Mental disorders Flashcards
(143 cards)
1
Q
The following are characteristics of delirium tremens, except for:
A) high risk for suicide
B) fluctuating confusion
C) signs of autonomic hyperactivity
D) tactile hallucinations
A
A) high risk for suicide
2
Q
The person has clear consciousness. He can hear voices that are talking about him and threatening him. For the person, the voices seem to be reality and they are a very disturbing experience, which makes him feel intensely anxious. What do you think the diagnosis is?
A) delirium tremens
B) alcoholic hallucinosis
C) dementia
D) panic disorder
E) obsessive-compulsive disorder
A
B) alcoholic hallucinosis
3
Q
The following are typical sympoms of delirium tremens, except for:
A) tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures at onset
B) auditory hallucinations without an altered level of consciousness and disorientation
C) shaking, sweating
D) confusion
E) disorientation
A
B) auditory hallucinations without an altered level of consciousness and disorientation
4
Q
Among the following, what are the interpersonal relationships of persons with alcohol problems characterised by the most?
A) a high number of reliable friends
B) simplicity of making friends
C) deep and close associations with certain persons
D) simple formation of social relations, but these are not durable
E) generosity, helpfulness, reliability
A
D) simple formation of social relations, but these are not durable
5
Q
Delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal are to be treated with the following:
1) benzodiazepines
2) vitamin B complex (or thiamine)
3) potassium and magnesium preparations
4) disulfiram
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
6
Q
What is/are the most characteristic symptom(s) of delirium tremens?
1) tremor
2) sweating
3) confusion
4) perceptual disorders
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A
E) all of the answers are correct
7
Q
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is characterised by the following:
1) sudden onset
2) nystagmus and ophtalmoplegia
3) confusion along with somnolence
4) lesions of the mammillary bodies
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A
E) all of the answers are correct
8
Q
The diagnostic criterion/criteria for alcohol dependence is/are the following:
1) tolerance (need for increased amounts of alcohol to achieve desired effect)
2) characteristic withdrawal syndrome for alcohol when attempting to stop use
3) a great deal of time spent in activities necessary to obtain or to use alcohol and important social, occupational or recreational activities given up or reduced because of drinking
4) craving
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A
E) all of the answers are correct
9
Q
The diagnostic criterion/criteria for alcohol abuse is/are the following:
1) failure to fulfill major role obligations at work, school or home
2) alcohol use in situations in which it is physically hazardous
3) alcohol-related legal problems
4) continued alcohol use despite having persistent or recurrent social or interpersonal problems
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A
E) all of the answers are correct
10
Q
The following statement(s) is/are true for the neurobiolgy of alcohol use:
1) Alcohol affects several neurotransmitter systems.
2) Chronic alcohol use does not affect the operation of the reward system in the brainstem.
3) The endogenous opioid system plays a role in the appearance of euphoria following alcohol consumption.
4) Alcohol does not influence the operation of cortical areas (e.g. prefrontal cortex).
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
11
Q
Which test(s) is/are to be performed to find the correct diagnosis?A 16-year-old girl has arrived at the outpatient ward with her mother. In the past few months she has lost 15 kilos. She goes running every day. She has insomnia.
1) urine drug test
2) calculating body mass index
3) concentrations of thyroid hormones (blood test)
4) polysomnography
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
12
Q
What do you think his most likely diagnosis was?
An 18-year-old man arrived at the hospital on Sunday morning. He was accompanied by his friends. His symptoms were sweating, tachycardia, dilated pupils, psychomotor agitation. His behaviour was hostile, full of anger and he felt furious.
A) alcohol intoxication
B) heroin intoxication
C) acute psychotic state of schizophrenia
D) cocaine intoxication
E) none of the above
A
D) cocaine intoxication
13
Q
Among the following which is not a characteristic symptom of heroin overdose?
A) dilated pupils
B) hypotension
C) hyporeflexia
D) coma
E) respiratory depression
A
A) dilated pupils
14
Q
Among the following substances which may cause physical dependence?
A) benzodiazepines
B) opiates
C) alcohol
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
A
D) all of the above
15
Q
The following statements are true except for:
A) Besides “classical drugs” there are a lot of synthetic, so-called designer drugs that have been used recently.
B) Standard urine drug tests are incapable of detecting designer drugs.
