Medical Terms Flashcards

Question

What is the procedure for assessing deep tendon reflexes?

Answer 1

Testing involves checking the patellar reflex and the Achilles tendon reflex. ## Footnote Gloves should be worn, or hand-washing must be done before and after touching the patient.

Answer 2

Atropine is an antispasmodic that can be administered preoperatively to relax smooth muscles during surgery.

Answer 3

Cortisone is a corticosteroid drug injected to relieve pain and inflammation in a specific joint.

Answer 4

Anabolic steroids are used to replace muscle loss caused by disease and are sometimes used illegally by athletes and bodybuilders to build muscle mass.

Answer 5

Muscle relaxants are administered to relax certain muscles and relieve stiffness, pain, and discomfort from strains, sprains, or other muscle injuries.

Answer 6

They may have a negative interaction with alcohol and some antidepressants.

Answer 7

They cause temporary paralysis by blocking the transmission of nerve stimuli to the muscles, used as an adjunct to anesthesia during surgery.

Answer 8

PRP is a treatment where some of the patient's blood is separated to create a concentrated platelet-rich plasma, injected into a joint to promote healing and pain relief.

Answer 9

Viscosupplementation involves direct injections of hyaluronic acid into the knee to increase the joint's viscous fluid, providing temporary relief from arthritis pain. ## Footnote Sometimes referred to as chicken shots.

Answer 10

The spinal cord is soft, with the consistency of toothpaste.

Answer 11

The type of paralysis is determined by the level of the vertebra closest to the injury.

Answer 12

An injury occurs when a vertebra is broken and a piece of the broken bone presses into the spinal cord.

Answer 13

The ability of the brain to communicate with the body below the level of the injury may be reduced or lost altogether.

Answer 14

An incomplete injury means that the person has some function below the level of the injury, even though that function isn't normal.

Answer 15

A complete injury means there is complete loss of sensation and muscle control below the level of the injury.

Answer 16

Paralysis is the loss of sensation and voluntary muscle movements in a muscle through disease or injury to its nerve supply.

Answer 17

Myoparesis is a weakness or slight muscular paralysis.

Answer 18

Hemiparesis is a weakness or slight paralysis affecting one side of the body.

Answer 19

Hemiplegia is total paralysis affecting only one side of the body.

Answer 20

Paraplegia is the paralysis of both legs and the lower part of the body.

Answer 21

Quadriplegia is paralysis of all four extremities.

Answer 22

DTRs are tested with a reflex hammer to determine homeostasis between the spinal cord and the peripheral nervous system.

Answer 23

ROM is a diagnostic procedure to evaluate joint mobility and muscle strength.

Answer 24

EMG is a diagnostic test that measures the electrical activity within muscle fibers in response to nerve stimulation.

Answer 25

A muscle biopsy involves removal of a plug of tissue for examination.

Answer 26

An antispasmodic is administered to suppress smooth muscle contractions of the stomach, intestine, or bladder.

Answer 27

PTTD, also known as fallen arches, occurs when the tendon supporting the foot's arch weakens.

Answer 28

A soft tissue injury is damage to the skin, muscles, ligaments, and tendons, as opposed to the bones or internal organs.

Answer 29

A sprain is an injury to a joint, such as an ankle, knee, or wrist, usually occurring when a ligament is wrenched or torn.

Answer 30

A strain is an injury to the body of the muscle or to the attachment of a tendon, often associated with overuse injuries.

Answer 31

Shin splints are a painful condition caused by the tibialis anterior muscle tearing away from the tibia, often due to repetitive stress.

Answer 32

A hamstring injury can be a strain or tear on any of the three hamstring muscles, characterized by sudden and severe pain in the back of the thigh.

Answer 33

Achilles tendinitis is a painful inflammation of the Achilles tendon caused by excessive stress on that tendon.

Answer 34

ITBS is an overuse injury causing pain, usually just above the knee joint, due to the iliotibial band rubbing against bone.

Answer 35

The spinal cord is surrounded and protected by the bony vertebrae.

Answer 36

Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the tendons that pass through the carpal tunnel become inflamed and swollen, pinching the median nerve.

Answer 37

The carpal tunnel is a narrow, bony passage under the carpal ligament located just below the inner surface of the wrist.

Answer 38

Carpal tunnel release is the surgical enlargement of the carpal tunnel or cutting of the carpal ligament to reduce pressure on the median nerve.

Answer 39

A heel spur is a calcium deposit in the plantar fascia near its attachment to the calcaneus (heel) bone, causing pain often mistaken for plantar fasciitis.

Answer 40

Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation of the plantar fascia on the sole of the foot, causing foot or heel pain when walking or running.

Answer 41

Morton's neuroma is a condition where pain on the ball of the foot is caused by a swollen, inflamed nerve, usually between the third and fourth toes.

Answer 42

A ganglion cyst is a benign, fluid-filled lump that usually occurs on the outer surface of the wrist or hand, often as a result of a past injury.

Answer 43

Epicondylitis is inflammation of the tissues surrounding the elbow.

Answer 44

Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain on the outer side of the forearm.

Answer 45

Medial epicondylitis, also known as golfer's elbow, is characterized by pain on the palm-side of the forearm.

Answer 46

Overuse injuries are minor tissue injuries that have not been given time to heal. They can be caused by spending hours at the computer keyboard or by lengthy athletic training sessions.

Answer 47

Overuse tendinitis is an inflammation of tendons caused by excessive or unusual use of a joint. ## Footnote 'Tendin' means tendon, and '-itis' means inflammation.

Answer 48

Stress fractures are usually overuse injuries that are discussed in Chapter 3.

Answer 49

Trigger finger is the painful and progressive restriction of movement caused by inflammation of a tendon's synovial sheath.

Answer 50

Myofascial pain syndrome is a chronic pain disorder that affects muscles and fascia throughout the body, caused by a muscle being contracted repetitively.

Answer 51

Trigger points are tender areas that most commonly develop where the fascia comes into contact with a muscle.

Answer 52

Referred pain describes pain that originates in one area of the body but is felt in another.

Answer 53

Tendinopathy is the general term for irritation or degeneration of a tendon in any joint. ## Footnote For example, in the rotator cuff.

Answer 54

Impingement syndrome, also known as rotator cuff tendinitis, occurs when inflamed and swollen tendons are caught in the narrow space between the bones within the shoulder joint.

Answer 55

A rotator cuff tear can occur as the irritated tendon weakens or as the result of a fall or injury.

Answer 56

Carpal tunnel syndrome symptoms occur when the tendons that pass through the carpal tunnel into the hand become compressed.

Answer 57

A contracture is a condition where normally elastic connective tissues are replaced with nonelastic fibrous tissues. The most common causes are scarring or lack of use due to immobilization or inactivity.

Answer 58

Intermittent claudication (IC) is pain in the leg muscles that occurs during exercise and is relieved by rest. It is associated with poor circulation and peripheral vascular disease.

Answer 59

A spasm is any sudden, involuntary contraction of one or more muscles.

Answer 60

A tic is a repeated spasm, often involving the eyelids or face, and these movements are difficult or impossible to control.

Answer 61

Myoclonus is the quick, involuntary jerking of a muscle or group of muscles. It may occur normally as a person is falling asleep or as a result of a neurological disorder.

Answer 62

Clonus is a repetitive contraction of the muscles of the knees or ankles associated with neurological conditions.

Answer 63

Singultus, also known as hiccups, is myoclonus of the diaphragm that causes the characteristic hiccup sound with each spasm.

Answer 64

A cramp is a painful localized muscle spasm often named for its cause, such as menstrual cramps or writer's cramp.

Answer 65

Torticollis, also known as wryneck, is a stiff neck due to spasmodic contraction of the neck muscles that pull the head toward the affected side.

Answer 66

Bradykinesia is extreme slowness in movement and is one of the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.

Answer 67

Dyskinesia is the distortion or impairment of voluntary movement resulting in fragmented or jerky motions.

Answer 68

Hyperkinesia, also known as hyperactivity, is abnormally increased muscle function or activity.

Answer 69

Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a chronic autoimmune disease affecting the neuromuscular junction, producing weakness and rapid fatigue of voluntary muscles, especially in the eye, face, and throat.

Answer 70

Muscular dystrophy (MD) refers to a group of more than 30 genetic diseases characterized by progressive weakness and degeneration of the skeletal muscles without affecting the nervous system.

Answer 71

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is the most common form of muscular dystrophy in children, primarily affecting boys with onset between ages 3 and 5.

Answer 72

Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD) is similar to Duchenne muscular dystrophy but is less severe.

Answer 73

Repetitive stress disorders (RSD) are muscular conditions resulting from repeated motions performed in normal work, daily activities, or recreation.

Answer 74

Compartment syndrome involves the compression of nerves and blood vessels due to swelling within the compartment created by fascia separating muscle groups.

Answer 75

Ten/o means tendon.

Answer 76

Synov means synovial membrane.

Answer 77

-itis means inflammation.

Answer 78

Tendinitis is an acute inflammation or irritation of the tendons caused by excessive or unusual use of the joint.

Answer 79

Tendinosis is a chronic condition characterized by pain due to repetitive overuse or an injury that has not healed.

Answer 80

CFS is a disorder of unknown cause that affects many body systems, characterized by profound fatigue not improved by bed rest.

Answer 81

The symptoms of CFS are similar to those of fibromyalgia, and the two diseases may be related.

Answer 82

An adhesion is a band of fibrous tissue that holds structures together abnormally, forming in muscles or internal organs.

Answer 83

Atrophy means weakness or wearing away of body tissues and structures, often caused by pathology or disuse.

Answer 84

Cachexia is a condition of physically wasting away due to the loss of weight and muscle mass in patients with diseases such as advanced cancer or AIDS.

Answer 85

A hernia occurs when tissue protrudes through a weak area in the muscle normally containing it.

Answer 86

Myalgia is tenderness or pain in the muscles.

Answer 87

Polymyositis is a muscle disease characterized by simultaneous inflammation and weakening of voluntary muscles in many parts of the body.

Answer 88

Rhabdomyolysis is a serious syndrome that can result from a direct or indirect muscle injury, leading to the breakdown of muscle fibers.

Answer 89

Sarcopenia is the loss of muscle mass, strength, and function that comes with aging.

Answer 90

Muscle tone is the state of balanced muscle tension that makes normal posture, coordination, and movement possible.

Answer 91

Atonic means lacking normal muscle tone or strength.

Answer 92

Dystonia is a movement disorder characterized by involuntary and sometimes repetitive contraction of certain muscles.

Answer 93

Hypotonia is a condition in which there is diminished tone of the skeletal muscles.

Answer 94

Ataxia is the lack of muscle coordination during voluntary movement.

Answer 95

A contracture is the permanent tightening of fascia, muscles, tendons, ligaments, or skin.

Answer 96

The temporalis muscle moves the lower jaw up and back to close the mouth.

Answer 97

The masseter muscle moves the lower jaw up to close the mouth when chewing.

Answer 98

In males, the pectoralis major makes up the bulk of the chest muscles. In females, it lies under the breast.

Answer 99

The external oblique muscles flex and rotate the vertebral column, flex the torso, and compress the abdomen.

Answer 100

The internal oblique muscles flex the spine, support the abdominal contents, help us breathe, and rotate the spine.

Answer 101

The rectus abdominis helps flex the trunk, assists in breathing, and supports the spine.

Answer 102

The transverse abdominis is located on the side of the abdomen and is engaged when a person laughs or coughs.

Answer 103

The deltoid forms the muscular cap of the shoulder.

Answer 104

The trapezius muscle moves the head and shoulder blade.

Answer 105

The biceps brachii flexes the elbow.

Answer 106

The triceps brachii extends the elbow.

Answer 107

An exercise physiologist develops, implements, and coordinates exercise programs and administers medical tests to promote physical fitness.

Answer 108

A neurologist specializes in treating the causes of paralysis and similar muscular disorders.

Answer 109

An occupational therapist helps enable patients to participate in daily activities, including self-care and social interaction.

Answer 110

A physiatrist specializes in physical medicine and rehabilitation, focusing on restoring function.

Answer 111

A physical therapist provides treatment to prevent disability or restore function through various techniques.

Answer 112

A sports medicine physician specializes in the prevention and treatment of injuries of the bones, joints, and muscles.

Answer 113

The rectus femoris extends the leg at the knee and flexes the thigh at the hip joint.

Answer 114

The quadriceps femoris is made up of four muscles, including the vastus lateralis and vastus medialis.

Answer 115

The hamstring group is involved in knee flexion and hip extension.

Answer 116

The gastrocnemius flexes the knee and bends the foot downward.

Answer 117

Fasciitis is inflammation of a fascia.

Answer 118

Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by fatigue and muscle, joint, or bone pain.

Answer 119

Tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the sheath surrounding a tendon.

Answer 120

The gluteus maximus (GLOO-tee-us MAX-ih-mus) is the largest muscle of the buttock. ## Footnote Maximus means great or large.

Answer 121

The deltoid muscle (DEL-toyd) is named because it is shaped like an inverted triangle, resembling the Greek letter delta.

Answer 122

The hamstring group is named because these are the muscles by which a butcher hangs a slaughtered pig.

Answer 123

The hamstring group consists of three muscles: the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus.

Answer 124

The primary functions of the hamstrings are knee flexion and hip extension.

Answer 125

The biceps brachii (BYE-seps BRAY-kee-eye) is formed from two divisions.

Answer 126

The triceps brachii (TRY-seps BRAY-kee-eye) is formed from three divisions.

Answer 127

The frontalis (fron-TAY-lis) muscle raises and lowers the eyebrows.

Answer 128

A muscle in the neck that helps with head rotation and flexion.

Answer 129

A large muscle in the upper back that helps move the shoulder blades.

Answer 130

A muscle that forms the rounded contour of the shoulder.

Answer 131

A muscle located at the back of the upper arm that extends the elbow.

Answer 132

Muscles that extend the fingers and wrist.

Answer 133

The largest muscle in the buttocks, responsible for hip extension.

Answer 134

A thick band of tissue that runs along the outside of the thigh.

Answer 135

One of the hamstring muscles located at the back of the thigh.

Answer 136

A muscle in the hamstring group located at the back of the thigh.

Answer 137

Another muscle in the hamstring group located at the back of the thigh.

Answer 138

A group of muscles located at the back of the thigh.

Answer 139

A major calf muscle that helps with walking and running.

Answer 140

The tendon connecting the calf muscles to the heel bone.

Answer 141

Means slanted or at an angle. ## Footnote Example: external oblique and internal oblique muscles.

Answer 142

Means in straight alignment with the vertical axis of the body. ## Footnote Example: rectus abdominis and rectus femoris.

Answer 143

A ring-like muscle that tightly constricts the opening of a passageway. ## Footnote Example: anal sphincter closes the anus.

Answer 144

Means in a crosswise direction. ## Footnote Example: transverse abdominis muscle.

Answer 145

A muscle located in the forehead region that raises the eyebrows.

Answer 146

A muscle that helps rotate and flex the head.

Answer 147

A muscle that covers the shoulder and is responsible for arm abduction.

Answer 148

A muscle involved in chewing, located on the side of the head.

Answer 149

A muscle that elevates the angle of the mouth.

Answer 150

A powerful muscle that plays a major role in chewing.

Answer 151

A muscle that lowers the angle of the mouth.

Answer 152

A muscle that extends from the neck to the middle of the back, responsible for moving the shoulder blades.

Answer 153

A thick, fan-shaped muscle situated on the anterior chest wall.

Answer 154

A muscle located in the upper arm that flexes the elbow.

Answer 155

A muscle that runs vertically along the abdomen, commonly known as the 'abs.'

Answer 156

A muscle located on the side of the abdomen that helps with trunk rotation.

Answer 157

Muscles that allow for the flexion (bending) of the wrist.

Answer 158

Muscles that allow for the extension (straightening) of the wrist.

Answer 159

A flat sheet of connective tissue that covers the abdominal muscles.

Answer 160

Muscles that bring the thighs together.

Answer 161

A muscle in the thigh that is part of the quadriceps group.

Answer 162

A muscle located on the inner part of the thigh, part of the quadriceps.

Answer 163

A large muscle located on the outer side of the thigh.

Answer 164

A tendon that connects the quadriceps muscle to the tibia.

Answer 165

A muscle located in the front of the lower leg that helps with dorsiflexion of the foot.

Answer 166

A muscle in the back of the lower leg that is involved in plantar flexion of the foot.

Answer 167

Muscles that are named based on the movement they facilitate, such as flexion or extension.

