Medical Emergencies Flashcards

(270 cards)

1
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

A severe infection that spreads throughout the body:

A

Sepsis

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2
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Elevated body temperature:

A

Fever

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3
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Low blood sugar:

A

Hypoglycemia

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4
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Brain damage due to lack of oxygen:

A

Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy

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5
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Imbalances in body chemistry:

A

Metabolic Disturbances

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6
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Infection of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord:

A

Meningitis

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7
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Issues in brain development:

A

Developmental Abnormalities

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8
Q

Causes of Seizures: Neonatal

Symptoms occurring after stopping drug use:

A

Drug withdrawal

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9
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Often leading to febrile seizures:

A

Fever

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10
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Lack of oxygen:

A

Hypoxia

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11
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Various infections can trigger seizures:

A

Infections

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12
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Seizures with no known cause:

A

Idiopathic Epilepsy

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13
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Imbalances in mineral in the body:

A

Electrolyte disturbances

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14
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Injury to the head:

A

Head Trauma

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15
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Low Blood Sugar:

A

Hypoglycemia

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16
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediactic

Poisoning or exposure to harmful substances:

A

Toxic Ingestions or Exposure

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17
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Growths in the brain:

A

Tumors

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18
Q

Causes of Seizures: Pediatric

Structural abnormalities in the central nervous system:

A

CNS Malformations

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19
Q

Causes of Seizures: General

Lack of oxygen:

A

Hypoxia

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20
Q

Causes of Seizures: General

Sudden drop in blood sugar levels:

A

Rapid Lowering of Blood Sugar

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21
Q

Causes of Seizures: General

Tumors, head trauma, toxic eclampsia, and vascular disorders:

A

Structural Brain Diseases

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22
Q

Causes of Seizures: General

Seizures without a known cause:

A

Idiopathic Epilepsy

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23
Q

What is the most common TYPE of seizure?

