Menopause and Osteoporosis Pharmacology Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

Treatment method for mild vulvovaginal symptoms

A

vaginal moisturizers or lubricants → alleviate dryness, burning, itching, dyspareuria

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2
Q

Treatment method for moderate to severe vulvovaginal symptoms

A

non-systemic vaginal estrogen product → cream, ring, tablet, insert

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3
Q

Oral drugs that is FDA approved for dyspareunia

A

ospemifene

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4
Q

Ospermifenese is a SERM (selective estrogen receptor modulator) and what is the MOA in helping vulvovaginal symptoms ?

A

activates estrogen pathwaays in some tissues and blocks in others
agonist in endometrium

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5
Q

Adverse effects of ospermifenese

A

may cause vasomotor symptoms

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6
Q

what are the estrogen warnings for ospemifene?

A

endometrial cancer, DVT, stroke

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7
Q

vaginal insert that is FDA approved for dyspareunia → “treat painful intercourse due to menopause without FDA boxed safety warning”

A

prasterone

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8
Q

nonpharmacologic methods to treat vasomotor symptoms

A

wear layers, lower room temperatures, decrease intake of spicy food/caffeine/ hot drinks, exercisse, maintain healthy body weight, don’t smoke, relaxation techniques

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9
Q

Treatment of vasomotor symptoms as well as preventing endometrial hyperplasia in a patient with intact uterus?
If they had hysterectomy?

A

progestin + estrogen

just estrogen

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10
Q

In treating vasomotor symptoms, which systemic progesterone product has shown better outcomes - medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) or micronized progesterone?

A

micronized progesterone

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11
Q

Tissue selective estrogen complex approved for moderate to severe vasomotor symptoms and prevent osteoporosis

A

conjugated estrogen + bazedoxifene

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12
Q

Nonhormonal products that can be used to treat vasomotor symptoms

A

SSRI (paroxetine), SNRI (venlafaxine), clonidine, gabapentin

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13
Q

How effective are phytoestrogens (plant compounds, soy, flaxseed, alfalfa) and black cohosh?

A

should not be recommended

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14
Q

What is the reality of custom prepared or compounded hormone therapies?

A

lack evidence regarding safety/efficacy/quality
no support saliva testing for adjustments
same risks as traditional therapies
not FDA supported

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15
Q

Lifestyle modifications for healthier bones

A

< 3 drinks/day, exercise, stop smoking, increase dietary calcium intake, lower caffeine intake

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16
Q

Receommended calcium intake in women 51 and older and the upper limit of calcium

A

1200 mg

2000 mg

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17
Q

If your patient is on a PPI what calcium supplement is recommended?

A

calcium citracte

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18
Q

why is taking calcium carbonate (tums) contraindicated in patients taking PPI?

A

PPI will decrease absorption

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19
Q

what is the recommended Vitamin D intake in patients > 70 years?

A

800 units

4,000 units

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20
Q

What are the 3 main sources of vitamin D?

A

sunlight, diet, supplements

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21
Q

what organs are involved in creating the metabolically active form of vitamin D (1,25-dihydroxy)?

A

liver and kidney

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22
Q

What meds increase bone resorption?

A

glucocorticoids
levothyroxine
SGLT2 inhibitors

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23
Q

What meds increase osteoclast and/or decrease osteoblast activity?

A

antiretrovirals
heparin
thiazolidinediones
vitamin A

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24
Q

What meds decrease estrogen and sex hormone concentrations?

