Medicine: Medication List

Question 1

Keflex (cephalexin)

Answer 1

500mg
1 tab PO q12h, #28
Staph and strep; no MRSA cov’g
Renal dosing required

Question 2

Augmentin (amoxicilin/clavulanate)

Answer 2

500/125mg
1 tab PO q12h, #28
Staph; no MRSA cov’g
Good for PCN-resistant organisms not cov’d by Keflex

Question 3

Kefzol (cefazolin)

Answer 3

1g

IV pre-op for sx prophylaxis 30-60min prior to sx per SCIP protocols

Question 4

Cipro (ciprofloxacin)

Answer 4

500mg
1 tab PO q12h, #28
Soft tissue Gr+ and Gr- organisms
Antipseudomonal
Commonly combined with clinda=broad spectrum for DM foot

Question 5

Cleocin (clindamycin)

Answer 5

300mg
1 tab PO q6h, #56
Soft tissue Gr+ ANAEROBIC cov'g
Commonly combined w/ Cipro-->DM foot
SCIP=bacterial prophylaxis w/ sx=600mg IV

Question 6

Bactrim DS (trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole)

Answer 6

160/800mg
1 tab PO q12h, #28
Soft tissue and bone infection
MRSA cov’g (however, w/ incr resistance)

Question 7

Zyvox (linezolid)

Answer 7

600mg
1 tab PO q12h, #28
MRSA (good IV–>PO drug from MRSA when transitioning from hospital to outpatient w/o need for PICC line)
Also, VRE (Vanco-Resistant Enterococcus) cov’g

Question 8

Vancomycin

Answer 8

1g
IV q12h
MRSA; no pseudomonal cov’g
Must be given 2h prior to incision when utilized for pre-op bacerial prophylaxis

Question 9

Invanz (ertapenem)

Answer 9

1g
IV q24h
Skin infections including complicated DM foot
Broad spectrum w/ no pseudomonal or MRSA cov’g

Question 10

Zosyn (piperacillin/tazobactam)

Answer 10

3.375g
IV q6h
Broad spectrum for DM foot
Pseudomonal cov'g
NO MRSA cov'g

Question 11

Unasyn (ampicillin/sulbactam)

Answer 11

3g
IV q6h
Broad spectrum Gr +&- and anerobes
Skin and bone infection
No MRSA or pseudomonal cov'g

Question 12

Motrin (ibuprofen)

Answer 12

800mg
1 tab PO q6h, #120
Non-selective COX inhibitor

Question 13

Celebrex (celecoxib)

Answer 13

200mg
1 tab PO qd, #30
Selective COX-2 inhibitor
Contraindicated if sulfa allergy

Question 14

Naprosyn (naproxen)

Answer 14

500mg
1 tab PO bid, #60
Non-selective COX inhibitor

Question 15

Indocin (indomethacin)

Answer 15

50mg
1 tab PO tid, #42
Very irritating to stomach
Gout (2 week course)

Question 16

Toradol (ketoralac)

Answer 16

10mg
1 tab PO q6h, #20
Not to utilize beyond 5d due to renal toxicity
Contraindicated if h/o asthma

Question 17

Benadryl (diphenhydramine)

Answer 17

50mg

at onset of reaction

Question 18

Tylenol w/ codeine (APAP/codeine)

Answer 18

300/30mg

1-2 tabs PO q6h, #114

Question 19

Vicodin (hydrocodone/APAP)

Answer 19

5/300mg

1-2 tabs PO q6h, #40

Question 20

Ultram (tramadol)

Answer 20

50mg
1 tab PO q6h prn pain, #56
Limits NE/serotonin uptake

Question 21

Nucynta (tapentadol)

Answer 21

50mg
1 tab PO q8h prn pain, #40
Acute pain relief opioid that does not produce euphoria

Question 22

Narcan (naloxone)

Answer 22

0.1-0.2mg
IV q3min prn
Opioid reversal

Question 23

MS Contin ER (morphine sulfate ER)