A

Grand Mal Seizure

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24
Q

_____ Phase: initial phase involves continuous muscle tension and contraction, leading to rigidity.

A

Tonic Phase

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25
_____ phase: follows tonic phase and marked by rhythmic jerking movement of the extremities.
Clonic Phase
26
_____ seizure typically starts without warning phase (aura) and progresses through tonic and clonic phases, ending with period of recovery.
General Tonic - Clonic (Grand Mal)
27
2 types of Procedures to treat Hemorrhagic Stroke:
Endovascular Procedure Neurosurgical Prodedures
28
Hemorrhagic Stroke Treatment: Endovascular Procedure _____ Interventions: Catheter is inserted through an artery in the leg or arm and advanced to the hemorrhage site. Mechanical agents like coils can be placed to prevent further bleeding.
Catheter Based Interventions
29
Hemorrhagic Stroke Treatment: Neurosurgical Procedures _____ Interventions: Severe cases, or when endovascular therapy is not feasible, neurosurgery may be necessary to remove the blood and repair the damaged vessels
Surgical Interventions
30
2 Types of Treatment for Ischemic Stroke:
Fibrinolytic Therapy Mechanical Clot Removal
31
Treatment for Ischemic Stroke: Fibrinolytic Therapy Goal: Common Drug: Other Drugs: Timing:
Goal: Restore blood flow by dissolving the clot Common Drug: Recombinant Tissue Plasminogen Activator (r-tPA) Other Drugs: Tenecteplase, Retaplase, Streptokinase, Anistreplase Timing: Most effective with first 4.5 hours after symptom onset.
32
Treatment for Ischemic Stroke: Mechanical Clot Removal (Mechanical Thrombectomy) Procedure: Timing: Combination:
Procedure: Wire-Cage device is threaded through catheter to the blocked artery in the brain to remove the clot. Timing: Ideally within 6 hours of symptom onset, but can be beneficial up to 24 hours in select pt. Combination: Can be used alongside r-tPA in eligible patients
33
Treatment for Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA): Immediate Care Early Recognition: Airway Management: Stroke Assessment: Transport
Early recognition - rapid identification & supportive measures are crucial Airway Management - ensure an adequate airway and provide oxygen if needed Stroke Assessment - perform a stroke assessment and establish the time when the pt was last seen normal Transport - NEarest stroke center & alert stroke team
34
_____ Strokes: due to blood flow to an artery in the brain is interrupted by a narrowing or blockage. Often due to a clot.
Ischemic Stroke
35
_____ Strokes: Occur when an artery in the brain leaks blood or ruptures. Due to high blood pressure, aneurysms or arteriovenous malformations.
Hemorrhagic Stroke
36
_____ : Temporary Sudden interruption of blood flow to the brain. SS identical to stroke. Typically resolves within 24 hours and DO NOT cause permanent damage. Can be a warning sign of future stroke.
Transient Ischemic Attack
37
8 D’s of Stroke Care:
Detection Dispatch Delivery Door Data Decision Drug Disposition
38
_____: Conditions where the thyroid gland insufficient thyroid hormones. SS-Decreased metabolic rate, weight gain, fatigue, bradycardia, myxedema (puffy face)
Hypothyroidism
39
_____: condition where the thyroid gland produces excessive thyroid hormones. SS- Tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia, nervousness, insomnia, increased metabolic rate, weight loss and severe cases of exophthalmus (protrusion of the eyeballs).
Hyperthyroidism
40
Key Differences in Hypo VS Hyper Thyroidism: Hormones Levels: Metabolic Rate: Common Cause:
Hormones: Hypo- Low levels of thyroid hormones Hyper- High levels Metabolic Rate: Hypo- Decreases Hyper- Increases Common Causes: Hypo- Hashimotos disease Hyper- Graves’ disease
41
SS of Opiate OD
Classic Triad of Opioid Toxicity - Respiratory Depression, Miosis, Bradycardia Hypothermia
42
What is the treatment for Opiate OD?
Naloxone (Narcan) = Opioid Antagonist -Dose: .4-2mg every 2-3 minutes MAX 2mg
43
Disorder caused by high levels of cortisol in the blood. Can result form long-term use of Glucocorticoid medication (prednisone) or from tumors on the pituitary gland. Typically affects middle-aged individuals with women affected more than them.
Cushing Syndrome
44
SS of _____ include: Weight gain (especially around trunk, face and neck) Moon face Buffalo hump Skin changes Emotional instability Cardiovascular issues (hypertension and cardiac hypertrophy) Metabolic changes (diabetes, osteoporosis and muscle wasting.
Cushing Syndrome
45
Most Likely treatment for Cushing’s Syndrome:
Surgical Treatment - Tumor Removal Pharmacological Treatment - Antihypertensives and anti-adrenal mediations.
46
Patient with _____ require careful monitoring due to their increased risk of cardiovascular disease, skin fragility and susceptibility to infections.
Cushing’s Syndrome
47
_____: Predictable and often minor reactions that occur in addition to the desired therapeutic effect of medication. eg. Nausea, headache, dizziness, mild gastrointestinal discomfort.
Common Drug Side Effects
48
_____: Unintended and harmful reactions that occur at normal doses used for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy. e.g. allergic reactions, gastrointestinal bleeding, significant increases in blood glucose levels.
Adverse Effects
49
_____ pain: originates from the internal organs, specifically the walls of hollow organs.
Visceral Pain
50
_____ Pain: Sharp, well-defined pain that travels along specific neural routes, known as dermatology, to the spinal column. *Solid Organ*
Somatic Pain
51
_____ Pain: Pain that is felt in a location different from its site of origin.
Referred Pain
52
Pain from an MI often referred to _____, _____, _____ or _____. (Locations)
Left arm, neck, jaw or back.
53
