Answer 140

A Ref: Sect. 6.1  Procedures  General A = Test data (given in the PQR)

Question 141

2. As a minimum, welding procedures qualified to ASME Sect IX are required by all of the following examples where Codes are employed except: A) Construction codes used in fabrication of new equipment & piping (refinery, chemical plant) B) Construction codes used in fabrication of new equipment & piping (water treatment plants) C) API 510 inspection code (repair welding) D) API 570 inspection code (repair welding)

Answer 141

B Ref: Sect. 6.1  Procedures  General  B = Tricky Scope Section 1

Question 142

3. Regarding ASME Code requirements, the WPS provides direction to: A) The Inspector overseeing the production welding B) The Engineer overseeing the production welding C) The welder while making production welds D) None of these

Answer 142

C Ref: Sect. 6.1  Procedures  General

Question 143

4. The PQR is all of the following except: A) Record of welding data used to weld a test coupon B) Record of welding variables used to weld a test coupon C) Record of test results used to qualify the welding procedure D) Record of the welding parameters to be used in the production welds

Answer 143

D Ref: Sect. 6.1  Procedures  General  D = WPS is this Not the PQR!

Question 144

5. The purpose of the PQR is to establish the: A) Properties of the weldment B) Suitability of the weldment C) Record for weldment construction D) None of these are correct per API 577

Answer 144

A Ref: Sect. 6.1  Procedures  General

Question 145

6. The purpose of the WPQ is to: A) Establish welder is capable of welding B) Establish welder is capable of making a quality weld C) Establish welder is capable of making a quality weld using the WPS D) Establish welder is capable of making a quality weld using the WPS & the PQR

Answer 145

C Ref: Sect. 6.1  Procedures  General

Question 146

7. ASME Section IX requires “WHO” to develop welding procedures? A) Each owner/user Engineering Organization B) Each owner/user of the equipment C) Each manufacturer & contractor D) Each Inspection Organization

Answer 146

C Ref: Sect. 6.2  Procedures  WPS Section

Question 147

8. Completed WPS for a welding process addresses: A) All essential variables in a given WPS for a given process. B) All essential and nonessential variables in a given WPS for a given process. C) All essential variables (Including supplemental essential variables if notch toughness is reqd) D) All essential & nonessential variables (supp. essential variables only if notch toughness reqd)

Answer 147

D Ref: Sect. 6.2  Procedures  WPS Section

Question 148

9. Essential variables affect mechanical properties of the weld. If they are changed beyond what the reference code paragraph allows for the process, the WPS: A) May be used at the Inspector’s discretion B) Must be re-qualified (new PQR employed) C) May be used as the mechanical properties of the weld will not be affected D) May either be re-qualified (new PQR employed) or used at the Inspector’s discretion

Answer 148

B Ref: Sect. 6.2  Procedures  WPS Section

Question 149

10. When nonessential variables are changed on the WPS, what must be done? A) May be used at the Inspector’s discretion B) Must be re-qualified (new PQR employed) C) May be changed of the WPS and then used D) May either be re-qualified (new PQR employed) or used at the Inspector’s discretion

Answer 149

C Ref: Sect. 6.2  Procedures  WPS Section

Question 150

11. Which of these statements are False regarding Supplementary essential variables? A) They are associated with weld strength & ductility B) They apply when they are specified by the end user C) They are treated as essential variables when they apply D) They apply whenever notch toughness testing is required

Answer 150

A Ref: Sect. 6.2  Procedures  WPS Section

Question 151

12. The PQR shall record all of the following items except: A) Manufacturer’s certification of accuracy in the qualification of a WPS B) The nonessential variables used to weld a test coupon C) The essential variables used to weld a test coupon D) Coupon test results

Answer 151

B Ref: Sect. 6.3  Procedures  PQR Section

Question 152

13. Which of these statements are false regarding Mechanical Tests associated with a PQR? A) Mechanical tests are required to qualify a WPS to demonstrate the properties of the weldment B) Guided bend tests determine the degree of soundness and ductility of a groove weld C) Notch toughness tests determine both the strength and toughness of a groove weld D) Tension tests determine the ultimate strength of a groove weld