Answer 23

15mg
1 tab PO q12h, #28
Also 2-10mg IV for acute/mod pain q2-6h

Question 24

Percocet (oxycodone/APAP)

Answer 24

5/325mg

1-2 tabs PO q6h prn pain, #40

Question 25

PCA-morphine sulfate

Answer 25

1mg/ml PCA q10min CAUTION: compromised renal fxn=incr in 2ry metabolites that can cause erratic and delusional behavior

Question 26

PCA-dilaudid

Answer 26

0.1mg/ml PCA q10min No active 2ry metabolites produced

Question 27

Versed (midazolam)

Answer 27

1mg | IV for pre-op sedation

Question 28

Ambien (zolpidem)

Answer 28

5mg 1 tab PO qhs prn insomnia, #14 Can be given for insomnia w/ post-op pain

Question 29

Flexeril (cyclobenzaprine)

Answer 29

10mg 1 tab PO tid, #40 Pain assoc w/ muscle spasm Joint distraction, ex-fix distraction re-alignment, spasms after major tendon sx

Question 30

Valium (diazepam)

Answer 30

5mg 1 tab PO tid, #40 Pain assoc w/ muscle spasm Joint distraction, ex-fix distraction re-alignment, spasms after major tendon sx Also used for anxiety, pre-op sedation, EtOH withdrawl S&S

Question 31

Cymbalta (duloxetine)

Answer 31

60mg 1 tab PO qd, #30 Peripheral neuropathy Contraindicated in glaucoma and psych illness

Question 32

Neurontin (gabapentin)

Answer 32

300mg Tapered dose: 300mg qd Day1, then 300mg bid Day2, then 300mg tid Day3 Incr up to max dose of 1200mg/day

Question 33

Lyrica (pregabalin)

Answer 33

50mg 1 tab PO tid, #90 May incr to 100mg tid

Question 34

Lamisil (terbinafine)

Answer 34

250mg 1 tab PO qd, #90 LFT should be normal prior to therapy

Question 35

Lotrisone (clotrimazole/betamethasone)

Answer 35

1% cream | Apply to feet daily, #45g tube

Question 36

Naftin

Answer 36

1% cream | Apply to feet daily, #15g tube

Question 37

Loprox/Penlac (ciclopirox)

Answer 37

8% Solution | Apply to nails qhs and remove w/ EtOH q7days, #6.6mls

Question 38

Clecin T (clindamycin topical)

Answer 38

1% gel Apply bid between digits, #45g tube Used for 2ry interdigital bacterial infections assoc w/ Tinea pedis

Question 39

Medrol dose pack (methylprednisolone)

Answer 39

Taper dose of steroid over 6 days, from 24mg Day1 down to 4mg/day

Question 40

Phenergan (promethazine)

Answer 40

25mg 1 tab PO q6h, #12 Post-op nausea Potentiates opioid effect of narcotics=caution when used in combination

Question 41

Zofran (ondansetron)

Answer 41

4mg | 1 tab PO q8h prn NV, #12

Question 42

Prilosec (omeprazole)

Answer 42

20mg 1 tab PO qd, #30 Gastric ulcer prophylaxis w/ NSAID use in high-risk pts

Question 43

Lovenox (enoxaparin)

Answer 43

40mg SQ qd for DVT prophylaxis w/ immobility DVT/PE tx for inpatient=1mg/kg SQ q12h

Question 44

Coumadin (warfarin)

Answer 44

5mg 1 tab PO qd, #30 Extended DVT prophylaxis

Question 45

Heparin

Answer 45

5000 units | SQ q12h for DVT prophylaxis

Question 46

What is the max dose of Tylenol (APAP) in 24h?

Answer 46

4g

Question 46

What does PC stand for, in terms of prescription writing?

Answer 46

After Meals

Question 47

What does AC mean, in terms of prescription writing?

Answer 47

Before Meals