C) Synthetic amphetamines, sytnthetic opioids and synthetic cannabionids are all designer drugs.
D) Pathomechanism and possible adverse effects of designer drugs are clearly known.
E) There is an inappropriate legal regulation regarding the use of designer drugs.
A
D) Pathomechanism and possible adverse effects of designer drugs are clearly known.
16
Q
The following play(s) a role in the long-term treatment of substance-related mental disorders:
1) self-help groups (Narcotics Anonymous)
2) rehabilitation centres and therapeutic communities
3) social skills training and improving coping skills
4) family interventions and community-based interventions
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A
E) all of the answers are correct
17
Q
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
1) Heroin was temporarily used to treat morphinism.
2) Cocaine used to play a role in the treatment of several diseases at the beginning of the 20th century.
3) Cannabis and its derivatives may have a role in the treatment of glaucoma, cancer-related pain and chemotherapy-induced nausea.
4) Some amphetamine derivatives are used in the therapy for ADHD.
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A
E) all of the answers are correct
18
Q
Rapid cycling is a special form of bipolar disorder, this means that:
A) the patient has flight of ideas
B) the case isn’t characterized by anxiety.
C) 4 relapses during a period of 5 years
D) Disease episodes follow each other rapidly, the patient has at least 4 different episodes in one year.
E) considerable psychomotor agitation
A
D) Disease episodes follow each other rapidly, the patient has at least 4 different episodes in one year.
19
Q
In which condition do patients experience the most severe anxiety after awakening in the early morning hours?
A) post-stroke depression
B) major depression
C) pharmacogenic depression
D) abstinential depression
A
B) major depression
20
Q
Which is the most common delusion in depression?
A) delusion of theft
B) delusion of guilt and self-accusation
C) persecutory delusion
D) delusions of reference
A
B) delusion of guilt and self-accusation
21
Q
The longitudinal disease course of affective psychoses is characterized by:
A) circularly returning disease episodes
B) slow progression
C) acute worsening of condition alternating with slow progression
D) single episode
E) dementia
A
A) circularly returning disease episodes
22
Q
The following statements are true for bipolar disorder, except:
A) it often runs in families
B) all manic episodes are followed by depression
C) equal distribution between sexes
D) usually begins before the age of 30 years
E) increased risk of substance abuse and suicide
A
B) all manic episodes are followed by depression
23
Q
41 year old male patient complains that he hasn’t accomplished anything in the last 8 years, he feels dissatisfied and unhappy. 12 years ago, when his girlfriend left him he felt depressed. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A) Psychotic depression
B) Schizophrenia
C) Bipolar depression
D) Dysthymia
E) Cyclothymia
A
D) Dysthymia
24
Q
Symptoms of mania except for:
1) aggression
2) egodiastole
3) secondary incoherence
4) increased critical insight
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A
D) only the 4th answer is correct
25
Potential complications of untreated affective disorders:
1) suicide
2) pseudologia phantastica
3) alcohol dependence
4) vascular dementia
5) social dysfunction and isolation
6) bulimia
7) tardive dyskinesia
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
D) only the 2nd, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
E) only the1st, 2nd, 3rd, 5th and 7th answers are correct
F) only the 2nd, 3rd, 6th and 7th answers are correct
G) all of the answers are correct
C) only the1st, 3rd and 5th answers are correct
26
What are the features of bipolar disorder type II.?
1) Patients of this disease type are not really bipolar.
2) Fulminant manic symptoms during the manic episodes.
3) Manic symptoms are caused by pharmacological treatment.
4) Episodes of hyperthymia only reach the level of hypomania, and usually don't require hospitalization.
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
27
Somatic symptoms of depression:
1) insomnia
2) delusions of guilt and self-accusation
3) decreased appetite
4) concentration problems
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
28
Which of the following symptoms are typical for the manic condition?
1) distractibility and increased self-esteem
2) holothymic perceptual disturbances and delusions of grandeur
3) increased activity and decreased need for sleep
4) a specific external factor before the appearance of symptoms
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
29
Which of the following medications can cause manic symptoms?
1) cocaine, speed (metamphetamin)
2) corticosteroids
3) high dose antidepressants
4) reserpine
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
30
Sleep pattern in major depression is characterized by the following changes:
1) frequent frightening dreams and awakenings
2) both falling asleep (sleep onset) and awakening happens earlier than usual
3) 4th phase sleep (delta-phase) is increased
4) decreased REM-latency
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
31
Which disorders should be considered while establishing a differential diagnosis for affective disorders?