A

GnRH

DMPA

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25
Med that increase renal calcium elimination
loop diuretics
26
Med that can cause calcium malabsorption
PPI
27
Med that increases Vitamin D metabolism
anticonvulsants
28
This is used to identify patients at risk for osteoporosis or osteoporotic fractices and to determine if need further evaluation (DXA scan) or pharmacologic intervention
Fracture Risk Assessment Tool (FRAX)
29
What are the two values you receive with FRAX?
1. 10 year probability of ANY major osteoporotic fracture | 2. 10 year probability of hip fracture
30
What is the gold standard for BMD measurements?
DXA Scan (central dual energy Xray absorptiometry)
31
Who is recommended to receive DXA scan?
all women +65 years
32
Why is DXA the gold standard fro BMD?
precise and stable calibration, short scan times, low radiation doses
33
T score between -1 and -2.5 indicates
osteopenia
34
T score <2.5 indicates
osteoporosis
35
If your patients has low trauma vertebral or hip fracture and meets the criteria to get central DXA scan (regardless of the score) what should you recommend?
bone healthy lifestyle Calcium (1,000-1,2000/day) Vitamin D (800-1,000/day)
36
``` If your patient has: low trauma hip or vertebral fx osteoporosis FRAX risk >20% FRAX risk for hip >3% + osteopenia what should you give and when should get next DXA? ```
prescription therapy | DXA in 2 years
37
First line prescritpion therapy for osteoporosis
alendronate, risedronate, zoledronic acid, denosumab
38
Second line prescription therapy for osteoporosis
ibandronate, raloxifene, teriparatide, abaloparatide
39
Third line prescription therapy for osteoporosis
calcitonin
40
What are the two types of agents approved for treating osteoporosis?
anti-resorptive and anabolic therapies/formation agents
41
Which three bisphosphonates are first line in preventing the breakdown of bone and decreasing the risk of hip fractures?
risedronate, alendronate, zoledronic acid
42
Which bisphosphonate is not considered first line since the decrease in risk of hip fractures has not been proven?
ibandronate
43
What is important about when to take bisphosphonate?
take prior to food/other meds
44
Which bisphosphonate should be taken immediately after breakfast (unlike the others)?
risedronate (atelvia)
45
two recommendations to decrease the side effects seen when taking bisphosphonates
take with water and remain upright after taking → decreases reflux
46
contraindications for taking bisphosphonates
CrCl < 30-35 pregnancy uncorrected hypocalcemia
47
Rare ADE seen in bisphosphonates
MSK pain, osteonecrosis of jaw, typical (subtrochanteric) femur fractures
48
contraindications and ADE of oral bisphosphonates
serious GI conditions or can't sit/stand after dose | GI complaints
49
When should you consider a "drug holiday" for oral bisphosphonates?
after 5 years (3 years if on IV)
50
Your patient can go on "drug holiday" if they meet what criteria?
no significant fracture history, hip BMD T score < 2.5, fracture risk isn't high
51
This drug is antiresorptive → prevents osteoclast formation by binding to nuclear factor kappa ligant (RANKL)
denosumab → rank ligand inhibitor
52
This is secreted by osteoblasts and normally activates osteoclast precursors → promoting osteolysis and increasing serum calcium levels
RANKL
53
What is the difference between Prolia and Xgeva?
Prolia is first line and Xgeva is not indicated for osteoporosis
54
Contraindications for denosumab (prolia)
uncorrected hypocalcemia or pregnancy
55
This is the prefered antiresorptive treatemtn in patients with renal failure
denosumab (prolia)
56
Antiresorptive that decreases bone resorption by acting as estogen agonist in bone → second line
raloxifene
57
contraindications of ratoxifene
history or current VTE, pregnancy, use of other SERMs
58
Adverse effects of ratoxifene → why its 2nd line
thromboemolic events, hot flashes, increase risk of fatal stroke
59
These anabolic agents mimic the effects of endogenous hormones to stimulate osteoblast function and increases rate of bone formation
PTH analogs → teriparatide or abaloparatide
60
This is recombinant form of endogenous PTH that mimics endocrine effects of endogenous PTH
teriparatide
61
analog of PTH related protein that mimics paracrine effects of endogenous PTH rP
abaloparatide
62
How are PTH analogs efficatious?
low intermittent concentrations of PTH for short period actually INCREASES bone formation
63
contraindications for PTH analogs
increased risk of osteosarcoma
64
ADE of PTH analogs
orthostatic hypotension and hypercalcemia, urolithiasis, increased uric acid, osteosarcoma
65
Last line in treating osteoporosis
calcitonin
66
Antiresorptive that inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption by antagonizing the effects of PTH (similar to human calcitonin)
calcitonin
67
contraindication for calcitonin
hypersensitive to salmon derived products
68
ADE of calcitonin
hypocalcemia, hypersensitivity reactions, nausea, flushing, local inflammation, rhinitis, epistaxis