Answer 152

C Ref: Sect. 6.3  Procedures  PQR Section

Question 153

15. Which of these statements is false regarding review of a WPS & PQR per API 577? A) Inspectors shall review the WPS & PQR to verify they are acceptable for welding to be done B) Initial step verifies WPS completion & Section IX/construction/repair code issues addressed C) 2nd step verifies PQR completion & Section IX/construction/repair code issues addressed D) 3rd step confirms WPS essential variable values properly support range specified in PQR

Answer 153

D Ref: Sec. 6.4  Reviewing WPS & PQR 3rd Step reversed PQR WPS

Question 154

1. Base metals are assigned P-numbers in ASME Section IX to: A) Reduce the number of welding procedure qualifications required B) Reduce the number of welding procedure specifications required C) Reduce the number of welder performance qualifications required D) Reduce number of welding procedure and performance qualifications

Answer 154

A Ref: Section 7.2  Materials  P-Numbers

Question 155

2. For ferrous base metals having specified impact test requirements, what types of numbers are assigned by ASME IX Code? A) P-numbers are assigned only B) S-Numbers are assigned as a subgroup of the P-Numbers C) Group numbers within P-numbers are assigned (P-No 1, Group 1, 2, 3, etc) D) Group numbers within P-numbers are assigned (P-No 1, Group A, B, C, etc)

Answer 155

C Ref: Section 7.2  Materials  P-Numbers

Question 156

3. P-Number assignments are based on all of the following comparable base metal characteristics except: A) Composition B) Weldability C) Mechanical properties D) Welding Process types

Answer 156

D Ref: Section 7.2  Materials  P-Numbers

Question 157

4. Electrodes and welding rods are assigned F-numbers to: A) Reduce only the number of welder performance qualifications required B) Reduce number of welding procedure and performance qualifications C) Reduce the number of welding procedure qualifications required D) Reduce the number of welding procedure specifications required

Answer 157

B Ref: Section 7.3  Materials  F-Numbers

Question 158

5. F-number groupings are based essentially on their usability characteristics, which fundamentally determine: A) The chemical composition of the electrode only B) The chemical composition of the electrode and the weldability C) The ability of welders to make satisfactory welds using similar composition filler metals D) The ability of welders to make satisfactory welds using a given process and given filler metal

Answer 158

D Ref: Section 7.3  Materials  F-Numbers

Question 159

6. Regarding F-Numbers, those welders qualified using a single filler metal (assume E-7018 Electrode having F-4 designation without backing) are qualified to weld with: A) All electrodes having any F-number designation B) All electrodes having the same F-4 designation only C) All electrodes having F-4 designation and all F-1, F-2, & F-3 electrodes D) All electrodes having F-4 designation and all F-1, F-2, & F-3 electrodes (with backing limits)

Answer 159

D Ref: Section 7.3  Materials  F-Numbers

Question 160

7. An AWS classification number identifies: A) All consumables listed within ASME IX B) Specific consumables listed within ASME IX C) Electrodes and welding rods specified in ASME II, Section C D) None of these

Answer 160

C Ref: Section 7.4  Materials  AWS Classification Numbers

Question 161

8. Steel & Steel alloy filler metals are grouped in ASME IX according to A-numbers to: A) Reduce the number of welding procedure qualifications required B) Reduce the number of welding procedure specifications required C) Reduce the number of welder performance qualifications required D) Reduce number of welding procedure and performance qualifications

Answer 161

A Ref: Section 7.5  Materials  A-Numbers

Question 162

9. The A-number grouping in ASME Section IX, Table QW-442 is based on the: A) Chemical composition of the deposited weld metal and the base metal B) Chemical composition of the deposited weld metal C) Tensile strength of filler metal and base metal D) Chemical composition of the base metal

Answer 162

B Ref: Section 7.5  Materials  A-Numbers

Question 163

10. Which of these statements are false regarding consumable storage and handling? A) Covered electrodes exposed to moisture become unstable due to moisture pickup by coatings B) Moisture is a hydrogen source & open consumables should be stored in warm holding ovens C) Low-hydrogen electrodes should be stored together with other types of electrodes in ovens D) Low-hydrogen & stainless steel electrodes are particularly susceptible to moisture pickup

Answer 163

C Ref: Section 7.7  Materials  Consumable Storage & Handling

Question 164

1. Welder performance qualification is to establish: A) Welder’s ability to deposit sound weld metal B) Welder’s general level of welding skills C) Welder’s general welding abilities D) None of these are correct