Answer 168

'Carpi' means wrist or wrist bones.

Answer 169

'Pectoralis' means relating to the chest.

Answer 170

'Lateralis' means toward the side.

Answer 171

'Medialis' means toward the midline.

Answer 172

A rotator muscle turns a body part on its axis.

Answer 173

The rotator cuff is the group of muscles and their tendons that hold the head of the humerus securely in place as it rotates within the shoulder joint.

Answer 174

Supination is the act of rotating the arm or the leg so that the palm of the hand or sole of the foot is turned forward or upward.

Answer 175

Think of carrying a bowl of soup, which sounds like the beginning of the term.

Answer 176

Pronation is the act of rotating the arm or leg so that the palm of the hand or sole of the foot is turned downward or backward.

Answer 177

Dorsiflexion is the movement that bends the foot upward at the ankle.

Answer 178

Plantar flexion is the movement that bends the foot downward at the ankle.

Answer 179

The origin is where the muscle begins and is located nearest the midline of the body. The insertion is where the muscle ends by attaching to a bone or tendon.

Answer 180

The sternocleidomastoid muscle helps bend the neck and rotate the head.

Answer 181

It is named for its two points of origin: stern/o (breastbone) and cleid/o (collar bone).

Answer 182

The mastoid muscle inserts into the mastoid process, which is part of the temporal bone located just behind the ear.

Answer 183

Elevation is the act of raising or lifting a body part. ## Footnote For example, the elevation of the levator anguli oris muscles of the face raises the corners of the mouth into a smile.

Answer 184

A levator is a muscle that raises a body part.

Answer 185

Depression is the act of lowering a body part. ## Footnote For example, the depressor anguli oris lowers the corner of the mouth into a frown.

Answer 186

Abduction moves the arm away from the body.

Answer 187

Adduction moves the arm toward the body.

Answer 188

Rotation is a circular movement around an axis such as the shoulder joint.

Answer 189

Circumduction is the circular movement at the far end of a limb. ## Footnote An example of circumduction is the swinging motion of the far end of the arm.

Answer 190

Flexion means decreasing the angle between two bones by bending a limb at a joint.

Answer 191

A flexor muscle bends a limb at a joint.

Answer 192

Extension means increasing the angle between two bones or the straightening out of a limb.

Answer 193

An extensor muscle straightens a limb at a joint.

Answer 194

Hyperextension is the extreme or overextension of a limb or body part beyond its normal limit. ## Footnote For example, movement of the head far backward or far forward beyond the normal range of motion causes hyperextension of the muscles of the neck.

Answer 195

Muscle innervation is the stimulation of a muscle by an impulse transmitted by a motor nerve.

Answer 196

Motor nerves enable the brain to stimulate a muscle to contract.

Answer 197

When the stimulation stops, the muscle relaxes.

Answer 198

Motor nerves control the body's voluntary muscular contractions.

Answer 199

The muscle is unable to function properly, which can lead to paralysis or inability to contract properly.

Answer 200

Neuromuscular pertains to the relationship between a nerve and muscle.

Answer 201

Antagonistic muscle pairs are muscles that work in opposition to each other.

Answer 202

The opposite muscle of the pair relaxes.

Answer 203

Contraction is the tightening of a muscle, making it shorter and thicker.

Answer 204

Relaxation occurs when a muscle returns to its original form, becoming longer and thinner.

Answer 205

Abduction is the movement of a limb away from the midline of the body.

Answer 206

An abductor is a muscle that moves a body part away from the midline.

Answer 207

Adduction is the movement of a limb toward the midline of the body.

Answer 208

An adductor is a muscle that moves a body part toward the midline.

Answer 209

The three types of muscle tissue are skeletal, smooth, and myocardial.

Answer 210

Skeletal muscles are attached to the bones of the skeleton and make body motions possible. ## Footnote Skeletal muscles are also known as voluntary muscles because we have conscious control over them.

Answer 211

Skeletal muscles have a striped appearance due to dark and light bands in the muscle fibers. ## Footnote Striated means striped.

Answer 212

Smooth muscles are located in the walls of internal organs such as the digestive tract, blood vessels, and ducts leading from glands.

Answer 213

Smooth muscles move and control the flow of fluids through internal structures. ## Footnote Smooth muscles are also known as involuntary muscles.

Answer 214

Smooth muscles are under the control of the autonomic nervous system and are not under voluntary control.

Answer 215

Visceral muscles are another name for smooth muscles, as they are found in hollow structures such as those of the digestive and urinary systems.

Answer 216

Myocardial muscle, also known as myocardium or cardiac muscle, forms the muscular walls of the heart.

Answer 217

Myocardial muscle is like striated skeletal muscle in appearance but is similar to smooth muscle in that its action is involuntary.

Answer 218

The constant contraction and relaxation of the myocardial muscle causes the heartbeat.

Answer 219

A combination of specialized muscle types, muscle innervation, and the organization of muscles into antagonistic muscle pairs enables a wide range of muscle movements.

Answer 220

Muscles hold the body erect, make movement possible, generate nearly 85% of body heat, move food through the digestive system, aid blood flow, and move fluids through ducts and tubes.

Answer 221

The muscular system includes muscle fibers, fascia, tendons, and three types of muscle.

Answer 222

Fascia is a band of connective tissue that envelops, separates, or binds together muscles or groups of muscles.

Answer 223

A tendon is a narrow band of nonelastic, dense, fibrous connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone.

Answer 224

Tendons attach muscle to bone, while ligaments connect one bone to another bone.

Answer 225

Myofascial means pertaining to muscle tissue and fascia.

Answer 226

Muscle fibers are the long, slender cells that make up muscles, grouped together by connective tissue.

Answer 227

An aponeurosis is a sheet-like fibrous connective tissue that connects muscles together or to a bone.

Answer 228

Muscles are named based on various criteria, including their location, function, shape, and size.

Answer 229

Muscles make up about 40-45% of the body's weight.

Answer 230

Muscles hold the body erect, make movement possible, generate nearly 85% of body heat, move food through the digestive system, aid blood flow, and move fluids through ducts and tubes.

Answer 231

The muscular system includes muscle fibers, fascia, tendons, and three types of muscle.

Answer 232

Fascia is a band of connective tissue that envelops, separates, or binds together muscles or groups of muscles.

Answer 233

A tendon is a narrow band of nonelastic, dense, fibrous connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone.

Answer 234

Tendons attach muscle to bone, while ligaments connect one bone to another bone.

Answer 235

Myofascial means pertaining to muscle tissue and fascia.

Answer 236

Muscle fibers are the long, slender cells that make up muscles, grouped together by connective tissue.

Answer 237

An aponeurosis is a sheet-like fibrous connective tissue that connects muscles together or to a bone.

Answer 238

Muscles are named based on various criteria, including their location, function, shape, and size.

Answer 239

Muscles make up about 40-45% of the body's weight.

Answer 240

'bi-' means twice, double, or two.

Answer 241

'clon/o' refers to violent action.

Answer 242

'dys-' indicates bad, difficult, or painful.

Answer 243

'fasci/o' means fascia or fibrous band.

Answer 244

'fibr/o' refers to fibrous tissue or fiber.

Answer 245

'-ia' signifies an abnormal condition, disease, or plural of '-ium'.

Answer 246

'-ic' pertains to.

Answer 247

'kines/o' and 'kinesi/o' refer to movement.

Answer 248

'-lysis' means to set free or break down.

Answer 249

'my/o' stands for muscle.

Answer 250

'-plegia' indicates paralysis or stroke.

Answer 251

'tax/o' refers to coordination or order.

Answer 252

'ten/o', 'tend/o', and 'tendin/o' mean tendon, stretch out, extend, or strain.

Answer 253

'ton/o' signifies tone, stretching, or tension.

Answer 254

'tri-' means three.

Answer 255

'Abduction' is the movement away from the midline of the body.

Answer 256

'Adduction' is the movement toward the midline of the body.

Answer 257

'Adhesion' is the abnormal binding of tissues.

Answer 258

'Ataxia' refers to lack of muscle coordination.

Answer 259

'Atonic' means lacking normal muscle tone.

Answer 260

'Atrophy' is the wasting away or decrease in size of muscle.

Answer 261

'Bradykinesia' refers to slow movement.

Answer 262

'Carpal tunnel syndrome' is a condition caused by compression of the median nerve in the wrist.

Answer 263

'Chronic fatigue syndrome' refers to a complex disorder characterized by extreme fatigue.

Answer 264

'Circumduction' is the circular movement of a limb.

Answer 265

'Compartment syndrome' refers to increased pressure within a muscle compartment.

Answer 266

'Contracture' is the permanent tightening of muscles and tendons.

Answer 267

'Dorsiflexion' refers to the movement of the foot upwards.

Answer 268

'Dyskinesia' refers to abnormal or impaired movement.

Answer 269

'Dystonia' refers to muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements.

Answer 270

'Electromyography' is a diagnostic procedure to assess the health of muscles and the nerve cells that control them.

Answer 271

'Epicondylitis' refers to inflammation of the tendons around the elbow.

Answer 272

'Ergonomics' is the study of people's efficiency in their working environment.

Answer 273

'Exercise physiologist' refers to a professional who studies the body’s responses to physical activity.

Answer 274

'Fasciitis' refers to inflammation of the fascia.

Answer 275

'Fibromyalgia' is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain.

Answer 276

'Ganglion cyst' is a noncancerous lump that often develops along the tendons or joints of wrists or hands.

Answer 277

'Heel spur' refers to a bony growth on the underside of the heel bone.

Answer 278

'Hemiparesis' refers to weakness on one side of the body.

Answer 279

'Hemiplegia' refers to paralysis on one side of the body.

Answer 280

'Hernia' is a condition in which an organ pushes through an opening in the muscle or tissue that holds it in place.

Answer 281

'Hyperkinesia' refers to excessive movement.

Answer 282

'Hypotonia' refers to decreased muscle tone.

Answer 283

'Impingement syndrome' refers to the condition where tendons of the shoulder are intermittently trapped or compressed.

Answer 284

'Innervation' refers to the supply of nerves to a specific body part.

Answer 285

'Insertion' refers to the point where a muscle attaches to a bone.

Answer 286

'Intermittent claudication' refers to pain in the legs or buttocks during exercise due to inadequate blood flow.

Answer 287

'Muscular dystrophy' refers to a group of diseases that cause progressive weakness and loss of muscle mass.

Answer 288

'Myasthenia gravis' is an autoimmune disease that causes weakness in the skeletal muscles.

Answer 289

'Myoclonus' refers to sudden, involuntary muscle jerks.

Answer 290

'Myofascial release' is a manual therapy technique used to relieve tension in the fascia.

Answer 291

'Myoparesis' refers to weakness of muscle.

Answer 292

'Myorrhaphy' refers to the surgical suturing of a muscle.

Answer 293

'Neuromuscular' refers to the relationship between nerves and muscles.

Answer 294

'Oblique' refers to muscles that are neither parallel nor perpendicular to the body's midline.

Answer 295

'Origin' refers to the fixed attachment point of a muscle.

Answer 296

'Paralysis' refers to the loss of muscle function in part of your body.

Answer 297

'Paraplegia' refers to paralysis of the lower half of the body.

Answer 298

'Physiatrist' refers to a medical doctor specializing in physical medicine and rehabilitation.

Answer 299

'Plantar fasciitis' refers to inflammation of the plantar fascia, causing heel pain.

Answer 300

'Polymyositis' refers to a disease that causes inflammation and weakness in the muscles.

Answer 301

'Pronation' refers to the rotation of the forearm or foot inward.

Answer 302

'Quadriplegia' refers to paralysis of all four limbs.

Answer 303

'Sarcopenia' refers to the loss of muscle mass and strength associated with aging.

Answer 304

'Shin splint' refers to pain along the shin bone due to overuse.

Answer 305

'Singultus' refers to hiccups.

Answer 306

'Sphincter' refers to a ring of muscle that constricts a passage or closes a natural opening.

Answer 307

'Sprain' refers to the stretching or tearing of ligaments.

Answer 308

'Tendinopathy' refers to a condition involving pain and dysfunction of a tendon.

Answer 309

'Tenodesis' refers to the surgical fixation of a tendon to a bone.

Answer 310

'Tenolysis' refers to the surgical release of a tendon.

Answer 311

'Tenosynovitis' refers to inflammation of the sheath surrounding a tendon.

Answer 312

'Tenotomy' refers to the surgical cutting of a tendon.

Answer 313

'Torticollis' refers to a condition in which the neck muscles contract, causing the head to twist.

Answer 314

'Transverse' refers to a plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts.

Answer 315

Muscles, fascia, and tendons.

Answer 316

muscul/o, my/o, myos/o

Answer 317

ten/o, tend/o, tendin/o

Answer 318

Make body movement possible, hold body erect, move body fluids, and produce body heat.

Answer 319

Cover, support, and separate muscles.

Answer 320

Attach muscles to bones.

Answer 321

Internal fixation, also known as open reduction internal fixation (ORIF), is a fracture treatment in which a plate or pins are placed directly into the bone to hold the broken pieces in place.

Answer 322

No, this form of fixation is not usually removed after the fracture has healed.

Answer 323

BDT stands for bone density testing.

Answer 324

OA stands for osteoarthritis.

Answer 325

OP stands for osteoporosis.

Answer 326

PKR stands for partial knee replacement.

Answer 327

PMR stands for polymyalgia rheumatica.

Answer 328

RA stands for rheumatoid arthritis.

Answer 329

THR stands for total hip replacement.

Answer 330

TKR stands for total knee replacement.

Answer 331

Always be cautious when using abbreviations to avoid errors or confusion.

Answer 332

Revision surgery is the replacement of a worn or failed implant.

Answer 333

Amputation is the surgical or accidental removal of a limb.

Answer 334

Phantom limb pain is a post amputation phenomenon in which there is a sensation of pain from a body part that is no longer there.

Answer 335

A percutaneous diskectomy is performed to treat a herniated intervertebral disk that does not respond to physical therapy or other treatments. ## Footnote In this procedure, a thin tube is inserted through the skin of the back to remove the fragment of the disk compressing the nerve.

Answer 336

Percutaneous means performed through the skin.

Answer 337

Percutaneous vertebroplasty is performed to treat osteoporosis-related compression fractures. ## Footnote In this minimally invasive procedure, bone cement is injected to stabilize compression fractures within the spinal column.

Answer 338

A laminectomy is the surgical removal of the lamina, or posterior portion, of a vertebra. ## Footnote This procedure, also known as decompression surgery, relieves pressure on the spinal cord by enlarging the spinal canal.

Answer 339

Spinal fusion is a technique to immobilize part of the spine by joining together (fusing) two or more vertebrae.

Answer 340

A decompressive craniectomy is the surgical removal of a portion of the skull to relieve increased intracranial pressure due to swelling from a traumatic brain injury.

Answer 341

A craniotomy is a surgical incision or opening into the skull to gain access to the brain. ## Footnote This procedure is performed to remove a tumor, relieve intracranial pressure, or obtain access for other surgical procedures.

Answer 342

Osteotomy is the surgical cutting and reshaping of a bone. ## Footnote This may include removing part or all of a bone, or cutting into or through a bone.

Answer 343

Closed reduction, also known as manipulation, is the attempted non-surgical realignment of the bone involved in a fracture or joint dislocation.

Answer 344

Open reduction is a surgical procedure required to realign the bone parts when a closed reduction is not practical.

Answer 345

Immobilization, also known as stabilization, is the act of holding, suturing, or fastening the bone in a fixed position.

Answer 346

Traction is a pulling force exerted on a limb in a distal direction to return the bone or joint to normal alignment.

Answer 347

External fixation is a fracture treatment procedure in which pins are placed through the soft tissues and bone to hold the pieces of bone firmly in place during healing.

Answer 348

A procedure in which only part of the knee is replaced, which can be the medial, lateral, or front patella. The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments are preserved.

Answer 349

A surgery performed to restore a damaged hip to full function by fitting a plastic liner with a metal shell into the acetabulum and replacing the head of the femur with a metal or ceramic ball attached to a metal shaft.

Answer 350

An alternative to removing the head of the femur, where a metal cap is placed over the head of the femur to allow smooth movement over a metal lining in the acetabulum. This technique is often used in younger, more active patients.

Answer 351

Repairs injuries to the shoulder joint by replacing the top of the humerus with a metal ball and the damaged portion of the socket with a plastic prosthesis.