1) expansive intracranial process
2) thyroid gland dysfunction
3) phaeochromocytoma
4) adult ADHD (attention deficit and hyperactivity disorder)
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
32
Patients with severe depression are most probably:
1) reckless and careless
2) agitated and anxious
3) hostile and dismissive
4) sad, unhappy and anhedonic
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
33
Characteristics of dysthymia:
1) chronic fatigue
2) social withdrawal
3) insomnia
4) hypersomnia
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
34
A 22 year old university student suddenly demonstrates elevated mood at the end of an exam period, his appearance becomes markable and bold, his behavior is careless, he has no critical insight. He is active all the time, spends a lot of money, doesn't feel tired for more than one week. He has no illness insight, he describes his condition as "superhappy". Which are probable diagnoses:
1) personality disorder
2) narcomania
3) primitive reaction
4) manic or hypomanic episode
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
35
Typical symptoms of depression:
1) decreased capability to concentrate
2) hypochondriasis
3) weight loss
4) perceptual disturbances
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
36
Who gave schizophrenia its name?
A) Emil Kraepelin
B) Eugen Bleuler
C) William Cullen
D) Kurt Schneider
E) Karl Kleist
B) Eugen Bleuler
37
The following are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia except for:
A) apathy
B) alogia
C) lack of motivation
D) delusional guilt, sin, worthlessness
E) social withdrawal
D) delusional guilt, sin, worthlessness
38
The diagnosis of schizophrenia is primarily based on:
A) clinical observation and the analysis of symptoms
B) alterations in biological markers
C) the Rorschach test
D) Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale
E) the MAWI test (the Hungarian version of Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale)
A) clinical observation and the analysis of symptoms
39
The following are characteristic of the prodromal phase of schizophrenia except for:
A) it usually begins following puberty
B) presence of changes in perceptual experiences, behaviour, performance
C) progressively intensifying symptoms
D) lack of insight
E) it usually lasts for 2-5 years
D) lack of insight
40
The following may have a role in the etiology of schizophrenia:
1) dysfunction of dopaminergic systems
2) alteration in NMDA(N-methyl-D-aspartate)-transmission
3) abnormal brain development
4) alteration in GABAergic transmission in the cerebral cortex
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
41
The following diagnosis/diagnoses are to be exluded when diagnosing schizophrenia:
1) Inflammation in central nervous system like anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis
2) Illicit drug abuse
3) Psychotic depression
4) Schizoaffective psychosis
5) Tumor
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
42
The following is/are characteristic(s) of the course of schizophrenia:
1) it is always episodic
2) the acute phase is usually preceeded by a prodromal phase
3) there are neither delusions nor hallucinations in remissions
4) in remission behaviour is anot altered by delusions and/or hallucinations
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
43
Observing behaviour change one suspects psychosis when
1) the change is socially unreasonable
2) the behaviour is threatening personal safety and property
3) the change is inexplicable from the person's aspect
4) the behaviour is different from what is culturally accepted
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
44
The following is/are the characteristic(s) of delusional disorder:
1) elaborate and systematized delusions
2) other criteria for schizophrenia are not fulfilled
3) impaired insight and judgement regarding delusions
4) development is not to be linked to a 'key experience'
5) psychodynamic factors do not play a role in the development of delusions
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
45
In which type of psychosis are the following psychiatric symptoms prominent? Match the symptoms with the most probable diagnosis. Diagnoses:
A) mood-congruent delusion
B) primary incoherence
C) echopraxia
D) real visual hallucinations
PSY - 4.56.1 - Drug-induced psychosis
PSY - 4.56.2 - Disorganized type of schizophrenia
PSY - 4.56.3 - Catatonic type of schizphrenia
PSY - 4.56.4 - Mania
PSY - 4.56.5 - Major depression
1- D
2- B
3- C
4- A
5- A
46
Who invented the following classifications of the symptoms of schizophrenia? Match the dichotomies with a name.
A) Eugen Bleuler
B) Kurt Schneider
C) Timothy Crow
D) Karl Leonhard
PSY - 4.57.1 - positive and negative symptoms
PSY - 4.57.2 - fundamental and accessory symptoms
PSY - 4.57.3 - first-rank and second-rank symptoms
PSY - 4.57.4 - systematic and unsystematic schizophrenias
1- C
2- A
3- B
4- D
47
Which group of symptoms do the following refer to? Match the symptoms with an appropriate group.