Answer 164

A Ref: Section 8.1  Welder Qualification  General

Question 165

2. The welder qualification is limited by the: A) Process variables B) Welding position and diameter C) Essential variables given for each process D) None of these are correct

Answer 165

C Ref: Section 8.1  Welder Qualification  General

Question 166

3. A welder may be qualified by all of the following methods except: A) Initial production welding only B) Bend tests of a test coupon only C) Radiography of a test coupon only D) Tensile tests of the test coupon only

Answer 166

D Ref: Section 8.1  Welder Qualification  General

Question 167

4. The performance qualification test coupon is to be welded according to the qualified WPS, and the welding is to be supervised and controlled by: A) Owner/user of the facility B) The employer of the welder C) The manufacturer or fabricator D) None of these are correct per API 577

Answer 167

B Ref: Section 8.2  Welder Qualification  WPQ

Question 168

5. A change in any essential variable listed for the welding process requires the welder to re-qualify for that process. QW-352 through QW-357 in ASME Section IX, list the essential variables and referencing code paragraphs for different welding processes. The variable groups addressed include which of the following: A) Joints, base & filler metals, positions, gas, and electrical characteristics B) Joints, base & filler metals, positions, diameters, gas, and electrical characteristics C) Joints, base & filler metals, positions, diameters, thickness, gas, and electrical characteristics D) None of the above is correct per ASME IX

Answer 168

B Ref: Section 8.2  Welder Qualification  WPQ

Question 169

6. If radiographic exam is used for qualification of a welder or welding operator, the minimum length of coupon to be examined is any of the following items EXCEPT: A) 3 feet (0.91 meters) for welding operators (ASME IX Rule) B) 6 inches (152.4 mm) minimum in any case (ASME IX Rule) C) The entire circumference for their first three production joints (ASME B31.3 Case) D) The entire weld circumference for pipe coupons (Typically Size 2 NPS & Size 8 NPS used)

Answer 169

C Ref: Section 8.2  Welder Qualification  WPQ

Question 170

7. Welder performance qualification expires if a welding process is not used during a: A) 3-month period B) Six-month period C) Nine-month period D) Twelve-month period

Answer 170

B Ref: Section 8.2  Welder Qualification  WPQ

Question 171

8. Welder’s qualification can be revoked if: A) There is reason to question their ability to make welds (NDE results indicate repairs, etc) B) They violate their WPS more than once (includes high repair rates) C) They violate their WPS repeatedly (includes high repair rates) D) None of the above is correct per API 577

Answer 171

A Ref: Section 8.2  Welder Qualification  WPQ

Question 172

9. What document can be used to verify welder’s qualifications are current? A) Welder WPS log B) Quality Control log C) Welder Performance Qualification Report D) Welder’s log or Continuity report (ASME IX QW-484, NMA B)

Answer 172

D Ref: Section 8.2  Welder Qualification  WPQ

Question 173

10. Prior to any welding, inspectors should review the welders’ WPQ to: A) Verify they are qualified to perform welding given its position & process B) Verify they are qualified to perform welding given its position, thickness and process C) Verify they are qualified to perform welding given its position, diameter and thickness D) Verify they are qualified to perform welding given its position/diam./thickness/process

Answer 173

A Ref: Section 8.3.1  Welder Qualification  Reviewing a WPQ

Question 174

1. Lack of fusion (Per API 577, Table 6) can be corrected by (Practical Solution Column): A) Proper heat input & proper welding technique B) Reduce travel speed and control arc length C) Proper heat input & proper joint design D) None of these are correct

Answer 174

A Ref: Section 9.1  NDE  Discontinuities (Table 6)

Question 175

2. Undercut (Per API 577, Table 6) can be corrected by (Practical Solution Column): A) Proper heat input & proper welding technique B) Reduce travel speed and control arc length C) Proper heat input & proper joint design D) Reduce travel speed

Answer 175

D Ref: Section 9.1  NDE  Discontinuities (Table 6)

Question 176

3. Incomplete penetration (Per API 577, Table 6) can be corrected by (Practical Sol. Col): A) Proper heat input & proper welding technique B) Reduce travel speed and control arc length C) Proper heat input & proper joint design D) None of these are correct

Answer 176

C Ref: Section 9.1  NDE  Discontinuities (Table 6)