Answer 352

It is sometimes used in the short term to maintain bone density in women at high risk for bone loss after menopause.

Answer 353

A BMT is a stem cell transplant used to treat certain types of cancers, such as leukemia and lymphomas.

Answer 354

Initially, both the cancer cells and the patient's bone marrow are destroyed with high-intensity radiation and chemotherapy.

Answer 355

Healthy bone marrow stem cells are infused into the recipient's blood, where they migrate to the spongy bone and multiply to form cancer-free red bone marrow.

Answer 356

An allogenic bone marrow transplant uses healthy bone marrow cells from a compatible donor, often a sibling.

Answer 357

Unless there is a perfect match, there is a danger that the recipient's body will reject the transplant.

Answer 358

An autologous bone marrow transplant involves the patient receiving his or her own bone marrow cells, which have been harvested, cleansed, treated, and stored.

Answer 359

It utilizes blood-forming stem cells from the bloodstream of the patient or donor, which are removed, stored, and then the blood is returned to the donor.

Answer 360

An orthotic is a mechanical appliance designed to support, control, correct, or compensate for impaired limb function.

Answer 361

A prosthesis is a substitute for a diseased or missing body part, such as an amputated leg.

Answer 362

ACL reconstruction is a surgery to replace a torn anterior cruciate ligament in the knee.

Answer 363

Arthrodesis is the surgical fusion of two bones to stiffen a joint, performed to treat severe arthritis or a damaged joint.

Answer 364

Arthroscopic surgery is a minimally invasive procedure for the treatment of the interior of a joint.

Answer 365

Bone grafting is a surgical procedure using transplanted bone to repair and rebuild bones damaged by injury or disease.

Answer 366

A synovectomy is the surgical removal of a synovial membrane from a joint, usually the knee.

Answer 367

Arthroplasty means the surgical repair of a damaged joint, often referring to the resurfacing of bones or placement of an artificial joint.

Answer 368

A total knee replacement means that all parts of the knee are replaced, also known as total knee arthroplasty.

Answer 369

An oblique fracture occurs at an angle across the bone.

Answer 370

A pathologic fracture occurs when a bone breaks under normal strain due to weakened bones from conditions like osteoporosis or cancer.

Answer 371

A spiral fracture is a complete fracture in which the bone has been twisted apart, often due to severe twisting motions.

Answer 372

A stress fracture is a small crack in the bone that develops from chronic, excessive impact.

Answer 373

A transverse fracture occurs straight across, perpendicular to the shaft of the bone.

Answer 374

A bone marrow biopsy is a diagnostic test necessary after abnormal types or numbers of blood cells are found in a complete blood count.

Answer 375

Bone marrow aspiration is the use of a syringe to withdraw tissue from the red bone marrow for diagnostic purposes or medical procedures.

Answer 376

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is used to image soft tissue structures, but is not effective for hard tissues like bone.

Answer 377

A fat embolus can form when a long bone is fractured, releasing fat cells into the blood, which can block blood vessels.

Answer 378

Crepitation, also known as crepitus, is the grating sound heard when the ends of a broken bone move together.

Answer 379

A callus forms as a bulging deposit around the area of a break and eventually becomes bone.

Answer 380

Bone density testing (BDT) is used to determine losses or changes in bone density and diagnose conditions like osteoporosis.

Answer 381

Ultrasonic bone density testing is a screening test for osteoporosis using sound waves to measure the calcaneus (heel) bone.

Answer 382

Dual x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) is a low-exposure radiographic measurement of the spine and hips to measure bone density.

Answer 383

X-ray imaging uses electromagnetic radiation to create x-rays that visualize bone fractures and abnormalities.

Answer 384

Arthroscopy is the visual examination of the internal structure of a joint using an arthroscope.

Answer 385

Bisphosphonates are drugs used to slow the loss of bone density due to osteoporosis, reducing the risk of broken bones.

Answer 386

An osteoporotic hip fracture is usually caused by weakening of the bones due to osteoporosis and can occur either spontaneously or as the result of a fall. ## Footnote Complications can result in loss of function, mobility, independence, or death.

Answer 387

'Osteoporotic' means pertaining to or caused by the porous condition of bones.

Answer 388

A closed fracture, also known as a simple fracture or a complete fracture, is one in which the bone is broken, but there is no open wound in the skin.

Answer 389

An open fracture, also known as a compound fracture, is one in which the bone is broken and there is an open wound in the skin.

Answer 390

In a comminuted fracture, the bone is splintered or crushed. Comminuted means crushed into small pieces.

Answer 391

An incomplete fracture is one in which the bone does not break into two separate pieces and occurs primarily in children.

Answer 392

In a greenstick fracture, one side of the bone is broken and the other side is only bent.

Answer 393

A buckle fracture, also called a torus fracture, is when the affected side of the bone is compressed and buckles but does not break.

Answer 394

Paget's disease is a chronic bone disease characterized by abnormal breakdown of bone followed by abnormal bone formation, often resulting in enlarged, misshapen, and weak bones.

Answer 395

Periostitis is an inflammation of the periosteum, often associated with shin splints.

Answer 396

Radiculopathy is a condition caused by the compression of a nerve in the spine, leading to pain, numbness, or weakness along the nerve's path.

Answer 397

Rickets is a deficiency disease in children characterized by defective bone growth due to a lack of vitamin D necessary for maintaining calcium and phosphorus levels in bones.

Answer 398

Spinal stenosis is a narrowing of the spaces within the spine, potentially putting pressure on the nerves and spinal cord, causing pain.

Answer 399

Short stature, formerly known as dwarfism, results from the failure of limb bones to grow to an appropriate length compared to the head and trunk, defined as an average adult height of no more than 4 feet 10 inches.

Answer 400

Clubfoot, or talipes, describes any congenital deformity of the foot involving the talus (ankle bones).

Answer 401

Primary bone cancer is a rare malignant tumor that originates in a bone.

Answer 402

Secondary bone cancer occurs when cancer cells metastasize to the bones from other organs such as the breasts, prostate, or lungs.

Answer 403

Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer occurring in blood-making plasma cells found in red bone marrow, weakening bones and impacting other body systems.

Answer 404

An osteochondroma is a benign bony projection covered with cartilage, also known as an exostosis.

Answer 405

Osteoporosis is a marked loss of bone density and an increase in bone porosity, frequently associated with aging, especially in women over 50.

Answer 406

Osteopenia is thinner-than-average bone density, indicating a greater-than-average chance of developing osteoporosis.

Answer 407

A compression fracture occurs when the bone is pressed together, often due to the collapse of weakened vertebrae, leading to pain and loss of height.

Answer 408

A Colles fracture, also known as a broken wrist, occurs at the lower end of the radius when a person tries to stop a fall by landing on their hands.

Answer 409

Lumbago, also known as low back pain (LBP), is the general term for pain in the lumbar region of the spine. ## Footnote 'Lumb' means lumbar, and '-ago' means diseased condition.

Answer 410

Spondylolisthesis is the forward slipping movement of the body of one of the lower lumbar vertebrae on the vertebra or sacrum below it. ## Footnote 'Spondyl/o' means vertebrae, and '-listhesis' means slipping.

Answer 411

Spina bifida is a congenital defect that occurs during early pregnancy when the spinal canal fails to close completely around the spinal cord. ## Footnote 'Spina' means pertaining to the spine. 'Bifida' means split.

Answer 412

Kyphosis is an abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine as viewed from the side. ## Footnote 'Kyph' means hump, and '-osis' means abnormal condition or disease.

Answer 413

Lordosis is an abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine. ## Footnote 'Lord' means bent backward, and '-osis' means abnormal condition or disease.

Answer 414

Scoliosis is an abnormal lateral (sideways) curvature of the spine. ## Footnote 'Scoli' means curved, and '-osis' means abnormal condition or disease.

Answer 415

Avascular necrosis, also known as osteonecrosis, is an area of bone tissue death caused by insufficient blood flow. ## Footnote It most commonly occurs in patients between ages 30 and 50.

Answer 416

Osteitis is an inflammation of a bone. ## Footnote 'Oste' means bone, and '-itis' means inflammation.

Answer 417

Osteomalacia, also known as adult rickets, is abnormal softening of bones in adults. ## Footnote This condition is most often caused by a vitamin D deficiency.

Answer 418

Osteomyelitis is an inflammation of the bone marrow and adjacent bone. ## Footnote The bacterial infection often originates in another part of the body and spreads to the bone via the bloodstream.

Answer 419

Gout, also known as gouty arthritis, is a type of inflammatory arthritis characterized by deposits of urate crystals in the joints, often the big toe. Joints affected by gout are typically hot, red, and excruciatingly sensitive. High levels of uric acid in the blood can lead to the formation of urate crystals.

Answer 420

Pseudogout is a form of arthritis that most commonly affects the knees or wrists, caused by a buildup of calcium pyrophosphate crystals.

Answer 421

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disorder in which the joints and some organs are attacked, leading to inflammation and thickening of the synovial membranes, resulting in swollen, painful, and immobile joints.

Answer 422

Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a type of arthritis that primarily causes inflammation of the joints between the vertebrae, leading to progressive stiffening and potential fusion of the vertebrae, limiting mobility and lung capacity.

Answer 423

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is an autoimmune disorder affecting children ages 16 years or younger, with symptoms including stiffness, pain, joint swelling, skin rash, fever, slowed growth, and fatigue. Many children with JIA outgrow it.

Answer 424

Psoriatic arthritis (PsA) is an inflammatory form of arthritis developed by about 20% of all people with the autoimmune skin disease psoriasis.

Answer 425

A herniated disk, also known as a slipped or ruptured disk, is the breaking apart of an intervertebral disk resulting in a bulge that can put pressure on spinal nerve roots.

Answer 426

Bursitis is an inflammation of a bursa. ## Footnote (burs means bursa, and -itis means inflammation)

Answer 427

Chondromalacia is the abnormal softening of cartilage. ## Footnote (chondr/o means cartilage, and -malacia means abnormal softening)

Answer 428

Costochondritis is an inflammation of the cartilage that connects a rib to the sternum. ## Footnote (cost/o means rib, chondr means cartilage, and -itis means inflammation)

Answer 429

Hallux valgus, also known as a bunion, is an abnormal enlargement of the joint at the base of the great toe. ## Footnote (hallux is Latin for big toe, and valgus means bent)

Answer 430

Hemarthrosis is blood within a joint. ## Footnote (hem means blood, arthr means joint, and -osis means abnormal condition or disease)

Answer 431

Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is an inflammatory disorder of the muscles and joints characterized by pain and stiffness in the neck, shoulders, upper arms, and hips and thighs. ## Footnote (poly- means many, my means muscle, and -algia means pain)

Answer 432

A sprain occurs when a ligament that connects bones to a joint is wrenched or torn.

Answer 433

Synovitis is inflammation of the synovial membrane that results in swelling and pain of the affected joint. ## Footnote (synov means synovial membrane, and -itis means inflammation)

Answer 434

Dislocation, also known as luxation, is the total displacement of a bone from its joint.

Answer 435

Subluxation is the partial displacement of a bone from its joint.

Answer 436

Arthritis is an inflammatory condition of one or more joints. ## Footnote (arthr means joint, and -itis means inflammation)

Answer 437

Osteoarthritis (OA), also known as wear-and-tear arthritis, is most commonly associated with aging. ## Footnote (oste/o means bone, arthr means joint, and -itis means inflammation)

Answer 438

Osteoarthritis is characterized by the wearing away of the articular cartilage within the joints and hypertrophy of bone with the formation of osteophytes.

Answer 439

Spondylosis is also known as spinal osteoarthritis and can cause the loss of normal spinal structure and function. ## Footnote (spondyl means vertebrae, and -osis means abnormal condition or disease)

Answer 440

The fibula is one of the two bones in the lower leg, alongside the tibia.

Answer 441

The bones of the foot include the talus, calcaneus, metatarsals, and phalanges.

Answer 442

The types of phalanges are distal phalanx, middle phalanx, and proximal phalanx.

Answer 443

-osis means abnormal condition or disease.

Answer 444

Mobility means being capable of movement.

Answer 445

Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is painful ankylosis of the shoulder caused by adhesions forming in the synovial capsule surrounding the shoulder.

Answer 446

Arthrosclerosis is stiffness of the joints, especially in the elderly.

Answer 447

A Baker's cyst, also known as a popliteal cyst, is a fluid-filled sac behind the knee.

Answer 448

The femurs are the largest bones in the body, also known as thigh bones.

Answer 449

Femoral means pertaining to the femur.

Answer 450

The head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum (hip socket).

Answer 451

The femoral neck is the narrow area just below the head of the femur.

Answer 452

The patella, also known as the kneecap, is the bony anterior portion of the knee.

Answer 453

Popliteal describes the posterior space behind the knee where ligaments, vessels, and muscles are located.

Answer 454

The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments enable knee movements and are shaped like a cross.

Answer 455

A tear in the anterior cruciate ligament is often referred to as an ACL injury.

Answer 456

The lower leg is made up of the tibia and the fibula.

Answer 457

The tibia, also known as the shinbone, is the larger anterior weight-bearing bone of the lower leg.

Answer 458

The fibula is the smaller of the two bones of the lower leg.

Answer 459

The ankles are the joints that connect the lower leg and foot.

Answer 460

Each ankle is made up of seven short tarsal bones.

Answer 461

The malleolus is a rounded bony projection on the tibia and fibula on the sides of each ankle joint.

Answer 462

The talus is the ankle bone that articulates with the tibia and fibula.

Answer 463

The calcaneus, also known as the heel bone, is the largest of the tarsal bones.

Answer 464

The five metatarsals form that part of the foot to which the toes are attached.

Answer 465

The phalanges are the bones of the toes; the great toe has two phalanges, while each of the other toes has three.

Answer 466

A chiropractor specializes in the manipulative treatment of disorders originating from misalignment of the spine.

Answer 467

An orthopedic surgeon specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders involving the bones, joints, and muscles.

Answer 468

An osteopath uses traditional forms of medical treatment in addition to specializing in treating health problems by spinal manipulation.

Answer 469

A podiatrist specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the foot.

Answer 470

A rheumatologist specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of arthritis and disorders characterized by inflammation in the joints and connective tissues.

Answer 471

Ankylosis is the loss or absence of mobility in a joint due to disease, injury, or a surgical procedure.

Answer 472

The pelvis, also known as the bony pelvis, protects internal organs and supports the lower extremities.

Answer 473

The pelvic girdle consists of the ilium, ischium, and pubis.

Answer 474

The ilium is the broad, blade-shaped bone that forms the back and sides of the pubic bone.

Answer 475

The sacroiliac is the slightly movable articulation between the sacrum and posterior portion of the ilium.

Answer 476

The ischium forms the lower posterior portion of the pubic bone and bears the weight of the body when sitting.

Answer 477

The pubis forms the anterior portion of the pubic bone, located just below the urinary bladder.

Answer 478

At birth, the ilium, ischium, and pubis are three separate bones that fuse to form the left and right pubic bones.

Answer 479

The pubic symphysis is the cartilaginous joint that unites the left and right pubic bones.

Answer 480

The acetabulum, also known as the hip socket, is the large circular cavity in each side of the pelvis that articulates with the head of the femur to form the hip joint.

Answer 481

The first cervical vertebra is known as C1, and the second as C2.

Answer 482

The cervical region is curved anteriorly.

Answer 483

The thoracic region is curved posteriorly.

Answer 484

The lumbar vertebrae are known as L1 through L5.

Answer 485

The lumbar region is curved anteriorly.

Answer 486

The sacral and coccygeal regions are curved posteriorly.

Answer 487

The lumbar vertebrae are the largest and strongest of the vertebrae, bearing most of the body's weight.

Answer 488

The sacrum is a slightly curved, triangular-shaped bone at the base of the spine, formed from five separate bones that fuse together.

Answer 489

The coccyx, or tailbone, is made up of four small vertebrae that are entirely or partially fused together.

Answer 490

Lumbar refers to the part of the back and sides between the ribs and the pelvis.

Answer 491

The spinal column is also known as the vertebral column.

Answer 492

The spinal column protects the spinal cord.

Answer 493

The spinal column consists of 26 vertebrae.

Answer 494

Each bony unit is known as a vertebra.

Answer 495

The anterior portion is known as the body of the vertebra.

Answer 496

The posterior portion is known as the lamina.

Answer 497

They serve as attachments for muscles and tendons.

Answer 498

The vertebral foramen is the opening in the middle of the vertebra that allows the spinal cord to pass through.