Visceral pain = _____
Hollow Organ Pain
54
Somatic Pain = _____
Pain from Solid Organs
55
Why do we use Inhaler with Patients? Metered Dose Inhalers
Used to deliver medication directly to lungs. Delivers a specific amount. MDI’s are portable and easy to use. Spacers can be added to accommodate pt who may have difficulty timing coordinating.
56
SS of Diverticulitis:
LLQ Pain Fever Elevated WBC Nausea/Vomiting Tenderness on palpation Colicky Pain Hematochezia (bright red bloody feces) Perception of Incomplete Defecation
57
Complications of Diverticulitis:
Hemorrhage Peritonitis
58
Prevention of Diverticulitis:
High Fibre Diet Stay Hydrated Regular Exercise Avoid Straining Avoid seeds/nuts
59
Pre-hospital care for diverticulitis:
Primarily supportive care; Monitor airway; IV fluids
60
SS of TIA: Fuck With Shit, Via Con Dios
Facial Drooping Weakness or numbness Speech difficulties Vision problems Confusion Dizziness
61
_____ Coronary Artery: supplies blood to a portion of the Right Atrium, Right ventricle and upper portion of the heart’s conduction system.
Right Coronary Artery
62
_____ Coronary Artery: Supplies the Left ventricle, interventricular septum, part of the right ventricle and lower conduction system.
Left Coronary Artery
63
_____ Bundle Branch Block can result from acute MI, medication use, electrolyte abnormalities and age related deterioration of the cardiac conduction system.
Right Bundle Branch Block
64
When _____ Bundle Branch is blocked, impulse travels down the LBB and spread through the interventricular septum to the RV, causing a delay in the right ventricle depolarization.
Right Bundle Branch
65
_____ Bundle Branch Block: Seen as Prolonged QRS in V1 upwards from the isometric line
Right Bundle Branch
66
_____ Bundle Branch Blocks: Significant myocardial disease, MI, medications, electrolyte abnormalities & degenerative disease of the conduction system
Left Bundle Branch Block
67
_____ Bundle Branch Block: Left Ventricle cannot depolarize normally. Impulse travels from the right ventricle through the interventricular septum to the left ventricle, causing a delay in the Left Ventricular Depolarization
Left Bundle Branch Block
68
_____ bundle branch block is seen as a prolonged QRS in V1 downwards from the Isometric line.
Left Bundle Branch Block
69
______: Severe & potentially fatal condition that begins with an infection in the bloodstream (septicemia)
Septic Shock
70
SS of Septic Shock: Increased Cardiac Output Which One: -Early Stages -Progressive Symptoms -Late Stages
Early Stages
71
SS of Septic Shock: Fever Which One: -Early Stages -Progressive Symptoms -Late Stages
Progressive Symptom
72
SS of Septic Shock: Skin Changes Which One: -Early Stages -Progressive Symptoms -Late Stages
Progressive Symptom
73
SS of Septic Shock: Respiratory Issues Which One: -Early Stages -Progressive Symptoms -Late Stages
Progressive Symptom
74
SS of Septic Shock: Altered Mental Status Which One: -Early Stages -Progressive Symptoms -Late Stages
Progressive Symptom
75
SS of Septic Shock: Severe Hypotension Which One: -Early Stages -Progressive Symptoms -Late Stages
Late Stages
76
SS of Septic Shock: Organ Dysfuncion Which One: -Early Stages -Progressive Symptoms -Late Stages
Late Stages
77
_____: Type of peptic ulcer that occurs in the proximal portion of the duodenum.
Duodenal Ulcer
78
Causes of Duodenal Ulcers: _____ is found in over 80% of duodenal ulcers.
Helicobacter Pylori Bacteria
79
Causes of Duodenal Ulcers: Medications like _____ can damage the mucosal lining.
Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs: aspirin, ibuprofen and naproxen
80
Causes of Duodenal Ulcers: Products like alcohol and nicotine.
Acid-Stimulating Products
81
Causes of Duodenal Ulcers: _____ prevents neutralization of stomach acid in the duodenum.
Obstructed Pancreatic Duct
82
Causes of Duodenal Ulcers: _____ a rare condition where an acid-secreting tumor causes ulcers. So rare that in a list from A-Z its Z.
Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
83
Pain from _____ often occurs at night or when the stomach is empty. May be relieved by drinking milk.
Duodenal Ulcers
84
Bleeding from _____ can cause anemia, hematemesis (vomiting blood) or melena (black, tarry stools).
Duodenal Ulcers
85
N/V caused by _____ is due to irritation of the mucosa.
Duodenal Ulcers
86
Medications for _____ include antacids, antibiotics, H2 histamine blockers, and proton-pump inhibitors.
Duodenal Ulcers
87
_____: progressive and debilitating condition characterized by chronic airflow obstruction. Included a combination of emphysema, chronic bronchitis and asthma.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
88
Common Symptoms of _____: Dyspnea, Cough, Increase Sputum Production, Wheezing, Tachypnea, Pleuritic Chest Pain, Accessory Muscle Use, Pursed Lip Breathing, Tripod Positioning.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
89
Severe Symptoms of _____: Confusion and Agitation, Somnolence (excessive sleepiness), 1-2 word dyspnea
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
90
Physical Exam Findings of _____: Barrel Chest, Clubbing of Fingers, Jugular Vein Distention, Peripheral Edema
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
91
SPO2 should be ___-___ % for COPD patients.
90-95%
92
COPD patients work on _____ drive.
Hypoxic drive.
93
Transport for COPD patient in what position?
Position of comfort and ensure airway stays patent.
94
2 things to not give too much of in COPD patients:
Oxygen - Hypoxic Drive Fluids - Can cause flash pulmonary edema
95
_____ can prevent the need for intubation in COPD patients.
CPAP
96
CPAP should be ___-___cm H2O.
5-10
97
_____ and _____ can be used early in the management of COPD patients.
Albuterol and Corticosteroids
98