Question 177

4. During welding inspection, the inspector may need to verify the conformance of the base material and filler metal chemistries with the selected or specified alloyed materials. This may include reviewing all of the following EXCEPT: A) Reviewing stamps or markings on the components B) Performing visual material checks C) The certified mill test report D) Requiring PMI testing

Answer 177

B Ref: Section 9.2  NDE  Materials Identification

Question 178

5. It is the responsibility of the owner/user to establish a written material verification program indicating the extent and type of PMI to be conducted. Guidelines for material control and verification are outlined in: A) API RP 572 B) API RP 574 C) API RP 577 D) API RP 578

Answer 178

D Ref: Section 9.1  NDE  Materials Identification

Question 179

6. Standards (ASME Section V Article 9) specify lighting levels of (how much) foot candles (lux) at the examination surface? A) 1000 foot candles (10000 lux) B) 100 foot candles (1000 lux) C) 10 foot candles (100 lux) D) None of these is correct

Answer 179

B Ref: Sect. 9.3.2.1  NDE  VT  Optical Aids

Question 180

7. Direct visual examination is conducted when access is sufficient to place the eye: A) Within 6 in–24 in (150–600 mm) of exam surface & at an angle not less than 20ᴼ to surface B) Within 6 in–12 in (150–300 mm) of exam surface & at an angle not less than 20ᴼ to surface C) Within 12in-24 in (300-600 mm) of exam surface & at an angle not less than 20ᴼ to surface D) None of these is correct

Answer 180

D Ref: Sect. 9.3.2.3  NDE  VT  Weld exam Devices A = 30ᴼ to surface

Question 181

8. In the illustration above, what is the weld size? A) Just below ½ inch (12.7mm) B) Right at ½ inch (12.7 mm) C) Slightly above ½ inch (12.7mm) D) None of these is correct

Answer 181

B Ref: Sect. 9.3.2.3.C & Fig 17/18  NDE  VT  Weld exam Devices

Question 182

9. In the illustration above, what is the name of the gauge being used? A) Bridge Cam Gauge (GAL) B) Fillet Weld Gauge C) Weld Size Gauge D) None of these is correct

Answer 182

B Ref: Sect. 9.3.2.3.C & Fig 17/18  NDE  VT  Weld exam Devices

Question 183

10. In the illustration above, what is the actual throat measurement (throat size)? A) 12.7 mm B) 12.7 mm x .707 = 9 mm C) Cannot be determined by the above D) None of these is correct

Answer 183

B Ref: Sect. 9.3.2.3.C & Fig 17/18  NDE  VT  Weld exam Devices

Question 184

11. Magnetic particle examination is effective in: A) Locating surface discontinuities of ferromagnetic materials B) Locating surface or near surface discontinuities of ferromagnetic materials C) Locating surface or near surface discontinuities of ferromagnetic and paramagnetic materials D) None of these are correct

Answer 184

B Ref: Sect. 9.4.1  NDE  MT  General

Question 185

12. Which of the following statements is false regarding proper MT practice? A) Particles used during the exam can be either dry or wet B) Best results are achieved when the lines of flux are perpendicular to the discontinuity C) If exam is performed with black light, color of particles should contrast with exam surface D) Two inspections are performed, one parallel to weld & one across (perpendicular to the weld)

Answer 185

C Ref: Sec. 9.4.1  NDE  MT  General  If performed in normal lighting

Question 186

13. Figure 25 above (left) will detect which of these following discontinuities listed below? A) Discontinuities transverse to the weld and located on the surface or slightly sub-surface only B) Discontinuities parallel to the weld and located on the surface or slightly sub-surface only C) Discontinuities transverse to the weld and located on the surface only D) Discontinuities parallel to the weld and located on the surface only

Answer 186

A Ref: Sec. 9.4.1 & Fig. 25  NDE  MT  General

Question 187

14. Figure 26 above (right) will detect which of these following discontinuities listed below? A) Discontinuities transverse to the weld and located on the surface or slightly sub-surface only B) Discontinuities parallel to the weld and located on the surface or slightly sub-surface only C) Discontinuities transverse to the weld and located on the surface only D) Discontinuities parallel to the weld and located on the surface only