Answer 499

Intervertebral disks are made of cartilage and pads of tissue.

Answer 500

They separate and cushion the vertebrae from each other and allow for movement of the spinal column.

Answer 501

The inner core is called the nucleus pulposus.

Answer 502

The cervical vertebrae are the first set of seven vertebrae that form the neck.

Answer 503

The thoracic vertebrae are the second set of 12 vertebrae, each with a pair of ribs attached.

Answer 504

Cervical vertebrae are known as C1 through C7.

Answer 505

Thoracic vertebrae are known as T1 through T12.

Answer 506

Thoracic means pertaining to the thoracic cavity.

Answer 507

The humerus (HEW-mer-us) is the bone of the upper arm (plural, humeri).

Answer 508

The radius (RAY-dee-us) is the smaller and shorter bone in the forearm. It runs up the thumb side of the forearm (plural, radii).

Answer 509

The ulna (ULL-nah) is the larger and longer bone of the forearm (plural, ulnae).

Answer 510

The proximal end of the ulna articulates with the distal end of the humerus to form the elbow joint.

Answer 511

The olecranon (oh-LEK-rah-non), commonly known as the funny bone, is the large, proximal tip of the ulna.

Answer 512

The olecranon forms the point of the elbow and exposes a nerve that tingles when struck.

Answer 513

The eight carpals (KAR-palz) are the bones that form the wrist (singular, carpal).

Answer 514

The carpals form a narrow bony passage known as the carpal tunnel, through which the median nerve and the tendons of the fingers pass to reach the hand.

Answer 515

The metacarpals (met-ah-KAR-palz) are the five bones that form the palms of the hand.

Answer 516

The phalanges (fah-LAN-jeez) are the 14 bones of the fingers (singular, phalanx).

Answer 517

Each of the four fingers has three bones: the distal (outermost), middle, and proximal (nearest the hand) phalanges.

Answer 518

The thumb has two bones: the distal and proximal phalanges.

Answer 519

The thoracic cavity, also known as the rib cage, is the bony structure that protects the heart and lungs.

Answer 520

The thoracic cavity consists of the ribs, sternum, and upper portion of the spinal column extending from the neck to the diaphragm.

Answer 521

There are 12 pairs of ribs, also known as costals.

Answer 522

The first seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs, and they attach anteriorly to the sternum.

Answer 523

The next three pairs of ribs are called false ribs, and they attach anteriorly to cartilage that connects them to the sternum.

Answer 524

The last two pairs of ribs are called floating ribs, because they are only attached posteriorly to the vertebrae but are not attached anteriorly.

Answer 525

The sternum, also known as the breast bone, is a flat, dagger-shaped bone located in the middle of the chest.

Answer 526

The sternum is divided into three parts: the manubrium, the body (gladiolus), and the xiphoid process.

Answer 527

The manubrium is the bony structure that forms the upper portion of the sternum.

Answer 528

The body of the sternum, also known as the gladiolus, is the bony structure that forms the middle portion of the sternum.

Answer 529

The xiphoid process is the structure made of cartilage that forms the lower portion of the sternum.

Answer 530

The shoulders form the pectoral girdle, which supports the arms and hands.

Answer 531

The clavicle, also known as the collarbone, is a slender bone that connects the manubrium of the sternum to the scapula.

Answer 532

The scapula, also known as the shoulder blade, is a bone that forms part of the shoulder.

Answer 533

The acromion is an extension of the scapula that forms the high point of the shoulder.

Answer 534

Frontal bone, Parietal bone, Sphenoid bone, Temporal bone, Ethmoid bone

Answer 535

The upper part of the bridge of the nose.

Answer 536

Cheekbones. They articulate with the frontal bone that makes up the forehead.

Answer 537

Most of the upper jaw (singular, maxilla). They are also known as the maxillae.

Answer 538

The anterior part of the hard palate of the mouth and the floor of the nose.

Answer 539

Part of the orbit (socket of the eye) at the inner angle.

Answer 540

Thin, scroll-like bones that form part of the interior of the nose.

Answer 541

The base for the nasal septum, which divides the two nasal cavities.

Answer 542

The jawbone, and it is the only movable bone of the skull.

Answer 543

At the temporo-mandibular joint (TMJ).

Answer 544

The frontal bone is the anterior portion of the cranium that forms the forehead. This bone houses the frontal sinuses and forms the roof of the ethmoid sinuses, the nose, and part of the socket that protects the eyeball.

Answer 545

The parietal bones are two of the largest bones of the skull. Together they form most of the roof and upper sides of the cranium.

Answer 546

The occipital bone forms the back part of the skull and the base of the cranium.

Answer 547

The two temporal bones form the sides and base of the skull.

Answer 548

The external auditory meatus is the opening of the external auditory canal of the outer ear, located within the temporal bone on each side of the skull.

Answer 549

The sphenoid bone is an irregular, wedge-shaped bone at the base of the skull that makes contact with all of the other cranial bones and helps form the base of the cranium, the sides of the skull, and the floors and sides of the eye sockets.

Answer 550

The ethmoid bone is a light, spongy bone located at the roof and sides of the nose. It separates the nasal cavity from the brain and forms a portion of each orbit.

Answer 551

The auditory ossicles are the three tiny bones located in each middle ear, known as the malleus, incus, and stapes.

Answer 552

The face is made up of 14 bones, some of which contain air-filled cavities known as sinuses that help lighten the weight of the skull.

Answer 553

The cranium is the portion of the skull that encloses and protects the brain.

Answer 554

The cranium is made up of eight bones.

Answer 555

The cranial bones are joined by jagged fibrous joints referred to as sutures.

Answer 556

Frontal, Temporal, Zygomatic, Maxilla, Sternum, Thorax, Parietal, Occipital, Cervical vertebrae, Clavicle, Scapula, Vertebral column, Ribs, Ilium, Sacrum, Coccyx, Carpals, Metacarpals, Phalanges, Femur, Patella, Tibia, Fibula, Tarsals, Metatarsals, Phalanges, Calcaneus.

Answer 557

Ligaments are bands of fibrous tissue that form joints by connecting one bone to another bone or by joining a bone to cartilage.

Answer 558

A bursa is a fibrous sac that acts as a cushion to ease movement in areas that are subject to friction.

Answer 559

The typical adult human skeleton consists of approximately 206 bones.

Answer 560

The skeleton is divided into the axial and appendicular skeletal systems.

Answer 561

The axial skeleton protects the major organs of the nervous, respiratory, and circulatory systems.

Answer 562

The axial skeleton consists of 80 bones.

Answer 563

The five parts are (1) the bones of the skull; (2) the ossicles of the middle ear; (3) the hyoid bone; (4) the rib cage; and (5) the vertebral column.

Answer 564

The appendicular skeleton makes body movement possible and protects the organs of digestion, excretion, and reproduction.

Answer 565

The appendicular skeleton consists of 126 bones.

Answer 566

The two groups are (1) the upper extremities and (2) the lower extremities.

Answer 567

An appendage is anything that is attached to a major part of the body.

Answer 568

The skull consists of 8 bones that form the cranium, 14 bones that form the face, and 6 bones in the middle ear.

Answer 569

Synovial joints are created where two bones articulate to permit a variety of motions.

Answer 570

The types of synovial joints include ball-and-socket joints and hinge joints.

Answer 571

A ball-and-socket joint allows a wide range of movement in many directions, such as the hips and shoulders.

Answer 572

A hinge joint allows movement primarily in one direction or plane, such as the knees and elbows.

Answer 573

Cartilaginous joints allow only slight movement and consist of bones connected entirely by cartilage.

Answer 574

Cartilaginous joints can be found where the ribs connect to the sternum and in the pubic symphysis.

Answer 575

Fontanelles, or soft spots, are flexible areas on a newborn's skull that facilitate passage through the birth canal and allow for skull growth.

Answer 576

The synovial capsule is the outermost layer of strong fibrous tissue that surrounds the joint.

Answer 577

The synovial membrane lines the capsule and secretes synovial fluid.

Answer 578

Synovial fluid acts as a lubricant to enable smooth movement of the joint.

Answer 579

Synovial joints are created where two bones articulate to permit a variety of motions.

Answer 580

The types of synovial joints include ball-and-socket joints and hinge joints.

Answer 581

A ball-and-socket joint allows a wide range of movement in many directions, such as the hips and shoulders.

Answer 582

A hinge joint allows movement primarily in one direction or plane, such as the knees and elbows.

Answer 583

Cartilaginous joints allow only slight movement and consist of bones connected entirely by cartilage.

Answer 584

Cartilaginous joints can be found where the ribs connect to the sternum and in the pubic symphysis.

Answer 585

Fontanelles, or soft spots, are flexible areas on a newborn's skull that facilitate passage through the birth canal and allow for skull growth.

Answer 586

The synovial capsule is the outermost layer of strong fibrous tissue that surrounds the joint.

Answer 587

The synovial membrane lines the capsule and secretes synovial fluid.

Answer 588

Synovial fluid acts as a lubricant to enable smooth movement of the joint.

Answer 589

Periosteum is the tough, fibrous tissue that forms the outermost covering of bone. ## Footnote 'peri-' means surrounding, 'oste' means bone, and '-um' is a noun ending.

Answer 590

Compact bone, also known as cortical bone, is the dense, hard, and very strong bone that forms the protective outer layer of bones.

Answer 591

Compact bone accounts for more than 75% of the body's bone matter.

Answer 592

Spongy bone, also known as cancellous bone, is porous and lighter than compact bone.

Answer 593

Red bone marrow is often located within spongy bone, commonly found in the ends and inner portions of long bones, as well as in the pelvic bones, ribs, and vertebrae.

Answer 594

The major bones of the arms and legs, including the femur and humerus, are examples of long bones.

Answer 595

Short bones include the bones of the wrist and ankle, which are roughly cube-shaped and made up of spongy bone covered with a layer of compact bone.

Answer 596

The medullary cavity is the central cavity located in the shaft of long bones, surrounded by compact bone.

Answer 597

Red and yellow bone marrow are stored in the medullary cavity.

Answer 598

Endosteum is the tissue that lines the medullary cavity. ## Footnote 'end-' means within, 'oste' means bone, and '-um' is a noun ending.

Answer 599

Red bone marrow manufactures red blood cells, hemoglobin, white blood cells, and thrombocytes.

Answer 600

Hematopoietic means pertaining to the formation of blood cells. ## Footnote 'hemat/o' means blood, and '-poietic' means pertaining to formation.

Answer 601

Yellow bone marrow functions as a fat storage area and is composed chiefly of fat cells.

Answer 602

Cartilage is the smooth, rubbery, blue-white connective tissue that acts as a shock absorber between bones.

Answer 603

Articular cartilage covers the surfaces of bones where they articulate to form joints.

Answer 604

The meniscus is the curved, fibrous cartilage found in some joints, such as the knee and temporomandibular joint.

Answer 605

The diaphysis is the shaft of a long bone.

Answer 606

The epiphyses are the wider ends of long bones, covered with articular cartilage.

Answer 607

A foramen is an opening in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves, and ligaments pass.

Answer 608

A process is a normal projection on the surface of a bone that serves as an attachment for a muscle or tendon.

Answer 609

Joints, also known as articulations, are the place of union between two or more bones.

Answer 610

Fibrous joints consist of inflexible layers of dense connective tissue that hold the bones tightly together.

Answer 611

The skeletal system provides framework, supports and protects internal organs, facilitates body movements with joints, stores calcium, and houses red bone marrow for blood cell formation.

Answer 612

The three types of joints are fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial.

Answer 613

The axial skeleton consists of the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage, while the appendicular skeleton includes the limbs and girdles.

Answer 614

Orthopedic surgeons and rheumatologists are medical specialists who treat disorders of the skeletal system.

Answer 615

Ossification is the process where a newborn's skeleton transforms from membranes and cartilage into bone, continuing through adolescence.

Answer 616

Osteoclasts break down old or damaged bone, while osteoblasts help rebuild new bone.

Answer 617

Dental enamel is the hardest tissue, while bone is the second hardest.

Answer 618

Bone structure includes articular cartilage, red bone marrow, spongy bone, medullary cavity, compact bone tissue, endosteum, yellow bone marrow, periosteum, proximal epiphysis, diaphysis, and distal epiphysis.

Answer 619

crooked, bent, stiff

Answer 620

to bind, tie together

Answer 621

bent, hump

Answer 622

curve, swayback, bent

Answer 623

lumbar, lower back

Answer 624

spinal cord, bone marrow

Answer 625

curved, bent

Answer 626

vertebrae, vertebral column, backbone

Answer 627

synovial membrane, synovial fluid

Answer 628

a cup-shaped socket in the hip bone ## Footnote (ass-eh-TAB-you-lum)

Answer 629

derived from a different individual of the same species ## Footnote (al-oh-JEN-ick)

Answer 630

a type of arthritis that affects the spine ## Footnote (ang-kih-LOH-sing spon-dih-LYE-tis)

Answer 631

surgical fusion of a joint ## Footnote (ar-throh-DEE-sis)

Answer 632

a minimally invasive surgical procedure on a joint ## Footnote (ar-THROS-koh-pee)

Answer 633

derived from the same individual ## Footnote (aw-TOL-uh-guss)

Answer 634

death of bone tissue due to lack of blood supply ## Footnote (ay-VAS-cue-ler neh-KROH-sis)

Answer 635

a thickened and hardened part of the skin or bone ## Footnote (KAL-us)

Answer 636

softening of the cartilage ## Footnote (kon-droh-mah-LAY-shee-ah)

Answer 637

a fracture in which the bone is broken into several pieces ## Footnote (KOM-ih-newt-ed)

Answer 638

a fracture that occurs when the bone is crushed ## Footnote (compression fracture)

Answer 639

inflammation of the cartilage that connects a rib to the sternum ## Footnote (kos-toh-kon-DRIGH-tis)

Answer 640

a crackling or popping sound in the joints ## Footnote (krep-ih-TAY-shun)

Answer 641

a technique used to measure bone density ## Footnote (ab-sorp-shee-OM-eh-tree)

Answer 642

a blockage caused by fat globules in the bloodstream ## Footnote (EM-boh-lus)

Answer 643

a form of arthritis characterized by severe pain and swelling ## Footnote (GOWT)

Answer 644

a bunion; a deformity of the big toe ## Footnote (HAL-ucks VAL-guss)

Answer 645

bleeding into a joint space ## Footnote (hem-ar-THROH-sis)

Answer 646

related to the formation of blood cells ## Footnote (hee-MAH-toh-poy-et-ick)

Answer 647

a surgical method to stabilize broken bones

Answer 648

a type of arthritis that occurs in children ## Footnote (id-ee-oh-PATH-ick ar-THRIGH-tis)

Answer 649

excessive outward curvature of the spine ## Footnote (kye-FOH-sis)

Answer 650

surgical removal of the lamina of a vertebra ## Footnote (lam-ih-NECK-toh-mee)

Answer 651

excessive inward curvature of the spine ## Footnote (lor-DOH-sis)

Answer 652

lower back pain ## Footnote (lum-BAY-goh)

Answer 653

the bony prominence on each side of the ankle ## Footnote (mah-LEE-oh-lus)

Answer 654

the upper part of the sternum ## Footnote (mah-NEW-bree-um)

Answer 655

the five bones of the hand between the wrist and fingers ## Footnote (met-ah-KAR-palz)

Answer 656

the five bones of the foot between the ankle and toes ## Footnote (met-ah-TAHR-salz)

Answer 657

a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow ## Footnote (my-eh-LOH-mah)

Answer 658

a fracture where the bone breaks through the skin

Answer 659

a doctor specializing in the diagnosis and treatment of musculoskeletal disorders ## Footnote (or-thoh-PEE-dick)

Answer 660

a device used to support, align, or improve the function of movable parts of the body ## Footnote (or-THOT-ick)

Answer 661

inflammation of the bone ## Footnote (oss-tee-EYE-tis)

Answer 662

degenerative joint disease characterized by the breakdown of cartilage ## Footnote (oss-tee-oh-ar-THRIGH-tis)

Answer 663

a benign tumor made up of cartilage and bone ## Footnote (oss-tee-oh-kon-DROH-mah)

Answer 664

softening of the bones due to vitamin D deficiency ## Footnote (oss-tee-oh-mah-LAY-shee-ah)

Answer 665

infection of the bone or bone marrow ## Footnote (oss-tee-oh-my-eh-LYE-tis)

Answer 666

lower than normal bone density ## Footnote (oss-tee-oh-PEE-nee-ah)