A) positive symptoms
B) negative symptoms
C) affective symptoms
D) symptoms affecting neurocognition
PSY - 4.58.5 - alogia
PSY - 4.58.4 - working memory disorder
PSY - 4.58.2 - ambivalence
PSY - 4.58.1 - auditory hallucinations
PSY - 4.58.3 - dysthymia
1 - A
2- B
3- C
4- D
5 - B
48
Principles of choosing an antipsychotic. Match a medication with an appropriate indication.
A) Long-acting haloperidol depot medication (injected IM)
B) Clozapine
C) Aripiprazole
D) Haloperidol injected IM (short-term treatment)
PSY - 4.59.1 - treatment-resistance; high suicide risk
PSY - 4.59.2 - chronic disease; numerous relapses as a result of medication non-compliance
PSY - 4.59.3 - metabolic syndrome; extrapyramidal neurological adverse effects and endocrine effects (increased secretion of prolactin) in past history
PSY - 4.59.4 - first admission: agitation, hostility
1- B
2- A
3- C
4- D
49
What is likely to be the diagnosis?
The 24-year-old patient has been admitted to hospital for the second time. His sympoms appeared about 2 years ago. He has trouble focusing his attention, he feels anxious and low, and has suicidal ideation. He withdrew from his university studies due to learning difficulties. ’I always had to listen to music in order to be able to concentrate.’ he said. He has been seeing his friends rarely recently and he has given up sports, too. His father is an eccentric and reserved person, who has never been under psychiatric treatment. When being hospitalised for the first time, the patient was diagnosed with mixed anxiety-depressive disorder and he was prescribed tranquillisers and antidepressants. After a short period of taking this medication, he changed his pills for paleolithic diet on his mother's advice. Current state of mind: auditory hallucinations, bizarre cenesthopathic symptoms, paranoid delusions, obsessive thoughts, anxiety, tension, suicidal ideation, lack of insight.
A) Mixed anxiety-depressive disorder
B) Recurrent depression
C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
D) Schizophrenia
E) Schizoid personality disorder
D) Schizophrenia
50
What indicate(s) a high risk for suicide?The 24-year-old patient has been admitted to hospital for the second time. His sympoms appeared about 2 years ago. He has trouble focusing his attention, he feels anxious and low, and has suicidal ideation. He withdrew from his university studies due to learning difficulties. ’I always had to listen to music in order to be able to concentrate.’ he said. He has been seeing his friends rarely recently and he has given up sports, too. His father is an eccentric and reserved person, who has never been under psychiatric treatment. When being hospitalised for the first time, the patient was diagnosed with mixed anxiety-depressive disorder and he was prescribed tranquillisers and antidepressants. After a short period of taking this medication, he changed his pills for paleolithic diet on his mother's advice. Current state of mind: auditory hallucinations, bizarre cenesthopathic symptoms, paranoid delusions, obsessive thoughts, anxiety, tension, suicidal ideation, lack of insight.
1) male sex
2) depressive symptoms
3) young age
4) social dysfunction
5) high level of social functioning before the disease (he was a university student)
A) only the1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct.
E) all of the answers are correct.
51
In the differential diagnosis of anorexia nervosa you should exclude the followings, except:
A) Tumors
B) Depression
C) Addison's disease
D) Cushing's disease
E) Ulcerative colitis
D) Cushing's disease
52
The symptoms of anorexia nervosa are, except:
A) Weight loss is 15% of the ideal weight
B) There is a body image distortion
C) There is a high suicidal risk at the beginning of the illness
D) It can start at the age of 14
C) There is a high suicidal risk at the beginning of the illness
53
Anorexia nervosa can be comorbid with:
A) OCD
B) Depression
C) Social phobia
D) Lack of sexual interest
E) All of the above
E) All of the above
54
The patient is publicly exposing his genitals to strange women or girls. The phenomenon is called:
A) Sadism
B) Exhibitionism
C) Pedophilia
D) Transvestism
B) Exhibitionism
55
Which is the most common cause of the lack of sexual activity in marriage?