Answer 187

B Ref: Sec. 9.4.1 & Fig. 25  NDE  MT  General

Question 188

15. Which of the statements below is FALSE regarding Figure 21 above (left)? A) Ferromagnetic particles applied to magnetized surface are attracted to magnetic field breaks B) Figure 21 shows the disruption to the magnetic field caused by a defect open to the surface C) Ferromagnetic particles will be drawn to the break in the flux field shown in Figure 21 D) Pattern of particles attracted in Fig. 21 will be less sharp & less distinct than Fig. 22

Answer 188

D Ref: Sec. 9.4.1 & Fig. 21  NDE  MT  General

Question 189

16. Which of the statements below is FALSE regarding Figure 22 above (right)? A) Ferromagnetic particles applied to magnetized surface are attracted to magnetic field breaks B) Ferromagnetic particles will be drawn to the break in the flux field shown in Figure 22 C) Pattern of particles attracted in Fig. 22 will be more sharp and distinct than Fig. 21 D) Figure 22 shows disruption to a magnetic field caused by a sub-surface defect

Answer 189

C Ref: Sec. 9.4.1 & Fig. 21  NDE  MT  General

Question 190

17. Which of the following statements are false regarding ACFM technique? A) It can work in a range of different materials and through coatings of varying thickness B) This technique is ideal for inspecting complex geometries such as nozzles & ring-grooves C) It is electromagnetic non-contacting and is able to detect and size surface breaking defects D) It requires extensive surface preparation & can be used at elevated temps up to 600°F (315°C)

Answer 190

D Ref: Sect. 9.5  NDE  ACFM

Question 191

18. Which of these statements is false regarding the PT technique? A) It is commonly employed on austenitic SS where MT exams are not possible B) It is capable of detecting surface-connecting discontinuities in nonferrous alloys only C) It can be used to examine weld joint surfaces/individual weld pass checks/completed welds D) Material certs on amounts of contaminants (chlorine, sulfur, and halogens) are to be checked

Answer 191

B Ref: Sect. 9.6  NDE  PT

Question 192

19. A limitation of PT is that standard penetrant systems are limited to a maximum of: A) 125°F (52°C) B) 120°F (49°C) C) 150°F (65°C) D) None of these are correct, because the limit can be exceeded

Answer 192

A Ref: Sect. 9.6  NDE  PT

Question 193

20. Which of these statements are NOT true regarding techniques used in PT exam? A) Liquid in any discontinuity bleeds out to stain the powder coating B) Test surface is cleaned & coated with a liquid that seeks surface-connected discontinuities C) After excess surface liquid is removed, a solvent-based developer is normally crush applied D) The greater the bleed out to surface opening ratio, the greater the volume of the discontinuity

Answer 193

C Ref: Sect. 9.6  NDE  PT  Normally spray applied

Question 194

21. Regarding PT exam evaluation, an indication of depth is possible if the Inspector: A) No indication of depth is possible because PT = Surface Exam Method (not volumetric exam) B) Observes and then compares the indication bleed out to the opening size visible at the surface C) Observes indication opening size visible at the surface and then estimates approximate depth D) Observes the indication bleed out at the surface and then estimates the approximate depth

Answer 194

D Ref: Sect. 9.6  NDE  PT  Shallow tight indications = light bleed out

Question 195

22. General penetrant TECHNIQUES approved for use include which of the following? A) Color contrast penetrant technique and the fluorescent penetrant technique B) Solvent removable technique, Water washable technique, & Post emulsifiable technique C) Solvent removable technique, Water washable technique, & Solvent emulsifiable technique D) Solvent removable technique, Water emulsifiable technique & Solvent emulsifiable technique

Answer 195

A Ref: Sect. 9.6.1  NDE  Liquid PT Techniques

Question 196

23. General penetrant SYSTEMS approved for use include which of the following? A) Color contrast penetrant technique and the fluorescent penetrant technique B) Solvent removable technique, Water washable technique, & Post emulsifiable technique C) Solvent removable technique, Water washable technique, & Solvent emulsifiable technique D) Solvent removable technique, Water emulsifiable technique & Solvent emulsifiable technique

Answer 196

B Ref: Sect. 9.6.1  NDE  Liquid PT Techniques

Question 197

24. For added sensitivity, which of the following PT techniques may be used to detect fine linear type indications? A) Fluorescent penetrant (Used in exams in darkened areas with filtered black light) B) Color Contrast Solvent Removable Visible Dye Penetrant (Technique) C) Color Contrast Post emulsifiable Visible Dye Penetrant (Technique) D) Color Contrast Water washable Visible Dye Penetrant (Technique)