Answer 667

a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones ## Footnote (oss-tee-oh-poh-ROH-sis)

Answer 668

a fracture of the hip in a person with osteoporosis ## Footnote (oss-tee-oh-pah-ROT-ick)

Answer 669

a chronic disorder that can result in enlarged and misshapen bones ## Footnote (PAJ-its)

Answer 670

a fracture that occurs in a bone weakened by disease

Answer 671

a minimally invasive procedure to stabilize vertebral fractures ## Footnote (per-kyou-TAY-nee-us VER-tee-broh-plas-tee)

Answer 672

a medical professional specializing in foot and ankle care ## Footnote (poh-DYE-ah-trist)

Answer 673

an inflammatory disorder causing muscle pain and stiffness ## Footnote (pol-ee-my-AL-jee-ah roo-MA-tih-kah)

Answer 674

an artificial device that replaces a missing body part ## Footnote (pros-THEE-sis)

Answer 675

a condition caused by compression of the spinal nerves ## Footnote (rah-dick-you-LOH-path-ee)

Answer 676

an autoimmune disorder that primarily affects joints ## Footnote (ROO-mah-toyd ar-THRIGH-tis)

Answer 677

a disease caused by vitamin D deficiency in children, leading to soft bones ## Footnote (RICK-ets)

Answer 678

abnormal lateral curvature of the spine ## Footnote (skoh-lee-OH-sis)

Answer 679

a birth defect in which the spine does not close properly ## Footnote (SPY-nah BIF-ih-dah)

Answer 680

narrowing of the spinal canal that can cause pressure on the spinal cord ## Footnote (steh-NOH-sis)

Answer 681

a fracture that occurs when a rotating force is applied to the bone

Answer 682

a condition in which one vertebra slips forward over another ## Footnote (spon-dih-loh-liss-THEE-sis)

Answer 683

degenerative changes in the spine due to aging ## Footnote (spon-dih-LOH-sis)

Answer 684

a partial dislocation of a joint ## Footnote (sub-luck-SAY-shun)

Answer 685

surgical removal of the synovial membrane ## Footnote (sin-oh-VECK-toh-mee)

Answer 686

the individual bones that make up the spinal column ## Footnote (VER-teh-bray)

Answer 687

Bones, Bone Marrow, Cartilage, Joints, Ligaments, Synovial Membrane, Synovial Fluid, Bursa

Answer 688

oss/e, oss/i, oste/o, ost/o

Answer 689

myel/o (also means spinal cord)

Answer 690

ligament/o

Answer 691

synovi/o, synov/o

Answer 692

Act as the framework for the body, protect internal organs, and store calcium.

Answer 693

Helps form red blood cells.

Answer 694

Stores fat.

Answer 695

Creates a smooth surface for motion within the joints and protects the ends of the bones.

Answer 696

They work together to make a variety of motions possible.

Answer 697

Connect one bone to another.

Answer 698

Forms the lining of synovial joints and secretes synovial fluid.

Answer 699

Lubricant that makes smooth joint movements possible.

Answer 700

An intensivist is a physician specializing in the care of critically ill patients hospitalized in the ICU.

Answer 701

A hospitalist is a physician focusing on the general medical care of hospitalized patients.

Answer 702

A telemetry unit provides continuous cardiac monitoring for patients with heart problems not requiring intensive care. ## Footnote The term telemetry refers to the electronic transmission of data about the patient's heart rhythm.

Answer 703

A medical/surgical unit provides nursing care for lower-acuity patients who are recovering from surgery or require continued drug therapy or monitoring.

Answer 704

A & P stands for anatomy and physiology.

Answer 705

DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid.

Answer 706

GP stands for general practitioner.

Answer 707

HD stands for Huntington's disease.

Answer 708

LLQ stands for left lower quadrant.

Answer 709

LUQ stands for left upper quadrant.

Answer 710

PA stands for physician assistant.

Answer 711

RLQ stands for right lower quadrant.

Answer 712

RUQ stands for right upper quadrant.

Answer 713

A geriatrician specializes in problems related to aging and in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease in older people.

Answer 714

A certified medical assistant (CMA) is a medical assistant certified through the American Association of Medical Assistants.

Answer 715

A medical coder reviews patients' medical records for insurance purposes, assigning codes for treatment and services based on universal alphanumeric codes for medical diagnoses, equipment, and procedures.

Answer 716

Alphanumeric means consisting of both letters and numbers.

Answer 717

The emergency room (ER) focuses on diagnosing and treating life-threatening emergency medical conditions.

Answer 718

Patients are triaged by nursing staff before receiving additional care, with critically ill patients treated first.

Answer 719

An emergency physician is a doctor who specializes in high-acuity medicine in the ER.

Answer 720

Acuity refers to the level of severity of an illness.

Answer 721

An emergency medical technician (EMT) is a licensed health care professional who works in a pre-hospital setting on an ambulance or in an emergency room.

Answer 722

A registered nurse (RN) is a licensed health care professional who works in a variety of health care settings, assessing patients and providing care following a doctor's orders.

Answer 723

A licensed vocational nurse (LVN), also known as a licensed practical nurse (LPN) in certain states, works under the supervision of a doctor or RN to provide basic patient care.

Answer 724

A certified nursing assistant (CNA) works under the supervision of an RN to provide basic patient care.

Answer 725

A pharmacist is a licensed medical professional who dispenses prescribed medication to patients.

Answer 726

The intensive care unit (ICU) provides continuously monitored care for critically ill patients.

Answer 727

Some hospitals have specialized ICUs for burn and trauma patients, cardiac patients, or neurological patients.

Answer 728

A geriatrician specializes in problems related to aging and in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease in older people.

Answer 729

A certified medical assistant (CMA) is a medical assistant certified through the American Association of Medical Assistants.

Answer 730

A medical coder reviews patients' medical records for insurance purposes, assigning codes for treatment and services based on universal alphanumeric codes for medical diagnoses, equipment, and procedures.

Answer 731

Alphanumeric means consisting of both letters and numbers.

Answer 732

The emergency room (ER) focuses on diagnosing and treating life-threatening emergency medical conditions.

Answer 733

Patients are triaged by nursing staff before receiving additional care, with critically ill patients treated first.

Answer 734

An emergency physician is a doctor who specializes in high-acuity medicine in the ER.

Answer 735

Acuity refers to the level of severity of an illness.

Answer 736

An emergency medical technician (EMT) is a licensed health care professional who works in a pre-hospital setting on an ambulance or in an emergency room.

Answer 737

A registered nurse (RN) is a licensed health care professional who works in a variety of health care settings, assessing patients and providing care following a doctor's orders.

Answer 738

A licensed vocational nurse (LVN), also known as a licensed practical nurse (LPN) in certain states, works under the supervision of a doctor or RN to provide basic patient care.

Answer 739

A certified nursing assistant (CNA) works under the supervision of an RN to provide basic patient care.

Answer 740

A pharmacist is a licensed medical professional who dispenses prescribed medication to patients.

Answer 741

The intensive care unit (ICU) provides continuously monitored care for critically ill patients.

Answer 742

Some hospitals have specialized ICUs for burn and trauma patients, cardiac patients, or neurological patients.

Answer 743

Breathing difficulties and heart problems are common in premature babies.

Answer 744

Birth injuries are disorders that occur as a result of trauma during labor or delivery.

Answer 745

Most birth injuries, including fractures of the clavicle, heal quickly.

Answer 746

The study of the medical problems and care of older people.

Answer 747

Postmortem means after death.

Answer 748

An autopsy is a postmortem examination usually conducted to determine the cause of death.

Answer 749

Advance directives are documents used to provide guidance about treatment a person may want in case of a medical emergency.

Answer 750

A health care proxy allows a person to appoint someone to make treatment decisions if they cannot do so themselves.

Answer 751

A living will allows a person to state their wishes for end-of-life medical care.

Answer 752

A DNR is a legal document stating that a person does not wish to receive CPR if their heart or breathing stop.

Answer 753

Health care professionals include doctors, nurses, administrative staff, and allied health professionals.

Answer 754

Allied health professions include roles outside of medicine, nursing, and pharmacy, such as dental hygienists and physical therapists.

Answer 755

A GP provides ongoing care for patients of all ages.

Answer 756

An internist specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases of the internal organs.

Answer 757

A pediatrician specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of infants and children.

Answer 758

A geriatrician specializes in the care of older people.

Answer 759

An NP is a nurse with graduate training who often works as a primary care provider.

Answer 760

A PA is a licensed professional who works under the supervision of a physician.

Answer 761

A medical receptionist schedules and registers patients for appointments.

Answer 762

A medical assistant performs administrative and clinical tasks in a doctor's office.

Answer 763

Pandemic refers to an outbreak of a disease occurring over a large geographic area, possibly worldwide. ## Footnote For example, the worldwide spread of HIV and COVID-19 are pandemics.

Answer 764

An organic disorder produces symptoms that are detectable physical changes in the body. ## Footnote For example, varicella (chickenpox) is an organic disorder caused by a virus.

Answer 765

A functional disorder, or non-organic disorder, produces physical symptoms for which no disease or organic cause can be identified. ## Footnote Chronic fatigue syndrome is an example of a functional disorder.

Answer 766

An iatrogenic illness is an unfavorable response due to prescribed medical treatment. ## Footnote For example, severe burns from radiation therapy are iatrogenic.

Answer 767

An idiopathic disease is any disease without a known cause.

Answer 768

An infectious disease is an illness caused by living pathogenic organisms such as bacteria and viruses.

Answer 769

A nosocomial infection, or hospital-acquired infection (HAI), is a disease acquired in a hospital or clinical setting. ## Footnote For example, multidrug-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections are often spread in hospitals.

Answer 770

A syndrome is a set of signs and symptoms that occur together as part of a specific disease process.

Answer 771

Metabolic syndrome is a common medical condition characterized by risk factors for developing heart disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes.

Answer 772

A congenital disorder is an abnormal condition that exists at the time of birth.

Answer 773

A developmental disorder, or birth defect, can result in an anomaly or malformation such as the absence of a limb.

Answer 774

Atresia describes the congenital absence or narrowing of a normal body opening or passage. ## Footnote For example, anal atresia is the congenital absence of the opening at the bottom end of the anus.

Answer 775

Prenatal risk factors include the mother's health, her behavior, and the prenatal medical care she receives before delivery.

Answer 776

An example is a rubella infection, which can lead to birth defects if contracted early in pregnancy.

Answer 777

Fetal alcohol syndrome is the result of the mother's consumption of alcohol during pregnancy, characterized by growth abnormalities and mental retardation.

Answer 778

Lack of adequate prenatal medical care can lead to premature delivery or a low birth-weight baby.

Answer 779

Premature birth is a birth that occurs earlier than the 37th week of development and can cause serious complications.

Answer 780

Pandemic refers to an outbreak of a disease occurring over a large geographic area, possibly worldwide. ## Footnote For example, the worldwide spread of HIV and COVID-19 are pandemics.

Answer 781

An organic disorder produces symptoms that are detectable physical changes in the body. ## Footnote For example, varicella (chickenpox) is an organic disorder caused by a virus.

Answer 782

A functional disorder, or non-organic disorder, produces physical symptoms for which no disease or organic cause can be identified. ## Footnote Chronic fatigue syndrome is an example of a functional disorder.

Answer 783

An iatrogenic illness is an unfavorable response due to prescribed medical treatment. ## Footnote For example, severe burns from radiation therapy are iatrogenic.

Answer 784

An idiopathic disease is any disease without a known cause.

Answer 785

An infectious disease is an illness caused by living pathogenic organisms such as bacteria and viruses.

Answer 786

A nosocomial infection, or hospital-acquired infection (HAI), is a disease acquired in a hospital or clinical setting. ## Footnote For example, multidrug-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections are often spread in hospitals.

Answer 787

A syndrome is a set of signs and symptoms that occur together as part of a specific disease process.

Answer 788

Metabolic syndrome is a common medical condition characterized by risk factors for developing heart disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes.

Answer 789

A congenital disorder is an abnormal condition that exists at the time of birth.

Answer 790

A developmental disorder, or birth defect, can result in an anomaly or malformation such as the absence of a limb.

Answer 791

Atresia describes the congenital absence or narrowing of a normal body opening or passage. ## Footnote For example, anal atresia is the congenital absence of the opening at the bottom end of the anus.

Answer 792

Prenatal risk factors include the mother's health, her behavior, and the prenatal medical care she receives before delivery.

Answer 793

An example is a rubella infection, which can lead to birth defects if contracted early in pregnancy.

Answer 794

Fetal alcohol syndrome is the result of the mother's consumption of alcohol during pregnancy, characterized by growth abnormalities and mental retardation.

Answer 795

Lack of adequate prenatal medical care can lead to premature delivery or a low birth-weight baby.

Answer 796

Premature birth is a birth that occurs earlier than the 37th week of development and can cause serious complications.

Answer 797

Pathology is the study of disease: its nature and cause as well as the produced changes in structure and function.

Answer 798

A pathologist is a physician who specializes in the laboratory analysis of diseased tissue samples to confirm or establish a diagnosis.

Answer 799

Etiology is the study of the causes of diseases or abnormal conditions.

Answer 800

A pathogen is a disease-producing microorganism such as a virus.

Answer 801

Transmission is the spread of a disease.

Answer 802

Contamination means that a pathogen is possibly present.

Answer 803

A communicable disease is any condition that is transmitted from one person to another either directly or by indirect contact with contaminated objects.

Answer 804

Direct transmission occurs when there is human-to-human contact in the form of touch or the exchange of bodily fluids.

Answer 805

Bloodborne transmission is the spread of pathogens through infected blood or other body fluids.

Answer 806

Droplet transmission is the spread of infected respiratory droplets sprayed by coughing or sneezing onto a nearby person.

Answer 807

Indirect contact transmission occurs when a susceptible person is infected by contact with a contaminated surface.

Answer 808

Airborne transmission occurs through contact with pathogens floating in the air.

Answer 809

Food-borne and waterborne transmission is caused by eating or drinking contaminated food or water.

Answer 810

Vector-borne transmission is the spread of certain diseases through blood-sucking vectors, such as mosquitoes.

Answer 811

An epidemiologist is a specialist in the study of outbreaks of disease within a population group.

Answer 812

Endemic refers to the ongoing presence of a disease within a population, group, or area.

Answer 813

An epidemic is a sudden and widespread outbreak of a disease within a specific population group or area.

Answer 814

Skeletal System ## Footnote Refer to Chapter 3 for more details.

Answer 815

Muscles, fascia, and tendons ## Footnote Refer to Chapter 4 for more details.

Answer 816

Blood circulates throughout the body to transport oxygen and nutrients to cells, and to carry waste products to the kidneys where waste is removed by filtration. ## Footnote Refer to Chapter 5 for more details.

Answer 817

Lymph, lymphatic vessels, and lymph nodes ## Footnote Refer to Chapter 6 for more details.

Answer 818

Defends the body against invading pathogens and allergens. ## Footnote Refer to Chapter 6 for more details.

Answer 819

Nose, pharynx, trachea, larynx, and lungs ## Footnote Refer to Chapter 7 for more details.

Answer 820

Digests ingested food so it can be absorbed into the bloodstream and eliminates solid waste. ## Footnote Refer to Chapter 8 for more details.

Answer 821

Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra ## Footnote Refer to Chapter 9 for more details.

Answer 822

Coordinates the reception of stimuli and transmits messages throughout the body. ## Footnote Refer to Chapter 10 for more details.

Answer 823

Eyes and ears ## Footnote Refer to Chapter 11 for more details.

Answer 824

Aids in regulating the body temperature and water content. ## Footnote Refer to Chapter 12 for more details.

Answer 825

Adrenal glands, gonads, pancreas, parathyroids, pineal, pituitary, thymus, and thyroid ## Footnote Refer to Chapter 13 for more details.

Answer 826

Male: penis and testicles; Female: ovaries, uterus, and vagina ## Footnote Refer to Chapter 14 for more details.

Answer 827

Muscle hypertrophy is the enlargement of muscle fibers, which is a desired response to weight lifting.

Answer 828

A gland is a group of specialized epithelial cells capable of producing secretions.

Answer 829

The two major types of glands are exocrine glands and endocrine glands.

Answer 830

Exocrine glands secrete chemical substances into ducts that lead to other organs or out of the body. ## Footnote Examples include salivary, mammary, and sweat glands.

Answer 831

Endocrine glands produce hormones that are secreted directly into the bloodstream. ## Footnote These hormones are transported to organs and structures throughout the body.