_____: Inflammation of the vermiform appendix, small tube like structure to the large intestine at the ileocecal junction.
Appendicitis
99
_____ is usually caused by an obstruction of the appendiceal lumen by fecal material, food particles or tumor.
Appendicitis
100
Symptoms of _____ include: Diffuse, colicky pain; N/V with low grade fever; Pain often starts in the periumbilical region and later localizes to the RLQ (McBurney’s Point)
Appendicitis
101
Fever and stiff neck:
Meningitis
102
_____: Inflammation of the gallbladder, often caused by gallstones.
Cholecystitis
103
Primary cause of cholecystitis in 90% of cases is _____.
Gallstones
104
Symptoms of _____ include: Severe pain in RUQ radiating to the right shoulder; pain occurs after a high-fat meal; N/V and tenderness in the right subcoastal region.
Cholecystitis
105
_____ forms when bile, produced by the liver to remove cholesterol, becomes super saturated and forms stone like masses; stones can obstruct the cystic duct; leading to inflammation.
Gallstones (Cholecystitis)
106
Risk Factors for _____: Obese middle-aged women with multiple children as well as Pima Indians and Scandinavian.
Cholecystitis.
107
_____: inflammation of the exocrine Pancreas.
Pancreatitis
108
Causes of Pancreatitis: Metabolic: _____ is a major cause, accounting for about 80% of cases in the US.
Alcoholism
109
_____ Phase: After seizures; PT may experience confusion drowsiness or coma.
Postictal
110
Causes of Pancreatitis: Mechanical: _____ or elevated serum lipids can obstruct the pancreatic duct.
Gallstones
111
Causes of Pancreatitis: Vascular: _____ or shock can lead to vascular injuries.
Thromboemboliss
112
Causes of Pancreatitis: _____: Certain infections can cause pancreatitis.
Infectious
113
_____: Often caused by gallstones blocking pancreatic duct, leading to enzyme backup and inflammation. SS: Severe abdominal pain (LUQ/Radiating back/Epigastric region), NV, Ecchymosis and swelling. High Mortality Rate 30-40% due to sepsis and shock.
Acute Pancreatitis
114
_____: Chronic alcohol intake can leak to acinar tissue destruction, causing enzyme backup and autodigestion of the pancreas. SS: intense abdominal pain, NV and SS of hemorrhage (ecchymosis).
Chronic Pancreatitis
115
_____: Inflammation of the liver.
Hepatitis
116
Most common cause of Hepatitis:
Viral Infection
117
SS of _____: Headache, fever, weakness, joint pain, anorexia, NV & RUQ pain. Prolonged Sympoms: Jaundice, darkened urine & gray colored stools.
Hepatitis
118
Hepatitis ___: Fecal-Oral Route; often through contaminated food or water. Fatigue, nausea, stomach pain & jaundice. Does not cause chronic illness. Vaccines are available and effective.
Hepatitis A
119
Hepatitis ___: Bloodborne; through blood, semen, or other body fluids Fatigue, poor appetite, stomach pain, N & jaundice Can become chronic, leading to cirrhosis or liver cancer Vaccines are available & effective
Hepatitis B
120
Hepatitis ___: Bloodborne, primarily through sharing needles Asymptomatic, can lead to serious live disease More than half of infection become chronic No vaccines available, but curative treatments exist
Hepatitis C
121
Hepatitis ___: Bloodborne, requires co-infection w/HBV Severe, can lead to lifelong liver damage Can be chronic No specific vaccine, but HBV vaccine provides protection
Hepatitis D
122
Hepatitis ___: Fecal-Oral Route, often through contaminated Water Fatigue, poor appetite, stomach pain, nausea & jaundice Does not cause Chronic Illness No vaccines available in the USA
Hepatitis E
123
Pre-Hospital Treatment of Patient with Hepatitis: (4)
Position of comfort Manage Airway Avoid giving anything by mouth in case immediate surgery Analgesic and antibiotics may be required
124
What should you expect if the patient has fever, headache, stiff neck and blurred vision?
Meningitis
125
_____: infection of the meninges (protective coverings membranes of the brain and spinal cord).
Meningitis
126
_____ Gland: Small organ located in the mediastinum; behind the sternum. Plays a crucial role in the immune system, especially during childhood Larger in children & shrinks with age; becoming mostly fat & fibrous tissue in adults Promotes maturation of the T lymphocytes essential for cell-mediated immunity
Thymus
127
_____: can lead to SS like cough, chest pain and difficulty breathing.
Thymomas
128
_____ Gland: located in the neck Regulates metabolism by secreting thyroxine (T4) & triiodothyronine (T3); influences growth & development Secretes Calcitonin; which lowers blood calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption
Thyroid Gland
129
_____: excess thyroid hormones in the blood.
Hyperthyroidism
130
_____: Inadequate thyroid hormones in the blood
Hypothyroidism
131
_____: Autoimmune disorder caused by hyperthyroidism.
Graves Disease
132
_____ Glands: Posterior lateral surfaces of the Thyroid Regulates calcium levels in the blood Secretes parathyroid hormone (PTH) which increases blood calcium levels Bone: Releases calcium into the blood Intestines: Converts Vitamin D to its active form, increasing calcium absorption Kidneys: Increase calcium reabsorption
Parathyroid Glands
133
_____: High levels of calcium, often due to tumors.
Hyperparathyroidism
134
_____: Decreased level of calcium and vitamin D.
Hypoparathyroidism
135
_____ Gland: Center of the lower forehead. Regulates sleep-wake cycles Secretes melatonin
Pineal gland
136
How to manage and actively seizing patient:
Do not restrain them; protect them form objects within the environment. Attempt to maintain the airway. Stop the seizure Give Meds
137
3 Drugs to give for seizure and dosages:
Diazepam (Valium): 5-10mg Lorazepam (Activan): .1mg/kg (mag 4m) q 4 mins Midazolam (Versed): 10mg IM
138
5 things to do for patient in Postictal state:
Manage Airway Position in Left Lateral Recumbant Monitor Continuously Monitor/Maintain Temp if needed Communicate with PT if you can to ensure they’re recovering. Be aware of things around them that could hurt them.
139
What part of the distal end of the gastrointestinal system is voluntary control?
The anus.
140
_____: Severe elevation in blood pressure (>180/120) that is accompanied by evidence of impending progressive target organ dysfunction.
Hypertensive Emergencies
141
_____: Acute or subacute consequence of severe hypertension. Characterized by a sudden & severe increase in blood pressure that leads to changes in brain functions. Requires immediate treatment to lower the BP.
Hypertensive Encephalopathy
142
How to manage hypertensive seizures:
Look for headaches, N/V, blurred vision, SOB, chest pain, dizziness. Pregnant PT: check for edema of hands/face, headache, preeclampsia. Place PT on left side to prevent supine hypotension.
143
_____: Initial phase after infection where the host cannot transmit the infectious agents to others.
Latent Period
144
_____: Period when host can exhibit signs of clinical disease and can transmit the infectious agent to other host.
Communicable Period
145
_____: Time between exposure to an infectious disease & appearance of symptoms. Can vary greatly, from a few days to months or years.
Incubation Period
146
_____: Period between exposure to the disease & seroconversion (when antibodies become detectable). Person can test negative even though they are infected.
Window Phase
147
_____: Duration from the onset of SS until the resolution of symptoms or death. Resolution of symptoms does not necessarily mean the infectious agent has been eradicated.
Disease Phase
148
Most common causes of rectal foreign body obstruction: (2)
Intentional Insertion: sexual gratification or psychosis. Swallowed Objects: Some objects get stuck in rectum.
149
_____: Abnormally low sodium level in the blood, affects water balance and nerve function. Can lead to headache, confusion & seizures.
Hyponatremia
150
Treatment for Hyponatremia: (2)
Hypotonic Solution Isotonic Solution
151
_____: Abnormally high calcium levels in the blood, impacts muscle & nerve function. Can cause muscle weakness, kidney stones & abnormal heart rhythms.
Hypercalcemia
152
Treatment for Hypercalcemia: (4)
Hydration: IV Fluids Medications: Calcitonin & Glucocorticoids Monitor ECG Definitive Care: Severe cases dialysis
153
_____: Abnormally low potassium levels in the blood, affects heart rhythms. Can cause muscle weakness, cramps, ECG changes like flattened T waves & prominent U waves.
Hypokalemia
154
Treatment for Hypokalemia: (2)
Oral Supplements: Potassium Chloride IV Potassium: Must be done cautiously to avoid complications.
155
_____ Poisoning: Low - Intermediate Exposure: Headache, Vertigo, N/V High Exposure: AMS, seizures, increased respirations. Very High Exposure: Abrupt loss of consciousness, respiratory depression, cardiac arrest.
Hydrogen Cyanide Poisoning
156
Treatment for Hydrogen cyanide Poisoning: (think fire victims)
Hydroxocobalamin (cynokit) Antidote binds cyanid, forms cyanocobalamin which is secreted by the kidneys.
157
_____ Poisoning: Odorless, tasteless & colorless gas produced from the incomplete burning of fossil fuels & other carbon containing compounds. It combines to hemoglobin with an affinity rate of 200-500 greater that O2. Prevents hemoglobin from transporting O2 leading to cellular hypoxia and metabolic acidosis.
Carbon Monoxide
158
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning: (COHb <15-20%) - Headache, N/V, dizziness & blurred vision. Which of the following: Mild Moderate Severe Fatal
Mild
159
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning: (COHb 21-40%) - Confusion, syncope, CP dyspnea, tachycardia, tachypnea & weakness. Which of the following: Mild Moderate Severe Fatal
Moderate
160
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning: (COHb 41-59%) - Dysrhythmias, hypotension cardiac ischemia, palpitations, respiratory arrest, pulmonary edema, seizures, coma, cardiac arrest. Which of the following: Mild Moderate Severe Fatal
Severe
161
Carbon Monoxide Poisoning: (COHb >60%) - Death. Which of the following: Mild Moderate Severe Fatal
Fatal
162
Treatment for Carbon Monoxide Poisoning:
Remove patient from environment, maintain the airway, administer high flow O2.
163
_____ Poisoning: chemicals found in insectisides, herbicides & chemical weapons. They exhibit acetylcholinesterase (AChE); enzyme responsible for breaking down acetylcholine.
Organophosphate Poisoning
164
SS of Organophosphate Poisoning:
Salivation Lacrimation Urination Defecation Gastric Motility Emesis
165
Treatment for Organophosphate Poisoning:
Atropine Pralidoxime
166
SS of Renal Calculi (Kidney Stone):
Pain: Visceral pain in one flank Bladder Symptoms: Increased need to urinate Hematuria: Blood in urine. Physical Exam Findings: Uncomfortable, pain, cool, pale, clammy.
167
How to treat Altered Mental Status: (3)
Manage ABC’s IV & Blood Glucose Medications
168
Medications for AMS: _____: for suspected Narcotic OD
Naloxone (Narcan)
169
Medications for AMS: _____: for suspected Bensodiazepine OD
Flumazenil
170
Medications for AMS: _____: for suspected Barbituates OD
Benzodiazepines
171
Medications for AMS: _____: for suspected tricyclic antidepressants OD
Sodium Bicarb
172
Medications for AMS: _____: for suspected Beta Blocker OD
Glucagon
173
Medications for AMS: _____: for suspected alcoholic PT to prevent complications of Thiamine deficiency.
Thiamine
174
Medications for AMS: _____, _____, _____: for active seizures or status epilepticus.
Versed, Valium, Ativan
175
Medications for AMS: _____: for kidney failure, trauma & infection.
Fluids
176
Medications for AMS: _____/____: for sepsis.
Levophed/Vasopressors
177
Medications for AMS: _____/_____ for Neurogenic/Cardiogenic.
Dopamine/Vasopressors
178