Answer 197

A Ref: Sect. 9.6.1  NDE  Liquid PT Techniques

Question 198

25. Which of these statements are NOT true regarding Eddy Current inspection? A) Its magnetic fields & material discontinuities alter induced fields/show them on unit’s display B) As with MT, ET is most sensitive (finds the defect) if a current is parallel to the discontinuity C) It can measure thickness of protective, nonconductive surface coatings & cladding thickness D) It detects surface & subsurface discontinuities (tubing, pipe) & is limited in weld inspection

Answer 198

B Ref: Sect. 9.7  NDE  ET Technique  B If current is perpendicular

Question 199

26. Which of these statements are NOT true regarding Radiographic Testing (RT) method? A) It uses the change in absorption of radiation by solid metal and in areas of a discontinuity B) It is a volumetric exam method capable of examining entire specimen, not just the surface C) Radiation sent reacts with film & permanent image is captured & processed into latent image D) Some methods are available that use electronics to create a digital image & are called filmless

Answer 199

C Ref: Sect. 9.8.1  NDE  RT General Latent image is first captured 

Question 200

27. Which of these statements are NOT true regarding Radiographic Testing (RT) methods and examiners? A) RT indications display a different density in contrast to a normal background image of a weld B) NDT examiner interprets/evaluates the film for differences in absorption/transmission results C) Radiographers ensure film is exposed by primary radiation source (not backscatter radiation) D) Film examiners (interpret/evaluate/report) should be certified ASNT Level I as a minimum

Answer 200

D Ref: Sect. 9.8.1  NDE  RT General Level II as a minimum

Question 201

28. The exposure and processing of a radiograph is considered acceptable when it meets the required quality features in terms of: A) Density B) Sensitivity C) Sensitivity and density D) Sensitivity, density and film quality

Answer 201

C Ref: Sect. 9.8.1  NDE  RT General

Question 202

29. Which of these statements is NOT true regarding Image Quality Indicators (IQIs)? A) STDs for industrial RT require one or more IQIs used to determine required sensitivity is met B) IQI was previously called a penetrameter and this term is still being used in most of the codes C) To assess sensitivity, a required hole or wire (code specified) must be visible on finished film D) IQIs (penetrameter) are tools used in industrial radiography to establish the film quality levels

Answer 202

B Ref: Sect. 9.8.2  NDE  RT  IQI Penetrameter no longer being used

Question 203

30. Which of these statements is NOT true regarding Wire-Type IQIs? A) Wire to be visible (standard specified) on an acceptable radiograph is called a sensitive wire B) Diameter of smallest visible wire (lighter-white image) indicates sensitivity of radiograph C) They are placed on and perpendicular to the weld prior to the exposure of a radiograph D) They are constructed of an array of six paralleled wires of specified diameters

Answer 203

A Ref: Sect. 9.8.2  NDE  RT The “essential” wire must always be visible

Question 204

31. Which of these statements is NOT true regarding Hole-Type IQIs? A) They are sheets of metal (known thickness) with specified diameter holes drilled or punched B) An indication of film sensitivity = IQI thickness & diameter of smallest visible hole on film C) Their thickness is generally specified at 2 – 4 % of thickness of object being radiographed D) Holes in the IQI are projected on a radiograph as lighter (white or lighter) spots

Answer 204

D Ref: Sect. 9.8.2  NDE  RT  Projected as dark or gray spots

Question 205

32. Diameter of holes in hole-type IQIs are a multiple of the thickness of a sheet. Common hole diameters are HOW MANY times the thickness of the IQI shown in Fig. 29? A) 2% and 4% holes in sheet metal strip having an actual thickness of 15 mm B) 1%, 2% & 4% holes in sheet metal strip having an actual thickness of 15 mm C) 2% and 4% holes in sheet metal strip having an actual thickness of 15 mils (.015 inches) D) 1%, 2% & 4% holes in sheet metal strip having an actual thickness of 15 mils (.015 inches)

Answer 205

D Ref: Sect. 9.8.2  NDE  RT  IQIs Projected as dark or gray spots

Question 206

33. IQIs (penetrameters) are selected based on which of the following values: A) Thickness of the base material B) Thickness of the base material and the code designation taken from table C) Thickness of the base material plus any code allowed weld reinforcement D) None of these is correct