Answer 832

The word root 'aden' means gland.

Answer 833

Adenitis is the inflammation of a gland.

Answer 834

Mesenteric adenitis is inflammation of the lymph nodes in the abdomen with symptoms similar to appendicitis.

Answer 835

An adenocarcinoma is a malignant tumor that originates in the glands and may spread to other parts of the body.

Answer 836

An adenoma is a benign tumor that starts in the epithelial tissue of a gland or gland-like structure. ## Footnote A polyp in the colon is a common type of adenoma.

Answer 837

Adenosis is any disease or condition of a gland.

Answer 838

An organ is a somewhat independent part of the body that performs a specific function.

Answer 839

Related tissues and organs are organized into body systems with specialized functions.

Answer 840

A tissue is a group or layer of similarly specialized cells that join together to perform certain specific functions.

Answer 841

Histology is the microscopic study of the structure, composition, and function of tissues.

Answer 842

A histologist is a non-physician specialist who studies the microscopic structure of tissues.

Answer 843

The four main types of tissue are epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue, and nerve tissue.

Answer 844

Epithelial tissue forms a protective covering for all of the internal and external surfaces of the body and also forms glands.

Answer 845

Epithelium is the specialized epithelial tissue that forms the epidermis of the skin and the surface layer of mucous membranes.

Answer 846

Endothelium is the specialized epithelial tissue that lines the blood and lymph vessels, body cavities, glands, and organs.

Answer 847

Connective tissues support and connect organs and other body tissues.

Answer 848

The four kinds of connective tissue are dense connective tissues, adipose tissue, loose connective tissue, and fluid connective tissues.

Answer 849

Adipose tissue, also known as fat, provides protective padding, insulation, and support.

Answer 850

Muscle tissue contains cells with the specialized ability to contract and relax.

Answer 851

Nerve tissue contains cells with the specialized ability to react to stimuli and to conduct electrical impulses.

Answer 852

Aplasia is the defective development, or the congenital absence, of an organ or tissue.

Answer 853

Hypoplasia is the under-development of an organ or tissue, usually due to a deficiency in the number of cells.

Answer 854

Anaplasia is a change in the structure of cells and in their orientation to each other, characteristic of most cancerous tumor formation.

Answer 855

Dysplasia is the abnormal development or growth of cells, or the presence of abnormal cells within a type of tissue.

Answer 856

Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ.

Answer 857

Hypertrophy is a general increase in the bulk of a body part or organ that is due to an increase in the size, but not in the number, of cells in the tissues.

Answer 858

It is the beginning of identical twins, which have identical DNA but develop unique characteristics such as fingerprints.

Answer 859

To identify individuals in criminal investigations, paternity suits, or genealogical research.

Answer 860

A change in the sequence of a DNA molecule caused by factors like radiation or environmental pollution.

Answer 861

A change within the cells of the body that affects the individual but cannot be transmitted to the next generation.

Answer 862

A change within the genes in a gamete (sex cell) that can be transmitted to offspring.

Answer 863

The manipulating or splicing of genes for scientific or medical purposes, such as producing human insulin from modified bacteria.

Answer 864

A pathological condition caused by an absent or defective gene, also known as a hereditary disease.

Answer 865

A genetic disorder present at birth that affects the respiratory and digestive systems.

Answer 866

A genetic variation associated with characteristic facial appearance, learning disabilities, and physical abnormalities, caused by a third copy of the 21st chromosome.

Answer 867

A condition caused by changes in the MR1 gene, characterized by developmental delays and learning disabilities.

Answer 868

A hereditary bleeding disorder in which a blood-clotting factor is missing, mostly affecting males.

Answer 869

A genetic disorder passed from parent to child, causing nerve degeneration with symptoms appearing in midlife.

Answer 870

A disorder affecting connective tissue, characterized by a tall, slender build and disproportionately long limbs.

Answer 871

A group of genetic diseases characterized by progressive weakness and degeneration of skeletal muscles.

Answer 872

A rare genetic disorder where the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase is missing, detectable by a blood test at birth.

Answer 873

A gene is a fundamental physical and functional unit of heredity that controls hereditary diseases and physical traits such as hair, skin, and eye color.

Answer 874

Genetics is the study of how genes are transferred from parents to their children and the role of genes in health and disease.

Answer 875

A specialist in the field of genetics.

Answer 876

The offspring will inherit that genetic condition or characteristic.

Answer 877

Freckles are a physical trait transmitted by a dominant gene.

Answer 878

The offspring will have the condition associated with that recessive gene.

Answer 879

Sickle cell anemia is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders transmitted by a recessive gene.

Answer 880

A genome is the complete set of genetic information of an organism.

Answer 881

It studied the genetic code for individual people and found that it is more than 99 percent identical among humans.

Answer 882

A chromosome is a genetic structure located within the nucleus of each cell, made up of DNA molecules containing the body's genes.

Answer 883

Somatic cells contain 46 chromosomes arranged into 23 pairs.

Answer 884

The remaining pair of chromosomes, XX for females and XY for males, determines the sex.

Answer 885

A gamete (sperm or egg) is the only type of cell that does not contain 46 chromosomes; it has 23 single chromosomes.

Answer 886

It determines the sex of the child.

Answer 887

It can lead to birth defects, such as Down syndrome, which involves having 47 chromosomes instead of 46.

Answer 888

DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the main component of chromosomes and carries the body's genetic information.

Answer 889

DNA is packaged in a chromosome as two spiraling strands that twist together to form a double helix.

Answer 890

No, the DNA for each individual is different, except for identical twins.

Answer 891

Adult stem cells, also known as somatic stem cells, are undifferentiated cells found among differentiated cells in a tissue or organ. Their primary role is to maintain and repair the tissue in which they are found.

Answer 892

Undifferentiated means not having a specialized function or structure.

Answer 893

Differentiated means having a specialized function or structure.

Answer 894

Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated cells that can form any adult cell. They come from the cord blood found in the umbilical cord and placenta of a newborn infant.

Answer 895

Embryonic stem cells can proliferate indefinitely in a laboratory and may provide a source for adult muscle, liver, bone, or blood cells.

Answer 896

Informed consent means that those involved have been given information about what is involved before granting permission.

Answer 897

Stem cell therapy, also known as regenerative medicine, has many potential uses to heal injuries and treat diseases.

Answer 898

Cells for stem cell therapy are usually harvested from the hematopoietic (blood forming) tissue of the bone marrow.

Answer 899

Graft versus host disease is the possibility of rejection that occurs unless there is an excellent match between the donor and recipient.

Answer 900

Located behind the peritoneum. ## Footnote Example: The location of the kidneys is retroperitoneal with one on each side of the spinal column.

Answer 901

Inflammation of the peritoneum.

Answer 902

Cells, tissues, organs, and body systems.

Answer 903

The basic structural and functional units of the body.

Answer 904

The study of the anatomy, physiology, pathology, and chemistry of the cell.

Answer 905

A specialist in the study and analysis of cells.

Answer 906

The tissue that surrounds and protects the contents of a cell from the external environment.

Answer 907

The material within the cell membrane that is not part of the nucleus.

Answer 908

A structure within the cell that controls the activities of the cell and helps it divide.

Answer 909

Unspecialized cells that can renew themselves and can be transformed into specialized cells under certain conditions.

Answer 910

They can renew themselves for long periods and can transform into cells with special functions.

Answer 911

Located behind the peritoneum. ## Footnote Example: The location of the kidneys is retroperitoneal with one on each side of the spinal column.

Answer 912

Inflammation of the peritoneum.

Answer 913

Cells, tissues, organs, and body systems.

Answer 914

The basic structural and functional units of the body.

Answer 915

The study of the anatomy, physiology, pathology, and chemistry of the cell.

Answer 916

A specialist in the study and analysis of cells.

Answer 917

The tissue that surrounds and protects the contents of a cell from the external environment.

Answer 918

The material within the cell membrane that is not part of the nucleus.

Answer 919

A structure within the cell that controls the activities of the cell and helps it divide.

Answer 920

Unspecialized cells that can renew themselves and can be transformed into specialized cells under certain conditions.

Answer 921

They can renew themselves for long periods and can transform into cells with special functions.

Answer 922

The umbilical region surrounds the umbilicus, commonly known as the belly button or navel. This marks the point where the umbilical cord was attached before birth.

Answer 923

The right and left iliac regions are located near the hip bones.

Answer 924

The hypogastric region is located below the stomach.

Answer 925

The quadrants of the abdomen are: Right upper quadrant (RUQ), Left upper quadrant (LUQ), Right lower quadrant (RLQ), Left lower quadrant (LLQ).

Answer 926

The peritoneum is a multilayered membrane that protects and holds the organs in place within the abdominal cavity.

Answer 927

The parietal peritoneum is the outer layer of the peritoneum that lines the interior of the abdominal wall.

Answer 928

The mesentery is a fused double layer of the parietal peritoneum that attaches parts of the intestine to the interior abdominal wall.

Answer 929

The visceral peritoneum is the inner layer of the peritoneum that surrounds the organs of the abdominal cavity.

Answer 930

The ventral cavity is located along the front of the body and contains the organs that sustain homeostasis.

Answer 931

Homeostasis is the process through which the body maintains a constant internal environment.

Answer 932

The ventral cavity is divided into the thoracic cavity, abdominal cavity, and pelvic cavity.

Answer 933

The thoracic cavity surrounds and protects the heart and lungs.

Answer 934

The diaphragm is a muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities.

Answer 935

The abdominal cavity contains the major organs of digestion.

Answer 936

The pelvic cavity is formed by the hip bones and contains the organs of the reproductive and excretory systems.

Answer 937

The abdominopelvic cavity refers to the abdominal and pelvic cavities as a single unit.

Answer 938

The term inguinal refers to the entire lower area of the abdomen, including the groin.

Answer 939

The regions comprise a descriptive system that divides the abdomen and lower thorax into nine parts.

Answer 940

The right and left hypochondriac regions are covered by the lower ribs.

Answer 941

The epigastric region is located above the stomach.

Answer 942

The right and left lumbar regions are located near the inward curve of the spine.

Answer 943

Inferior means lowermost, below, or toward the feet. ## Footnote For example, the stomach is located inferior to (below) the diaphragm.

Answer 944

Cephalic means toward the head. ## Footnote Cephalic is the opposite of caudal.

Answer 945

Caudal means toward the lower part of the body. ## Footnote Caudal is the opposite of cephalic.

Answer 946

Proximal means situated nearest the midline or beginning of a body structure. ## Footnote For example, the proximal end of the humerus forms part of the shoulder.

Answer 947

Distal means situated farthest from the midline or beginning of a body structure. ## Footnote For example, the distal end of the humerus forms part of the elbow.

Answer 948

Medial means the direction toward, or nearer, the midline. ## Footnote For example, the medial ligament of the knee is near the inner surface of the leg.

Answer 949

Lateral means the direction toward, or nearer, the side of the body, away from the midline. ## Footnote For example, the lateral ligament of the knee is near the side of the leg.

Answer 950

Anterior means situated in the front. ## Footnote For example, the stomach is located anterior to (in front of) the pancreas.

Answer 951

Posterior means situated in the back. ## Footnote For example, the pancreas is located posterior to (behind) the stomach.

Answer 952

Superior means uppermost, above, or toward the head. ## Footnote For example, the lungs are located superior to (above) the diaphragm.

Answer 953

The two major body cavities are the dorsal (back) and the ventral (front) cavities.

Answer 954

The dorsal cavity contains organs of the nervous system and is divided into the cranial cavity and the spinal cavity.

Answer 955

The cranial cavity is located within the skull and surrounds and protects the brain.

Answer 956

The spinal cavity is located within the spinal column and surrounds and protects the spinal cord.

Answer 957

A vertical plane is an up-and-down plane that is at a right angle to the horizon.

Answer 958

A sagittal plane divides the body into unequal left and right portions.

Answer 959

The midsagittal plane, also known as the midline, divides the body into equal left and right halves.

Answer 960

A frontal plane divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) portions.

Answer 961

The frontal plane is also known as the coronal plane.

Answer 962

A horizontal plane is a flat, crosswise plane, such as the horizon.

Answer 963

A transverse plane divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) portions.

Answer 964

Ventral refers to the front, or belly side, of the organ or body.

Answer 965

Dorsal refers to the back of the organ or body.

Answer 966

Anterior means situated in the front or on the forward part of an organ.

Answer 967

Posterior means toward the back of the body.

Answer 968

Cephalic means toward the head.

Answer 969

Caudal means toward the feet.

Answer 970

Anatomy (ah-NAT-oh-mee) is the study of the structures of the body. The adjective anatomical (ah-nah-TOM-ih-kal) means referring to anatomy.

Answer 971

Physiology (fiz-ee-OL-oh-jee) is the study of the functions of the structures of the body.

Answer 972

Anatomical reference systems are used to describe the locations of the structural units of the body.

Answer 973

The main components include body planes, body directions, body cavities, and structural units.

Answer 974

When body parts work together to perform a related function, they are grouped together and are known as a body system.

Answer 975

The midsagittal plane divides the body into equal left and right halves.

Answer 976

The transverse plane divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) portions.

Answer 977

The frontal plane divides the body into anterior or ventral (front) and posterior or dorsal (back) portions.

Answer 978

The anatomical position describes the body standing in the standard position, facing forward, with arms at the sides and palms facing front.

Answer 979

You should be able to define anatomy and physiology, recognize primary terms related to cells, tissues, organs, and diseases, and identify major organs and functions of body systems.

Answer 980

before, front

Answer 981

lower part of body, tail

Answer 982

in, within, inside

Answer 983

out of, outside, away from

Answer 984

specialist

Answer 985

the science or study of

Answer 986

disease, suffering, feeling, emotion

Answer 987

development, growth, formation

Answer 988

behind, toward the back

Answer 989

control, maintenance of a constant level

Answer 990

ab-DOM-ih-nal

Answer 991

ad-eh-noh-kar-sih-NOH-mah

Answer 992

ad-eh-NOH-mah

Answer 993

an-ah-PLAY-zhee-ah

Answer 994

ah-NAT-oh-mee

Answer 995

ah-NOM-ah-lee

Answer 996

an-TEER-ee-or

Answer 997

ah-PLAY-zhee-ah

Answer 998

ah-TREE-zee-ah

Answer 999

AW-top-see

Answer 1000

seh-FAL-ick

Answer 1001

KROH-moh-sohme

Answer 1002

kuh-MEW-nih-kuh-bul

Answer 1003

kon-JEN-ih-tahl

Answer 1004

SIGH-toh-plazm

Answer 1005

dis-PLAY-zhee-ah

Answer 1006

en-DEM-ick

Answer 1007

EN-doh-krin

Answer 1008

ep-ih-DEM-ick

Answer 1009

ep-ih-GAS-trick

Answer 1010

ee-tee-OL-oh-jee

Answer 1011

ECK-soh-krin

Answer 1012

jer-ee-ah-TRISH-un

Answer 1013

hee-moh-FILL-ee-ah

Answer 1014

hiss-TOL-oh-jee

Answer 1015

hoh-mee-oh-STAY-sis

Answer 1016

high-per-PLAY-zhee-ah

Answer 1017

high-PER-troh-fee

Answer 1018

high-poh-GAS-trick

Answer 1019

high-poh-PLAY-zhee-ah

Answer 1020

eye-at-roh-JEN-ick

Answer 1021

id-ee-oh-PATH-ick

Answer 1022

in-FECK-shus

Answer 1023

ING-gwih-nal

Answer 1024

MEE-dee-al

Answer 1025

MESS-en-terr-ee

Answer 1026

mid-SADJ-ih-tal

Answer 1027

nahs-oh-KOH-mee-al

Answer 1028

pan-DEM-ick

Answer 1029

pah-THOL-oh-jee

Answer 1030

pehr-ih-toh-NEE-um

Answer 1031

pehr-ih-toh-NIGH-tis

Answer 1032

fiz-ee-OL-oh-jee

Answer 1033

pos-TEER-ee-or

Answer 1034

PROCK-sih-mal

Answer 1035

ret-roh-pehr-ih-toh-NEE-al

Answer 1036

thoh-RAS-ick

Answer 1037

trans-VERSE

Answer 1038

um-BILL-ih-kus

Answer 1039

The human body consists of anatomical reference systems, structures, genetics, tissues, glands, body systems, and pathology.

Answer 1040

Terms used to describe the location of body planes, directions, and cavities.