A) Old age
B) Marital conflict
C) Depression
D) Somatic illness
B) Marital conflict
56
The phase of human sexual response that occurs after desire is called:
A) Resolution phase
B) Orgasmic phase
C) Excitement phase
D) Ejaculatory phase
C) Excitement phase
57
A patient who has a pervasive and unwarranted tendency to interpret other persons' actions as deliberatly threatening, has:
A) Schizoid personality disorder
B) Paranoid personality disorder
C) Antisocial personality disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder
B) Paranoid personality disorder
58
The patient who is superstitious or claims powers of clairvoyance and believes that he has special powers of thought suffers from
A) Bipolar affective disorder
B) Schizotypal personality disorder
C) Borderline personality disorder
D) Schizophrenia
B) Schizotypal personality disorder
59
Diagnostic criteria for antisocial personality disorder:
A) Impulsivity
B) Failure to conform to social norms
C) Irritablity
D) Repeated lying
E) All of the above
E) All of the above
60
Which of the following subtype of personality disorders is more common in men?
A) Borderline
B) Antisocial
C) Dependent
D) Histrionic
B) Antisocial
61
Somatization disorder is often comorbid with:
A) Paranoid personality disorder
B) Histrionic personality disorder
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Dependent personality disorder
E) Passive-agressive personality disorder
B) Histrionic personality disorder
62
What differentiates transient tic disorder from Tourette syndrome?
A) The onset of illness
B) In transient tic disorder there are only motor tics
C) In transient tic disorder there are only vocal tics
D) The duration of symptoms
D) The duration of symptoms
63
Which of the following is not a pervasive developmental disorder?
A) Autism
B) Rett syndrome
C) Münchausen syndrome
D) Asperger syndrome
C) Münchausen syndrome
64
Typical in Prader-Willi syndrome:
A) Hyperphagia
B) Self-injury
C) 'Coctail party psyche'
D) Average intellectual functioning
A) Hyperphagia
65
The child is not willing to speak in the school, but at home speaks well. The disorder is:
A) Autism
B) Selective mutism
C) Mental retardation
D) None of the above
B) Selective mutism
66
The most common learning disability is:
A) Dyscalculia
B) Dysgraphia
C) Dyslexia
D) None of the above
C) Dyslexia
67
Typical for Lesh-Nyhan syndrome:
A) Self-biting behavior
B) Consequence of HGPRT deficit
C) Mental retardation
D) Accumulation of uric acid
E) All of the above
E) All of the above
68
Concerning Tourette syndrome, which of the following statements is false?
A) It is characterized by motor and vocal tics
B) Its prevalence is around 5 per 10 000
C) It is usually associated with OCD
D) It does not cause distress
D) It does not cause distress
69
Which of the following is not a feature of Down syndrome?
A) High-arched palate
B) Short stature
C) Protuding tongue
D) Kayser-Fleischer ring
E) Simian crease
D) Kayser-Fleischer ring
70
Conduct disorder includes all of the following, except:
A) Cruelty to animals
B) Agression to humans
C) Destruction of property
D) Obeying rules
D) Obeying rules
71
In moderate mental retardation the IQ is between:
A) 50-70
B) 30-50
C) <30
B) 30-50
72
Similarly to Prader-Willi syndrome, a deletion on the 15th chromosome can be detected in:
A) Williams syndrome
B) Angelman syndrome
C) Di George syndrome
D) None of the above
B) Angelman syndrome
73
These are the diagnostic criteria of dementia, EXCEPT:
A) memory loss
B) amentia, alexia, agoraphobia
C) behavioural change
D) impaired executive functions
E) aphasia, agnosia, apraxia
B) amentia, alexia, agoraphobia
74
Definite diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease can be determined by:
A) CT
B) EEG
C) laboratory results
D) neurological examination
E) none of the above
E) none of the above
75
Which one is a reversible dementia of the following:
A) Pick's disease
B) Post-stroke dementia
C) Parkinson's disease
D) Alzheimer's disease
E) Lewy body dementia
B) Post-stroke dementia
76
These are true in the differentiation of depressive pseudodementia and dementia, EXCEPT:
A) dismissive behaviour in pseudodementia ("don't know" answers)
B) undue fluctuation of performance in pseudodementia
C) in dementia in spite of memory impairment complaints of memory problems are often lacking
D) personality change is typical for pseudodementia
E) in pseudodementia a family history of affective disorders is frequent
D) personality change is typical for pseudodementia
77
Which of the following is helpful to differentiate vascular dementia and Alzheimer's disease?