Medications for AMS: _____: for poison.
Activated Charcoal
179
AEIOUTIPS:
Alcohol; Epilepsy; Insulin; Overdose; Uremia; Trauma; Infection; Psychiatric; Stroke
180
What medication can be used for hyperthyroidism? (3)
Radioactive Iodine Therapy Propylthiouracil (PTU) Surgery
181
What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
Graves Disease
182
_____: bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but can also impact other body parts. Transmitted through airborne droplets from coughing or sneezing. SS- Chills, fever, fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, chronic cough, hemoptysis.
Tuberculosis
183
_____: infection of the lungs that can present with a variety of SS. SS include chills, fever, fatigue, malaise, cough, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea, crackles, wheezing or rhonchi, decreased air movement in infected area. Physical Examination: fluid in the lungs
Pneumonia
184
_____: Often from hyperextension injuries, causing motor weakness more in the upper extremities & loss of bladder control
Central Cord Syndrome
185
_____: Hemitransection causing motor & sensory loss on the same side as the injury & pain/temperature loss on the opposite side
Brown-Sequard Syndrome
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_____: Compression of nerve roots at the lower end of the spinal cord, leading to bowel/bladder incontinence & lower extremity weakness
Cause Equina Syndrome
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_____: Temporary loss of all spinal cord functions below the injury, including paralysis, loss of sensation & bowel/bladder control
Spinal Shock
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_____: Total severing of the Spinal Cord leading to quadriplegia or paraplegia, loss of reflexes & autonomic dysfunction
Complete Cord Transection
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_____ is widespread blunt trauma to the head; high chance of death; damages entire axons in the brain
Diffuse Axon
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How to handle sexual assault victim: (8)
Listen don’t judge. Consider the victim a crime scene. Do not allow victim to change clothes. Carefully explain the process to the PT. Assess the physical injuries, not the actual event. Provide a safe environment. Nonjudgemental. Preserve physical evidence.
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Universal Blood Recipient:
Type AB (Specifically AB+)
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Universal Blood Donor:
Type O-
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_____ Aneurysm: Occurs below the diaphragm. Affects the abdomen, femoral & distal pulses. Often the PT feels a sudden & urgent need to defecate.
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
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_____ Aneurysm: Occurs above the diaphragm. Affects the thoracic cavity, upper arms & typically shows a difference BP’s left from right.
Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm
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For any internal hemorrhage, control the BP to a systolic of ___:
80
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SS of _____ OD: N/V, Diarrhea (sometimes with blood), liver necrosis, pain on swallowing, unusual breath odors, excessive salivation.
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
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How to treat Acetaminophen (Tylenol) OD:
Primary: Acetylcysteine (mucomyst) If identified early, activated charcoal.
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SS of _____ OD: CNS depression; profound drowsiness; stupor or coma; respiratory depression; hypotension; ataxia.
Benzodiazepines OD
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How to treat benzodiazepines OD:
Flumazenil. Benzodiazepine antagonist can reverse CNS & respiratory depression.
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_____ should be used with caution with patient with chronic benzodiazapene due to risk of seizures.
Flumazenil
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_____: small masses of swollen veins located in the anus or rectum.
Hemorrhoids
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_____: An abnormal connection between the epithelialized surface of the anal canal & the perianal skin
Fistulas
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_____ result from pregnancy, portal hypertension, lifting heavy objects, straining during defecation low-fiber diet
Hehorrhoids
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_____ often result from an abscess in anal glands that fails to heal properly, leading to a persistent, abnormal connection
Fistulas
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What 2 OD’s is Sodium Bicarb used for?
Tricyclic Antidepressant; Salicylate
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_____: life-threatening medical condition; usually bacterial that leads to a whole-body inflammatory state called systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). SS: Fever, chills, tachycardia, RD, AMS, hypoperfusion & increased or decrease BGL
Septicemia (sepsis BB)
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_____: condition where the body’s core temperature drops below 95*F (35*C); can result from inadequate heat production, excessive cold exposure or both
Hypothermia
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_____ Hypothermia: 90-95*F Shivering, tachycardia, vasoconstriction, tachypnea, fatigue, impaired judgment.
Mild Hypothermia
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_____ Hypothermia: 82-90*F Condition where the body’s core temperature drops below 95*F; can result from inadequate heat production, excessive cold exposure or both.