Answer 1041

Cells, tissues, and glands that form body systems.

Answer 1042

The genetic components that transfer characteristics from parents to their child.

Answer 1043

A group of similarly specialized cells that work together to perform specific functions.

Answer 1044

A group of specialized cells that is capable of producing secretions.

Answer 1045

Somewhat independent parts of the body that perform specific functions.

Answer 1046

Organs with related functions organized to work together.

Answer 1047

The study of the nature and cause of disease involving changes in structure and function.

Answer 1048

Renal pelvis ## Footnote 'Pyel' refers to the renal pelvis, and '-itis' means inflammation.

Answer 1049

Pus ## Footnote Pyoderma is an acute, inflammatory, pus-forming bacterial skin infection.

Answer 1050

Fever or fire ## Footnote Pyrosis, also known as heartburn, is discomfort due to stomach acid regurgitation.

Answer 1051

The act of rotating the arm so that the palm is forward or upward.

Answer 1052

The formation of pus.

Answer 1053

The medical screening of patients to determine their relative priority of need.

Answer 1054

Wound or injury.

Answer 1055

Pertaining to a virus.

Answer 1056

Having the nature, properties, or qualities of an adult male.

Answer 1057

As a shorthand way to record long and complex medical terms.

Answer 1058

They can lead to confusion and errors.

Answer 1059

Always spell it out.

Answer 1060

The Joint Commission.

Answer 1061

Can mean either morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate.

Answer 1062

Mean daily and every other day, respectively; sometimes mistaken for each other.

Answer 1063

Means unit, sometimes mistaken for 0 or 4.

Answer 1064

A part of the hip bone.

Answer 1065

A portion of the small intestine.

Answer 1066

A localized response to an injury or destruction of tissues, indicated by erythema, hyperthermia, edema, and pain.

Answer 1067

A torn or jagged wound or an accidental cut.

Answer 1068

A pathologic change of the tissues due to disease or injury.

Answer 1069

The specialized membranes that line the body cavities.

Answer 1070

The fluid secreted by mucous membranes.

Answer 1071

Fungus. Mycosis describes any abnormal condition or disease caused by a fungus.

Answer 1072

Bone marrow or spinal cord. Myelopathy describes any injury, degeneration, or disease in the spinal cord.

Answer 1073

Muscle. Myopathy describes any pathologic change or disease of muscle tissue.

Answer 1074

Specialist. A dermatologist specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the skin.

Answer 1075

The study of. Neonatology is the study of disorders of the newborn.

Answer 1076

An examination technique in which the examiner's hands are used to feel the texture, size, consistency, and location of certain body parts.

Answer 1077

A pounding or racing heart.

Answer 1078

Renal pelvis, which is part of the kidney. Pyelitis is an inflammation of the renal pelvis.

Answer 1079

Renal pelvis ## Footnote 'pyel' means renal pelvis, and '-itis' means inflammation.

Answer 1080

Pus ## Footnote Pyoderma (pye-oh-DER-ma) is an acute, inflammatory, pus-forming bacterial skin infection.

Answer 1081

Fever or fire ## Footnote Pyrosis (pye-ROH-sis), also known as heartburn, is discomfort due to stomach acid regurgitation.

Answer 1082

The act of rotating the arm so that the palm is forward or upward.

Answer 1083

The formation of pus.

Answer 1084

The medical screening of patients to determine their relative priority of need and the proper place of treatment.

Answer 1085

Wound or injury.

Answer 1086

Pertaining to a virus.

Answer 1087

Having the nature, properties, or qualities of an adult male.

Answer 1088

As a shorthand way to record long and complex medical terms.

Answer 1089

They can lead to confusion and errors.

Answer 1090

Spell it out.

Answer 1091

The Joint Commission.

Answer 1092

Can mean either morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate.

Answer 1093

Mean daily and every other day, respectively; sometimes mistaken for each other.

Answer 1094

Means unit, sometimes mistaken for 0 or 4.

Answer 1095

A sign is objective evidence of disease, such as a fever. Objective means the sign can be evaluated or measured by the patient or others.

Answer 1096

A diagnosis (DX) is the identification of a disease. To diagnose is the process of reaching a diagnosis.

Answer 1097

An acute condition has a rapid onset, a severe course, and a relatively short duration.

Answer 1098

A disease is a condition in which one or more body parts are not functioning normally.

Answer 1099

A symptom is subjective evidence of a disease, such as pain or a headache. Subjective means it can be evaluated or measured only by the patient.

Answer 1100

A syndrome is a set of signs and symptoms that occur together as part of a specific disease process.

Answer 1101

A differential diagnosis (D/DX), also known as a rule out (R/O), is an attempt to determine which one of several possible diseases is causing the signs and symptoms that are present.

Answer 1102

A prognosis is a prediction of the probable course and outcome of a disease.

Answer 1103

A chronic condition is of long duration. Although such diseases can be controlled, they are rarely cured.

Answer 1104

An eponym is a disease, structure, operation, or procedure named for the person who discovered or described it first.

Answer 1105

A remission is the temporary, partial, or complete disappearance of the symptoms of a disease without having achieved a cure.

Answer 1106

An acronym is a word formed from the initial letter of the major parts of a compound term.

Answer 1107

A fissure is a groove or crack-like sore of the skin. This term also describes normal folds in the contours of the brain.

Answer 1108

A fistula is an abnormal passage, usually between two internal organs or leading from an organ to the surface of the body.

Answer 1109

The ileum is the last and longest portion of the small intestine.

Answer 1110

The ilium is part of the hip bone.

Answer 1111

The suffix -itis means inflammation and is commonly used to indicate infection.

Answer 1112

An infection is the invasion of the body by a pathogenic organism. It can remain localized or can be systemic.

Answer 1113

Malaise is a feeling of general discomfort or uneasiness that is often the first indication of an infection or other disease.

Answer 1114

Exudate is any fluid, such as pus, that leaks out of an infected wound.

Answer 1115

A sign is objective evidence of disease, such as a fever. Objective means the sign can be evaluated or measured by the patient or others.

Answer 1116

A diagnosis (DX) is the identification of a disease. To diagnose is the process of reaching a diagnosis.

Answer 1117

An acute condition has a rapid onset, a severe course, and a relatively short duration.

Answer 1118

A disease is a condition in which one or more body parts are not functioning normally.

Answer 1119

A symptom is subjective evidence of a disease, such as pain or a headache. Subjective means it can be evaluated or measured only by the patient.

Answer 1120

A syndrome is a set of signs and symptoms that occur together as part of a specific disease process.

Answer 1121

A differential diagnosis (D/DX), also known as a rule out (R/O), is an attempt to determine which one of several possible diseases is causing the signs and symptoms that are present.

Answer 1122

A prognosis is a prediction of the probable course and outcome of a disease.

Answer 1123

A chronic condition is of long duration. Although such diseases can be controlled, they are rarely cured.

Answer 1124

An eponym is a disease, structure, operation, or procedure named for the person who discovered or described it first.

Answer 1125

A remission is the temporary, partial, or complete disappearance of the symptoms of a disease without having achieved a cure.

Answer 1126

An acronym is a word formed from the initial letter of the major parts of a compound term.

Answer 1127

A fissure is a groove or crack-like sore of the skin. This term also describes normal folds in the contours of the brain.

Answer 1128

A fistula is an abnormal passage, usually between two internal organs or leading from an organ to the surface of the body.

Answer 1129

The ileum is the last and longest portion of the small intestine.

Answer 1130

The ilium is part of the hip bone.

Answer 1131

The suffix -itis means inflammation and is commonly used to indicate infection.

Answer 1132

An infection is the invasion of the body by a pathogenic organism. It can remain localized or can be systemic.

Answer 1133

Malaise is a feeling of general discomfort or uneasiness that is often the first indication of an infection or other disease.

Answer 1134

Exudate is any fluid, such as pus, that leaks out of an infected wound.

Answer 1135

The plural is usually formed by changing the ending to -ae.

Answer 1136

The plural is usually formed by changing these endings to -ices.

Answer 1137

The plural is usually formed by changing the ending to -es.

Answer 1138

The plural is usually formed by changing the -is ending to -ides.

Answer 1139

The plural is usually formed by changing the -x ending to -ges.

Answer 1140

The plural is usually formed by changing the ending to -a.

Answer 1141

The plural is usually formed by changing the ending to -a.

Answer 1142

The plural is usually formed by changing the ending to -i.

Answer 1143

appendices

Answer 1144

metastases

Answer 1145

arthritides

Answer 1146

meningitides

Answer 1147

diverticula

Answer 1148

-ectomy means surgical removal.

Answer 1149

An appendectomy is the surgical removal of the appendix. ## Footnote (append means appendix, and -ectomy means surgical removal).

Answer 1150

-ostomy means the surgical creation of an artificial opening to the body surface.

Answer 1151

A colostomy is the surgical creation of an artificial excretory opening between the colon and the body surface. ## Footnote (col means colon, and -ostomy means the surgical creation of an artificial opening).

Answer 1152

-otomy means cutting or a surgical incision.

Answer 1153

Pyelotomy is a surgical incision into the renal pelvis to remove obstructions such as a kidney stone. ## Footnote (pyel means the renal pelvis, and -otomy means surgical incision).

Answer 1154

The word is respelled using normal English letters to create sounds that are familiar.

Answer 1155

The part of the word that receives the primary emphasis is shown in uppercase boldface letters. ## Footnote Example: edema (eh-DEE-mah) is swelling caused by an abnormal accumulation of fluid in cells, tissues, or cavities of the body.

Answer 1156

The part of the word that receives secondary emphasis is shown in boldface lowercase letters. ## Footnote Example: appendicitis (ah-pen-dih-SIGH-tis) means an inflammation of the appendix.

Answer 1157

Many medical terms have Greek or Latin origins, leading to unusual rules for changing singular words into plural forms.

Answer 1158

Both forms are included in the text. ## Footnote Example: the phalanges (fah-LAN-jeez) are the bones of the fingers and toes (singular, phalanx).

Answer 1159

There is often more than one correct way to pronounce a medical term.

Answer 1160

There is a trend toward pronouncing terms as they would sound in English.

Answer 1161

Follow the instructions you are given.

Answer 1162

Accuracy in spelling is extremely important, as changing just one or two letters can completely change the meaning of a word.

Answer 1163

The section 'Look-Alike, Sound-Alike Terms and Word Parts' will help you.

Answer 1164

Arteri/o means artery. ## Footnote Example: Endarterial (end-ar-TEE-ree-al) means pertaining to the interior or lining of an artery.

Answer 1165

Ather/o means plaque or fatty substance. ## Footnote Example: An atheroma (ath-er-OH-mah) is a fatty deposit within the wall of an artery.

Answer 1166

It may begin with 'F' or 'PH'. ## Footnote Example: flatus (FLAY-tus), see Chapter 8

Answer 1167

It may begin with 'F' or 'PH'. ## Footnote Example: phlegm (FLEM), see Chapter 7

Answer 1168

It may begin with 'G'. ## Footnote Example: gingivitis (jin-jih-VYE-tis), see Chapter 8

Answer 1169

It may begin with 'J'. ## Footnote Example: jaundice (JAWN-dis), see Chapter 8

Answer 1170

It may begin with 'C'. ## Footnote Example: crepitus (KREP-ih-tus), see Chapter 3

Answer 1171

It may begin with 'C' or 'CH'. ## Footnote Example: cheilitis (kye-LITE-is), see Chapter 8

Answer 1172

It may begin with 'K'. ## Footnote Example: kyphosis (kye-FOH-sis), see Chapter 3

Answer 1173

It may begin with 'Q'. ## Footnote Example: quadriplegia (kwad-rih-PLEE-jee-ah), see Chapter 4

Answer 1174

It may begin with 'C'. ## Footnote Example: cytology (sigh-TOL-oh-jee), see Chapter 2

Answer 1175

It may begin with 'P'. ## Footnote Example: psychologist (sigh-KOL-oh-jist), see Chapter 10

Answer 1176

It may begin with 'S'. ## Footnote Example: serum (SEER-um), see Chapter 5

Answer 1177

It may begin with 'Z'. ## Footnote Example: xeroderma (zee-roh-DER-mah), see Chapter 12

Answer 1178

It may begin with 'Z'. ## Footnote Example: zygote (ZYE-goht), see Chapter 14

Answer 1179

Begin your search with the last term.

Answer 1180

Visit at least two reputable sites.

Answer 1181

Beware of suggested search terms and double-check spelling.

Answer 1182

Ensure the application comes from a reputable source.

Answer 1183

A medical term is easier to understand and remember when pronounced properly.

Answer 1184

It may begin with 'F' or 'PH'. ## Footnote Example: flatus (FLAY-tus), see Chapter 8

Answer 1185

It may begin with 'F' or 'PH'. ## Footnote Example: phlegm (FLEM), see Chapter 7

Answer 1186

It may begin with 'G'. ## Footnote Example: gingivitis (jin-jih-VYE-tis), see Chapter 8

Answer 1187

It may begin with 'J'. ## Footnote Example: jaundice (JAWN-dis), see Chapter 8

Answer 1188

It may begin with 'C'. ## Footnote Example: crepitus (KREP-ih-tus), see Chapter 3

Answer 1189

It may begin with 'C' or 'CH'. ## Footnote Example: cheilitis (kye-LITE-is), see Chapter 8

Answer 1190

It may begin with 'K'. ## Footnote Example: kyphosis (kye-FOH-sis), see Chapter 3

Answer 1191

It may begin with 'Q'. ## Footnote Example: quadriplegia (kwad-rih-PLEE-jee-ah), see Chapter 4

Answer 1192

It may begin with 'C'. ## Footnote Example: cytology (sigh-TOL-oh-jee), see Chapter 2

Answer 1193

It may begin with 'P'. ## Footnote Example: psychologist (sigh-KOL-oh-jist), see Chapter 10

Answer 1194

It may begin with 'S'. ## Footnote Example: serum (SEER-um), see Chapter 5

Answer 1195

It may begin with 'Z'. ## Footnote Example: xeroderma (zee-roh-DER-mah), see Chapter 12

Answer 1196

It may begin with 'Z'. ## Footnote Example: zygote (ZYE-goht), see Chapter 14

Answer 1197

Begin your search with the last term.

Answer 1198

Visit at least two reputable sites.

Answer 1199

Beware of suggested search terms and double-check spelling.

Answer 1200

Ensure the application comes from a reputable source.

Answer 1201

A medical term is easier to understand and remember when pronounced properly.

Answer 1202

Otorhinolaryngology is the study of the ears, nose, and throat. ## Footnote ot/o means ear, rhin/o means nose, laryng means throat, and -ology means study of.

Answer 1203

The shortened term for otorhinolaryngology is ENT (ears, nose, and throat). ## Footnote Another shortened version is otolaryngology.

Answer 1204

Based on its word parts, lithotomy means a surgical incision for the removal of a stone. ## Footnote lith means stone, and -otomy means a surgical incision.

Answer 1205

Lithotomy is also the name of an examination position for a female patient lying on her back with her feet and legs raised in stirrups.

Answer 1206

A medical dictionary is important because some medical terms have more than one meaning, and it helps ensure accuracy.

Answer 1207

If you know how to spell the word, start in the appropriate section of the dictionary based on the first letter of the word.

Answer 1208

If you do not know how to spell the word, listen carefully to the term, write it down, and look for alternative spellings based on the beginning sound.

Answer 1209

Otorhinolaryngology is the study of the ears, nose, and throat. ## Footnote ot/o means ear, rhin/o means nose, laryng means throat, and -ology means study of.

Answer 1210

The shortened term for otorhinolaryngology is ENT (ears, nose, and throat). ## Footnote Another shortened version is otolaryngology.

Answer 1211

Based on its word parts, lithotomy means a surgical incision for the removal of a stone. ## Footnote lith means stone, and -otomy means a surgical incision.

Answer 1212

Lithotomy is also the name of an examination position for a female patient lying on her back with her feet and legs raised in stirrups.

Answer 1213

A medical dictionary is important because some medical terms have more than one meaning, and it helps ensure accuracy.

Answer 1214

If you know how to spell the word, start in the appropriate section of the dictionary based on the first letter of the word.

Answer 1215

If you do not know how to spell the word, listen carefully to the term, write it down, and look for alternative spellings based on the beginning sound.

Answer 1216

Postnatal refers to the time and events after birth. ## Footnote Post- means after, nat means birth, and -al means pertaining to.

Answer 1217

You may know some prefixes already by using your prior knowledge and experiences. ## Footnote For example, a postgame press conference happens after a game.