1) MMSE ("Mini Mental State Exam")
2) Wechsler IQ Test
3) Dementia Index in IQ tests
4) Hachinski Ischaemic Score
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
78
Match the supposed pathology of Alzheimer's disease with the method of examination!
A) MRI
B) SPECT
C) FDG-PET
D) histopathology
PSY - 4.104.1 - temporo-parietal hypoperfusion
PSY - 4.104.2 - β-amyloid deposition (senile plaque)
PSY - 4.104.3 - neurofibrillary tangle
PSY - 4.104.4 - temporo-parietal hypometabolism
PSY - 4.104.5 - hippocampal atrophy
1- B
2- D
3- D
4- C
5- A
79
Match the features with the diagnoses!
A) Alzheimer type of dementia
B) Vascular dementia
C) Parkinson's disease
PSY - 4.105.1 - temporo-parietal atrophy
PSY - 4.105.2 - multiplex lacunar infarct
PSY - 4.105.3 - hippocampal atrophy
PSY - 4.105.4 - decreased dopamine function
PSY - 4.105.5 - stroke
1- A
2- B
3- A
4- C
5- B
80
What is the supposed diagnosis according to the symptoms?
A 67-year-old woman got lost in a familiar neighbourhood; she was no longer able to do her housework without help. It was difficult for her to express herself and to calculate. The symptoms got slowly worse. She had no history of previous disorders; there were no detectable internal and neurological pathological signs.
A) Vascular dementia
B) Delirium
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) Depression
C) Alzheimer's disease
81
Towards the diagnosis which examination is required?
A 67-year-old woman got lost in a familiar neighbourhood; she was no longer able to do her housework without help. It was difficult for her to express herself and to calculate. The symptoms got slowly worse. She had no history of previous disorders; there were no detectable internal and neurological pathological signs.
1) MMSE
2) Laboratory tests
3) CT/MRI
4) abdominal ultrasound
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
82
What is the supposed diagnosis according to the symptoms?
A 60-year-old man had hypertension, a month ago he had paraesthesia on the right side of his body for a short period, had trouble to find words, memory impairment also developed. Since then there have been periods without symptoms, then episodes with disorientation, and wandering occurred. His state is fluctuating, at nights agitation can arise.
A) Depression with cognitive impairment
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Normal pressure hydrocephalus
D) Vascular dementia
D) Vascular dementia
83
These are organic and symptomatic mental disorders, EXCEPT:
A) delirium
B) dementia
C) amnestic syndrome
D) paranoia
E) organic hallucinosis
D) paranoia
84
What is the first thing to be done in a case of delirium?
A) to calm the patient
B) quick and careful examination to find the underlining disorder
C) the patient has to be sent to the psychiatry acutely
D) the patient has to be isolated from the other patients
B) quick and careful examination to find the underlining disorder
85
Which of the following is necessary to do in delirium to clarify the etiopathogenesis?
A) to measure the blood pressure, perform an ECG
B) to check the serum glucose
C) medical and neurological examinations
D) careful laboratory analysis
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
86
Which vitamin deficiency is the fundamental factor in the etiopathogenesis of Korsakov-syndrome?
A) vitamin B6
B) folic acid
C) nicotinic acid
D) vitamin B1
E) vitamin B12
D) vitamin B1
87
Which of the following are typical of organic mental disorders?
1) there is a causal relation between the psychopathology and the organic disorders
2) the somatic pathology is preceding the psychopathology
3) the course of the somatic disorder and the mental illness are parallel
4) delirium and dementia can evolve not only on the basis of somatic etiology
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
88
The most frequent reason of delirium:
1) central nervous system disorder
2) alcohol and medical drug intoxication or withdrawal
3) cardiovascular disorders
4) metabolic disorders
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
89
Match the features with the diagnoses!
A) organic amnestic syndrome
B) delirium
C) organic delusional (paranoid) disorder
PSY - 4.120.1 - clouding of consciousness
PSY - 4.120.2 - impaired long term memory
PSY - 4.120.3 - hallucinations
PSY - 4.120.4 - delusions
PSY - 4.120.5 - confabulation may be an additional symptom
1-B
2- A
3- B
4- C
5- A
90
Match the features with the diagnoses!