Moderate Hypothermia
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_____ Hypothermia: <82*F Coma, apnea, ventricular arrhythmia or asystole, loss of voluntary muscle control, hypotension, undetectable pulse & respirations.
Severe Hypothermia
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_____: abnormally low concentration of glucose in the blood. BGL <70
Hypoglycemia
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_____: Condition characterized by an abnormally high concentration of glucose. Typically >200 mg/dL
Hyperglycemia
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SS of _____: AMS; seizures, lethargy, RD, out of character behavior, confusion & outburst of anger.
Hypoglycemia
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SS of _____: Early- Increased thirst, urination and weight loss. Late- Weakness, abdominal pain, generalized pain, generalized aches, loss of appetite, N/V, dehydration, fruity breath, tachypnea, hyperventilation, tachycardia.
Hyperglycemia
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What is the number 1 SS associated with endocrinological emergencies?
Altered Mental Status
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Which endocrinological emergency would we want to give fluids to?
DKA and HHNS
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3 Main Causes of Physiological Seizures:
Metabolic Drug Related Causes Trauma/Injury/Vascular Issues/Infectious Causes
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4 Main Types of Idiopathic Seizures:
Genetic Predisposition Primary Epilepsy Syndroms Development Abnormalities Unknown Causes
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Textbook says the most common cause of Seizure is _____:
Idiopathic Epilepsy
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_____: serious condition where the intestines are blocked, preventing normal movement of content through the digestive tract. Can be acute or chronic. SS: Diffuse abdominal pain; bloating and tenderness; N/V; Distended abdomen; signs of shock.
Bowel Obstruction
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_____: serious condition that involves bleeding in the Upper Part of the digestive tract; including the esophagus, stomach & duodenum. SS: Abdominal discomfort; N/V; Hematemesis & Melena; Signs of Shock; Orthostatic Hypotension.
Upper GI Bleed
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_____: occur in the GI tract distal to the Ligament of Treitz; including small intestine, colon, rectum & anus & often associated w/chronic conditions. SS: Cramping Pain; N/V; Changes in stools; abdominal findings; signs of shock; hemodynamic instability.
Lower GI Bleed
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_____: Indicates a slow GI bleed
Melanotic Stool
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_____: (Hematochezia) Suggest a large hemorrhage or bleeding in the distal colon; possible due to hemorrhoids or rectal fissures.
Bright Red Blood in Stool
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_____ Abdomen: May indicate significant hemorrhage
Distended
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_____: Bruising on the abdomen can be a signs of severe bleeding
Ecchymosis
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_____: Feeling of incomplete evacuation/urge to defecate (seen in rectal or colonic lesions).
Tenesmus
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_____: Condition often awakens the pt from sleep & is typically associated w/heart conditions like CHF. Sudden SOB at night & often causes the patient to wake up from sleep.
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea (PND)
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_____: Difficulty breathing while lying flat; patient typically sleep with pillows.
Orthopnea
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_____: Condition where the heart’s reduced stroke volume leads to fluid overload in the body’s tissues.
Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)
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Treatment for Congestive Heart Failure is:
CPAP, Nitro, Morphine, Lasix If BP is <90, treat right sided first with fluids to get pressure above 90. Then treat the left sided failure with drugs.
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Right sided Heart Failure gets _____. Left sided Heart Failure gets _____.
Fluids Nitro (drugs)
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In the field, what is the least useful technique for inspecting the abdomen?
Percussion.
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*Which type of Diabetes accounts for 90% of of diabetic patient?*
Type 2
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_____ Diabetes Mellitus Autoimmune destruction of beta cells in the pancreas, leading to little or no insulin production. Typically diagnosed in children & young adults; also called “juvenile onset” diabetes. Patients require regular insulin injections to manage blood glucose levels. Accounts for approx 5% of diabetes cases DKA: Diabetic Ketoacidosis Higher chance of becoming hypoglycemic
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
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_____ Diabetes Mellitus: Decreased responsiveness to insulin and insufficient insulin production. Typically begins after 40 & often associated with obesity. Patients usually do not depend on insulin replacement initially, managed with lifestyle changes & oral medications. Often less S/S of Type 1 with lower levels of hyperglycemia & fewer major signs of metabolic disruption. Accounts for over 90% of diabetes cases.
Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
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Treatment of right sided MI:
Maintain preload; Dobutamine; reduce afterload; early re-perfusion.
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SS of Right sided MI: (3)
Distended Neck Veins Clear Lung Fields Hypotension *Elevation in Leads II, III and avF
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How many times does carbon monoxide bind to hemoglobin compared to oxygen?
200-250 x more
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Elderly female having upper abdominal pain and what to do for her?
Silent MI - Run 12 Lead Any form of chest pain, run 12 Lead.
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_____: Atrial Rate: 350-370 (cannot be counted) Ventricular Rate: Varies greatly Rhythm: Irregularly irregular No PRI and the QRS is normal
AFIB
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Parasite _____: contracted from undercooked pork, causing GI disturbances and potentially severe complications.
Trichinosis
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Parasite: _____: causes epigastric pains and anemia.
Hookworms
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Parasite: _____: common in children, causing anal itching.
Pinworms
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Parasite: _____: causes abdominal cramping, fever and cough.
Roundworms
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_____ Degree AV Block: Delay in impulse transmission from atria to ventricles. ECG Indicator: PR interval longer than 0.20 seconds. Impact: No complete blockage, just a slowing of the impulse.
First
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_____ Degree AV Block (Mobitz __): Progressive delay of impulses until one is completely blocked. Cycle: After a dropped beat, the cycle repeats. Impact: Can cause syncope and angina if frequent.
Second Degree AV Block Mobitz I
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_____ Degree AV Block (Mobitz ___): Intermittent block where some impulses are conducted and others are not. Pattern: Often a recognized pattern. Impact: More serious than Mobitz I, can lead to full AV block.
Second-Degree AV Block (Mobitz II)
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_____ Degree AV Block: No impulses from atria are conducted to ventricles. Impact: Severe bradycardia, heart failure, and potential cardiac arrest.
Third Degree AV Block
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How do you position a stroke patient? (4)
Supine Recovery position Opposite side of stroke signs If PT has medical history, transport in semi fowlers
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Low amplitude, bradycardia, thin hair and doughy skin, is it a thyroid disorder or adrenal gland disorder?
Thyroid - Hypothyroidism
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If a patient is taking atrovent, metaproterenol and betamethasone, what underlying disease or disorder would you expect them to have?
Asthma or COPD
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COPD PT have a tendency to produce polycythemia. What is this? And why?
Abnormally high heatocrit due to excess production of RBC’s. Chronic Hypoxia leads to decreased O2 - body then produces more red blood cells.
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Rhonchi - Upper or Lower? Fluid or Congestion? Snoring - Upper of Lower? Fluid or Congestion? Strider - Upper or Lower? Fluid or Congestion? Crackles - Upper or Lower? Fluid or Congestion?
Rhonchi - Lower / Fluid Snoring - Upper / Congestion Stridor - Upper / Obstruction Crackles - Lower / Fluid
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Ketones are a bybroduct of _____.
Fat metabolism (considered a form of catabolism)
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What is the number 1 cause of coronary artery disease (CAD) or Angina?
Atherosclerosis
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What happens when the external pacemaker fails?
The underlying rhythm returns.
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What body part separates a lower and upper GI tract bleed?
Ligament of Treitz
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Which is more common, Stroke, Epilepsy or Parkinson’s?
Stroke Parkinson’s Epilepsy
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_____: inflammation of the stomach and intestines.
Gastroenteritis
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_____: inflammation of the stomach.
Gastritis
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_____: Chroninc inflammatory disease affecting any part of the GI tract.
Crohns
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What percentage of the population has appendicitis?
10-20%
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What is a substance that induces an immune response?
Immunogenicity
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Pt complaining of severe headache; what do we watch them for? And prevent aspiration.
Intracranial pressure
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What is ST Elevation?
STEMI
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What is Tall Peaked T-Waves?
Hyperkalemia MI Early indication of Torsades
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Number 1 Cause of Hemorrhoids:
Idiopathic Straining in Defecation Low Fiber Pregnancy Heavy Lifting Portal Hypertension
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_____: known as adrenal insufficiency, occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough steroid hormones. SS - Progressive weakness/fatigue, hypotension, most likely in AFIB w/ RVR.
Addison’s Disease
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_____: genetic disorder affecting red blood cells. SS - Chronic anemia, vasooclussive crisis, hematologic crisis, infectious crisis.
Sickle Cell