Answer 1218

Knowing the meaning of the word parts often makes it possible to figure out the definition of an unfamiliar medical term.

Answer 1219

Always start at the end of the word, with the suffix, and work toward the beginning.

Answer 1220

The suffix -ology means the study of.

Answer 1221

The word root laryng means larynx or throat.

Answer 1222

The combining form rhin/o means nose.

Answer 1223

Ab- means away from. ## Footnote Abnormal means not normal or away from normal.

Answer 1224

Dys- means bad, difficult, or painful. ## Footnote Dysfunctional means an organ or body part that is not working properly.

Answer 1225

Hyper- means excessive or increased. ## Footnote Hypertension is higher-than-normal blood pressure.

Answer 1226

Inter- means between or among. ## Footnote Interstitial means between, but not within, the parts of a tissue.

Answer 1227

Sub- means under, less, or below. ## Footnote Subcostal means below a rib or ribs.

Answer 1228

Ad- means toward or in the direction of. ## Footnote Addiction means being drawn toward or having a strong dependence on a drug or substance.

Answer 1229

Eu- means good, normal, well, or easy. ## Footnote Eupnea means easy or normal breathing.

Answer 1230

Hypo- means deficient or decreased. ## Footnote Hypotension is lower-than-normal blood pressure.

Answer 1231

Intra- means within or inside. ## Footnote Intramuscular means within the muscle.

Answer 1232

Super- and supra- mean above or excessive. ## Footnote Supracostal means above or outside the ribs.

Answer 1233

Prenatal means the time and events before birth. ## Footnote 'pre-' means before, 'nat' means birth, and '-al' means pertaining to.

Answer 1234

Perinatal refers to the time and events surrounding birth. ## Footnote 'peri-' means surrounding, 'nat' means birth, and '-al' means pertaining to.

Answer 1235

'Pre-' means before.

Answer 1236

'Peri-' means surrounding.

Answer 1237

Natal means pertaining to birth. ## Footnote 'nat' means birth, and '-al' means pertaining to.

Answer 1238

'Ab-' indicates away from, negative, or absent.

Answer 1239

'Ad-' indicates toward, to, or in the direction of.

Answer 1240

'Dextro-' means right side.

Answer 1241

'Sinistro-' means left side.

Answer 1242

'Macro-' means large, abnormal size, or long.

Answer 1243

'Micro-' means small.

Answer 1244

'Oligo-' indicates scanty or few.

Answer 1245

'Post-' means after or behind.

Answer 1246

Both terms mean stomach pain.

Answer 1247

It is the surgical puncture of the abdominal cavity to remove fluid. ## Footnote (abdomin/o means abdomen, and -centesis means a surgical puncture to remove fluid)

Answer 1248

-graphy means the process of producing a picture or record.

Answer 1249

It is the process of producing an x-ray of blood vessels after the injection of a contrast medium. ## Footnote (angi/o means blood vessel, and -graphy means the process of recording)

Answer 1250

-gram means a picture or record.

Answer 1251

It is the resulting film produced by angiography. ## Footnote (angi/o means blood vessel, and -gram means a picture or record)

Answer 1252

-plasty means surgical repair.

Answer 1253

It is the surgical repair of a muscle. ## Footnote (my/o means muscle, and -plasty means surgical repair)

Answer 1254

-scopy means visual examination.

Answer 1255

It is the visual examination of the internal structure of a joint. ## Footnote (arthr/o means joint, and -scopy means visual examination)

Answer 1256

It refers to the enlargement of the liver. ## Footnote (hepat/o means liver, and -megaly means enlargement)

Answer 1257

-malacia means abnormal softening.

Answer 1258

It is the abnormal softening of the walls of an artery or arteries. ## Footnote (arteri/o means artery, and -malacia means abnormal softening)

Answer 1259

-necrosis means tissue death.

Answer 1260

It is the tissue death of an artery or arteries. ## Footnote (arteri/o means artery, and -necrosis means tissue death)

Answer 1261

-sclerosis means abnormal hardening.

Answer 1262

It is the abnormal hardening of the walls of an artery or arteries. ## Footnote (arteri/o means artery, and -sclerosis means abnormal hardening)

Answer 1263

-stenosis means abnormal narrowing.

Answer 1264

It is the abnormal narrowing of an artery or arteries. ## Footnote (arteri/o means artery, and -stenosis means abnormal narrowing)

Answer 1265

-centesis is a surgical puncture to remove fluid for diagnostic purposes or to remove excess fluid.

Answer 1266

They mean bleeding, often used to describe sudden, severe bleeding.

Answer 1267

It is the loss of a large amount of blood in a short time. ## Footnote (hem/o means blood, and -rrhage means bleeding or abnormal excessive fluid discharge)

Answer 1268

-rrhaphy means surgical suturing to close a wound.

Answer 1269

It is the surgical suturing of a tendon. ## Footnote (ten/o means tendon, and -rrhaphy means surgical suturing)

Answer 1270

-rrhea means flow or discharge.

Answer 1271

It is the frequent flow of loose or watery stools. ## Footnote (dia- means through, and -rrhea means flow or discharge)

Answer 1272

The study of the structures of the body and the ways they work together to support the functions of life.

Answer 1273

The body's tendency toward homeostasis.

Answer 1274

The state of steady internal conditions maintained by living things.

Answer 1275

Observation with the naked eye and microscopes, manipulations, and measurements.

Answer 1276

Carefully designed laboratory experiments.

Answer 1277

The study of the brain, spinal cord, and nerves and how they work together to perform functions.

Answer 1278

From the organ level to the molecular level.

Answer 1279

Form is closely related to function, as seen in the quick action of the eyelid.

Answer 1280

The arrangement and function of the nerves and muscles that serve the eyelid.

Answer 1281

The interactions of specific molecules and ions.

Answer 1282

It is essential to their function.

Answer 1283

Gross anatomy considers large structures such as the brain.

Answer 1284

Microscopic anatomy deals with the same structures as gross anatomy, but at a different scale.

Answer 1285

The two approaches are regional anatomy and systemic anatomy.

Answer 1286

Regional anatomy is the study of the interrelationships of all structures in a specific body region, such as the abdomen.

Answer 1287

Studying regional anatomy helps us appreciate how muscles, nerves, blood vessels, and other structures work together in a body region.

Answer 1288

Systemic anatomy is the study of structures that make up a discrete body system, which work together to perform a unique body function.

Answer 1289

A systemic anatomical study of the muscular system would consider all of the skeletal muscles of the body.

Answer 1290

Anatomy is about structure, while physiology is about function.

Answer 1291

Human physiology is the scientific study of the chemistry and functions of the human body.

Answer 1292

The word 'anatomy' comes from a Greek root that means 'to cut apart.'

Answer 1293

Human anatomy was first studied by observing the exterior of the body and the wounds of soldiers and other injuries.

Answer 1294

Dissection is the process of cutting apart a body to observe its structures and their relationships.

Answer 1295

Dissection is still used in medical schools, anatomy courses, and pathology labs.

Answer 1296

A number of imaging techniques have been developed to visualize structures inside the living body.

Answer 1297

Gross anatomy is the study of larger structures of the body that are visible without magnification.

Answer 1298

'Macro-' means 'large,' thus gross anatomy is also referred to as macroscopic anatomy.

Answer 1299

Microscopic anatomy is the study of structures that can only be observed with a microscope or magnification devices.

Answer 1300

Microscopic anatomy includes cytology, the study of cells, and histology, the study of tissues.

Answer 1301

As microscope technology has advanced, anatomists have been able to observe smaller structures of the body.

Answer 1302

Understanding anatomy and physiology helps make healthful choices and take appropriate action when signs of illness arise.

Answer 1303

It aids in understanding nutrition, medications, medical devices, procedures, and diseases.

Answer 1304

It provides an overview of body regions and functions, characteristics of life, and how the body maintains stable conditions.

Answer 1305

Standard terms for body structures, planes, and positions.

Answer 1306

The scientific study of the body's structures.

Answer 1307

Compare and contrast anatomy and physiology, and discuss their fundamental relationship.

Answer 1308

Anatomy is the study of the structure of the body, while physiology is the study of the functions of those structures.

Answer 1309

The six levels of organization are: chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, system, and organism.

Answer 1310

The functional characteristics of human life include organization, metabolism, responsiveness, movement, development, reproduction, and adaptation.

Answer 1311

The four requirements for human survival are: nutrients, oxygen, water, and appropriate temperature.

Answer 1312

Homeostasis is the maintenance of a stable internal environment despite changes in external conditions.

Answer 1313

Homeostasis is crucial for normal human functioning as it regulates vital parameters such as temperature, pH, and electrolyte balance.

Answer 1314

Anatomical terminology is a standardized language used to describe body structures, regions, and directions.

Answer 1315

Medical imaging techniques include X-rays, MRI, CT scans, and ultrasound, each with specific functions and uses in medicine.

Answer 1316

Cyan/o means blue.

Answer 1317

Cyanosis is blue discoloration of the skin caused by lack of adequate oxygen in the blood. ## Footnote Cyan means blue, and -osis means abnormal condition or disease.

Answer 1318

Erythr/o means red.

Answer 1319

An erythrocyte is a mature red blood cell. ## Footnote Erythr/o means red, and -cyte means cell.

Answer 1320

Leuk/o means white.

Answer 1321

A leukocyte is a white blood cell. ## Footnote Leuk/o means white, and -cyte means cell.

Answer 1322

Melan/o means black.

Answer 1323

Melanoma is a type of skin cancer. ## Footnote Melan means black, and -oma means a tumor.

Answer 1324

Poli/o means gray.

Answer 1325

Poliomyelitis is a viral infection of the gray nerve tissue of the spinal cord. ## Footnote Poli/o means gray, myel means spinal cord, and -itis means inflammation.

Answer 1326

Pain, suffering

Answer 1327

Surgical removal, cutting out

Answer 1328

Picture or record

Answer 1329

Excessive, increased

Answer 1330

Deficient, decreased

Answer 1331

Inflammation

Answer 1332

Abnormal condition, disease

Answer 1333

The surgical creation of an artificial opening to the body surface

Answer 1334

Before, in front of

Answer 1335

Surgical repair

Answer 1336

Bleeding, abnormal excessive fluid discharge

Answer 1337

Surgical suturing

Answer 1338

Flow or discharge

Answer 1339

Abnormal hardening

Answer 1340

A procedure to remove fluid from the abdomen

Answer 1341

A word formed from the initial letters of a series of words

Answer 1342

A condition that comes on suddenly and is severe in nature

Answer 1343

A medical imaging technique used to visualize the inside of blood vessels

Answer 1344

Surgical removal of the appendix

Answer 1345

Hardening of the arteries

Answer 1346

Joint pain

Answer 1347

A surgical procedure that creates an opening from the colon to the abdominal surface

Answer 1348

A bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen

Answer 1349

A doctor who specializes in skin conditions

Answer 1350

The identification of the nature of an illness

Answer 1351

Frequent, watery bowel movements

Answer 1352

Swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues

Answer 1353

Pertaining to the inner lining of an artery

Answer 1354

A disease or procedure named after a person

Answer 1355

A red blood cell

Answer 1356

A small tear or crack in the skin or tissue

Answer 1357

An abnormal connection between two body parts

Answer 1358

Stomach pain

Answer 1359

Inflammation of the stomach lining

Answer 1360

Inflammation of the stomach and intestines

Answer 1361

Any disease of the stomach

Answer 1362

Excessive bleeding

Answer 1363

Enlargement of the liver

Answer 1364

High blood pressure

Answer 1365

Low blood pressure

Answer 1366

The invasion of the body by harmful organisms

Answer 1367

The body's response to injury or infection

Answer 1368

Pertaining to spaces within tissues

Answer 1369

Within the muscle

Answer 1370

A deep cut or tear in skin or flesh

Answer 1371

An abnormal change in tissue

Answer 1372

A general feeling of discomfort or unease

Answer 1373

A fungal infection

Answer 1374

A disease of the spinal cord

Answer 1375

A disease of muscle tissue

Answer 1376

Relating to birth

Answer 1377

The study of newborns

Answer 1378

Surgical suturing of a nerve

Answer 1379

The study of the ear, nose, and throat

Answer 1380

The act of examining by touch

Answer 1381

A noticeably rapid or irregular heartbeat

Answer 1382

The study of diseases

Answer 1383

The bones of the fingers and toes

Answer 1384

A viral disease that can affect nerves and can lead to partial or full paralysis

Answer 1385

The likely outcome of a disease

Answer 1386

A bacterial skin infection

Answer 1387

A decrease in or disappearance of signs and symptoms of a disease

Answer 1388

An objective indication of a disease

Answer 1389

The act of turning the palm up

Answer 1390

The formation of pus

Answer 1391

Above the ribs

Answer 1392

A subjective indication of a disease

Answer 1393

A group of symptoms that occur together

Answer 1394

Surgical suturing of a tendon

Answer 1395

Inflammation of the tonsils

Answer 1396

A physical injury or wound

Answer 1397

The process of determining the priority of patients' treatments

Answer 1398

Relating to or caused by a virus

Answer 1399

Pain, suffering

Answer 1400

Surgical removal, cutting out

Answer 1401

Picture or record

Answer 1402

Excessive, increased

Answer 1403

Deficient, decreased

Answer 1404

Inflammation

Answer 1405

Abnormal condition, disease

Answer 1406

The surgical creation of an artificial opening to the body surface

Answer 1407

Before, in front of

Answer 1408

Surgical repair

Answer 1409

Bleeding, abnormal excessive fluid discharge

Answer 1410

Surgical suturing

Answer 1411

Flow or discharge

Answer 1412

Abnormal hardening

Answer 1413

A procedure to remove fluid from the abdomen

Answer 1414

A word formed from the initial letters of a series of words

Answer 1415

A condition that comes on suddenly and is severe in nature

Answer 1416

A medical imaging technique used to visualize the inside of blood vessels

Answer 1417

Surgical removal of the appendix

Answer 1418

Hardening of the arteries

Answer 1419

Joint pain

Answer 1420

A surgical procedure that creates an opening from the colon to the abdominal surface

Answer 1421

A bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen

Answer 1422

A doctor who specializes in skin conditions

Answer 1423

The identification of the nature of an illness

Answer 1424

Frequent, watery bowel movements

Answer 1425

Swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues

Answer 1426

Pertaining to the inner lining of an artery

Answer 1427

A disease or procedure named after a person

Answer 1428

A red blood cell

Answer 1429

A small tear or crack in the skin or tissue

Answer 1430

An abnormal connection between two body parts

Answer 1431

Stomach pain

Answer 1432

Inflammation of the stomach lining

Answer 1433

Inflammation of the stomach and intestines

Answer 1434

Any disease of the stomach

Answer 1435

Excessive bleeding

Answer 1436

Enlargement of the liver

Answer 1437

High blood pressure

Answer 1438

Low blood pressure

Answer 1439

The invasion of the body by harmful organisms

Answer 1440

The body's response to injury or infection

Answer 1441

Pertaining to spaces within tissues

Answer 1442

Within the muscle

Answer 1443

A deep cut or tear in skin or flesh

Answer 1444

An abnormal change in tissue

Answer 1445

A general feeling of discomfort or unease

Answer 1446

A fungal infection

Answer 1447

A disease of the spinal cord

Answer 1448

A disease of muscle tissue

Answer 1449

Relating to birth

Answer 1450

The study of newborns

Answer 1451

Surgical suturing of a nerve

Answer 1452

The study of the ear, nose, and throat

Answer 1453

The act of examining by touch

Answer 1454

A noticeably rapid or irregular heartbeat

Answer 1455

The study of diseases

Answer 1456

The bones of the fingers and toes

Answer 1457

A viral disease that can affect nerves and can lead to partial or full paralysis

Answer 1458

The likely outcome of a disease

Answer 1459

A bacterial skin infection

Answer 1460

A decrease in or disappearance of signs and symptoms of a disease

Answer 1461

An objective indication of a disease

Answer 1462

The act of turning the palm up

Answer 1463

The formation of pus

Answer 1464

Above the ribs

Answer 1465

A subjective indication of a disease

Answer 1466

A group of symptoms that occur together

Answer 1467

Surgical suturing of a tendon

Answer 1468

Inflammation of the tonsils

Answer 1469

A physical injury or wound

Answer 1470

The process of determining the priority of patients' treatments

Answer 1471

Relating to or caused by a virus

Medical Terms Flashcards

(1536 cards)