Answer 206

C Ref: Sect. 9.8.2  NDE  RT  IQIs

Question 207

34. Which of the following statements are NOT true regarding IQIs & their placement? A) Wire-type IQIs are most often placed perpendicular to weld center line B) Hole-type IQIs are placed next to weld always on a shim where T = the weld build-up C) Hole that is required to be visible on an acceptable radiograph is called the essential hole D) Hole-type IQIs are placed next to weld on a base metal or on a shim (with T = weld build-up)

Answer 207

B Ref: Sect. 9.8.2  NDE  RT  IQIs

Question 208

35. Which of the following statements are NOT true regarding RT film? A) Film must be long & wide enough to cover 25 mm on consecutive circumferential exposures B) Film must be long & wide enough to cover 19 mm coverage on either side of the weld C) Film should be stored in a cool, dry, clean area away from the exposure area D) Radiographic film Class I or II or III film are acceptable for use

Answer 208

D Ref: Sect. 9.8.3  NDE  RT  Film rules  Only class I or II is OK

Question 209

36. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding RT film source selection? A) X-ray machines must also be used in addition to sources with decaying radioisotopes B) For weld inspection, radioactive isotopes of Iridium 192 or Cobalt 60 are typically used C) Iridium 192 is normally used for RT on steel (thickness = 1.5 – 7.0 in. or 38 mm – 178 mm) D) Cobalt 60 is normally used for RT on steel (thickness = 0.25 – 3.0 in. or 6.3 mm – 76.2 mm)

Answer 209

B Ref: Sect. 9.8.4  NDE  RT  Film Source selection

Question 210

37. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding RT film processing? A) Normal developing time is ten to twelve minutes at 68°F (20°C) B) When temps are higher or lower than 20°C, developing time is to be adjusted C) Exposed film can either be hand-processed, or examiner may use an automatic processor D) Chemicals used to process/develop/fix/rinse film are required to be changed on a regular basis

Answer 210

A Ref: Sect. 9.8.5  NDE  RT  Film Processing Five to eight minutes

Question 211

38. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding RT surface preparation? A) Surface conditions (visual) that can mask a defect should be remedied after the exposure B) Weld ripples shall be removed so that RT images are not confused with any discontinuities C) Weld ripples should be removed so that RT images are not confused with any discontinuities D) Weld ripples should be removed to an extent so RT images are not confused with any defects

Answer 211

C Ref: Sect. 9.8.6  NDE  RT  Surface Preparation

Question 212

39. Which of the following statements is False regarding RT film identification (ID) on all radiographs? A) ID information should be plainly & permanently produced B) Location markers will also appear on the film identifying the area of coverage C) ID information shall be traceable to contract/manufacturer/date/component/weld or part #s D) ID information will not obscure any area of interest (to prevent to proper film identification)

Answer 212

D Ref: Sect. 9.8.7  NDE  RT ID  To prevent proper film interpretation

Question 213

40. Which of these statements is FALSE regarding the most effective RT Technique that can be used? A) Most effective technique = double-wall exposure (film contacts surface opposite source) B) Most effective technique = single-wall exposure (film contacts surface opposite source) C) Most effective technique = double-wall exposure (film contacts surface nearest source) D) Most effective technique = single-wall exposure (film contacts surface nearest source)

Answer 213

B Ref: Sect. 9.8.8  NDE  RT Techniques  Single wall exposure (Fig 31)

Question 214

42. Which of these RT Techniques should be used whenever practical? A) Double-wall exposure where radiation passes through two walls of the material or weld B) Single-wall exposure where the radiation passes through only one wall of material or weld C) Single-wall viewing where radiation passes through 2 walls (weld & film sidewall viewed) D) Double-wall viewing where radiation passes through 2 walls (weld & film sidewall viewed)

Answer 214

B Ref: Sect. 9.8.8.1  NDE  RT Techniques  Single wall exposure (Fig 31)

Question 215

43. When the single wall viewing technique is used (radiation passes through two walls) and only the weld (material) on the film sidewall is viewed for acceptance, what is the minimum number of exposures that should be taken (assume RT for circumferential welds)? A) Minimum of one exposure is possible using the panoramic technique B) Minimum of two exposures is possible using the superimposed technique C) Minimum of four exposures taken at 90° to each other should be made as a general rule D) Minimum of three exposures taken at 120° to each other should be made as a general rule

Answer 215

D Ref: Sect. 9.8.8.2  NDE  RT Techniques  Single wall viewing

Question 216

45. Which of these statements is FALSE regarding the evaluation of Radiographs? A) The final step in the radiographic process is the evaluation of the radiograph B) Lack of fusion is typically narrow and linear and it tends to be straighter than a crack. C) Interpreters should know different welding processes & discontinuities associated by process D) Rounded indication (porosity/slag) will be less apparent than indication from crack or LOF

Answer 216

D Ref: Sect. 9.8.9 & RT Figures  NDE  RT  Evaluation of Radiographs

Question 217

48. Transmitted film density through the radiographic image through the body of the hole type IQI in the area of interest should be within what range? A) 1.8 to 4.0 for x-ray and Gamma Radiography B) 2.0 to 4.0 for x-ray and Gamma Radiography C) 1.8 to 4.0 for x-ray and 2.0 to 4.0 for Gamma Radiography D) 2.0 to 4.0 for x-ray and 1.8 to 4.0 for Gamma Radiography

Answer 217

C Ref: Sect. 9.8.9.3  NDE  RT  Density of radiographs

Question 218

49. Which of the following may be used to measure and estimate the density of the film? A) Step wedge density comparison slides B) Density meters or density comparison slides C) Step wedge comparison film or densitometers D) None of these are correct

Answer 218

C Ref: Sect. 9.8.9.3  NDE  RT  Density of radiographs

Question 219

50. Which of the following statements is correct regarding backscatter radiation? A) If a dark image letter B appears on a radiograph, it shall be considered unacceptable B) If a light image letter B appears on a radiograph, it shall be considered unacceptable C) If a dark image letter B on a lighter background appears on a film, consider it unacceptable D) If a light image letter B on a darker background appears on a film, consider it unacceptable

Answer 219

D Ref: Sect. 9.8.9.4  NDE  RT  Density of radiographs

Question 220

51. A darker density band, with straight parallel edges, in the center of the width of the weld image is: A) Incomplete fusion B) Interpass slag inclusions C) Lack of sidewall fusion D) None of these are correct

Answer 220

D Ref: Sect. 9.8.9.5  NDE  RT  Interpretation  Incomplete Penetration

Question 221

57. Which of these statements is true regarding Ultrasonic display types? A) A-scan is the most common display type using the y-axis (time of flight) and z-axis (distance) B) B-scan displays show a plan view of the object being tested C) C-scan displays show a cross section view of the object D) None of these are correct

Answer 221

D Ref: Sect. 9.9  NDE  UT  x & y axis B = cross section, C = plan view

Question 222

58. Which of these statements is false regarding Ultrasonic calibration system checks? A) Calibration system checks are usually performed every 4 hours (as a minimum) during exams B) Calibration system checks should always be performed prior to & at completion of all exams C) Calibration system checks are required with any change in search unit, cables, and examiner D) Calibration system checks are required whenever a UT examiner changes scanning technique

Answer 222

D Ref: Sect. 9.9.1  NDE  UT

Question 223

59. Temperature of the calibration standard should be within: A) 25°F of part to be examined B) 50°F of part to be examined C) 75°F of part to be examined D) 100°F of part to be examined

Answer 223

A Ref: Sect. 9.9.1  NDE  UT 

Question 224

60. If calibration system checks determine UT equipment is improperly functioning, all areas tested since the last successful calibration: A) Shall be reexamined B) Should be reexamined C) Can be reexamined at examiners discretion D) Shall be reexamined if the UT procedure says to do so

Answer 224

B Ref: Sect. 9.9.1  NDE  UT 

Question 225

1. The welding process is similar to:: A) Making a forging in a foundry B) Making a casting in a foundry C) Making a rolled wrought pipe D) None of these are correct

Answer 225

B Ref: Sect. 10.2  Metallurgy  Structure of Metals & Alloys

Question 226

2. The welding process is similar to:: A) Making a forging in a foundry B) Making a casting in a foundry C) Making a rolled wrought pipe D) None of these are correct

Answer 226

B Ref: Sect. 10.2.1  Metallurgy  Structure of Metals & Alloys