A) organic delusional (paranoid) disorder
B) organic amnestic syndrome
C) Korsakov-syndrome
PSY - 4.121.2 - anterograde and retrograde amnesia
PSY - 4.121.5 - beside the elimination of the underlining disorder antipsychotic drug administration may be necessary
PSY - 4.121.4 - chronic alcohol intake is the etiopathogenetic reason
PSY - 4.121.3 - well-structured delusions
PSY - 4.121.1 - thiamine deficiency
1- C
2- B
3- A
4- C
5- A
91
Which of the following is the least possible diagnosis?
A 60-year-old man was taken to the doctor by his relatives. He visited the family and they noticed that he heard voices, and saw people who were not there. His wife died 10 years ago, since then he had lived reservedly, now he could not take care of himself anymore.
A) delirium
B) schizophrenia
C) dementia
D) depression with psychotic symptoms
E) organic hallucinosis
B) schizophrenia
92
The reason of disorientation and confusion was most likely:
A 43-year-old woman was found in the garage, she was unconscious. The engine of the car was running; the door of the garage was closed. At the time of the medical examination the patient was disoriented, confused. The reason of disorientation and confusion was most likely:
A) lead intoxication
B) hypoxia
C) hypoglycaemia
D) petrol intoxication
E) none of the above
B) hypoxia
93
What would you do if you were the physician, who examined the person at first?
A middle-aged man was diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. The pharmacotherapy does not seem to improve the gait disturbance. His mood is decreased. He says that he lost his desire to live, would like “to be rid of everything”, if it were up to him he would sleep all day.
A) send the patient to a psychiatry ward because of the high risk of suicide
B) calm the patient down by saying, that Parkinson's disease could be treated with medical drugs
C) discuss his worries with the patient empathically, and ask him about his suicidal thoughts and intentions
D) send the patient to a neurologist or psychiatrist to complain about his sorrow
E) recommend the patient to come frequently and alert the relative of the suicide risk
C) discuss his worries with the patient empathically, and ask him about his suicidal thoughts and intentions
94
Anxiety as a symptom can occur in all of the disorders below with the exception of:
A) hypoglycaemi
B) decreased thyroid function
C) pheochromocytoma
D) porphyria
E) hypocalcaemia
B) decreased thyroid function
95
Which of the following statements are not characteristic agoraphobia?
A) the affected person has an intensive and irrational feeling of fear when he/she has to leave his/her home
B) the affected person is fully aware of the senseless nature of his/her fear
C) the administration of an antidepressant can alleviate it effectively
D) the target of the behavioural therapy is the phobia itself, thus it has no focus on the underlying psychodynamics
E) phobic anxiety disorder rarely occurs after it has been treated at least once.
E) phobic anxiety disorder rarely occurs after it has been treated at least once.
96
Which of the following is not characteristic of specific phobia?
A) it is a disease that has a short course and it does not become chronic even without any treatment
B) the presence of an exaggerated, irrational, constant, recurring fear of well-defined, specific objects or situations.
C) a specific situation can evoke the occurrence of an immediate, intensive bout of anxiety
D) the majority of social phobia cases occur in childhood or in adolescence
E) psychotherapies (e.g. cognitive behavioural therapy, relaxation) have a primary role in its treatment
A) it is a disease that has a short course and it does not become chronic even without any treatment
97
The diagnosis of mixed anxiety depressive disorder is established, if:
A) the patient with depression has marked anxiety
B) both depressive and anxiety symptoms are present, but the severity of neither of them meets the diagnostic criteria
C) the anxiety disorder is accompanied by depressive symptoms
D) the depressive symptoms rapidly improve with antidepressant therapy
B) both depressive and anxiety symptoms are present, but the severity of neither of them meets the diagnostic criteria
98
Generalised anxiety disorder is often accompanied by the following diseases, with the exception of:
A) panic disorder
B) phobias
C) depression
D) (pathological) substance abuse
E) bipolar disorder, manic type
E) bipolar disorder, manic type
99
Regarding the treatment of specific phobias, improvement can be expected from the following behavioural therapy techniques, with the exception of:
A) exposition to stimulus
B) paradox intention method
C) flooding
D) imaginary, "in vitro" desensitisation
E) "in vivo" desensitisation
B) paradox intention method
100
Which can be administered permanently in generalised anxiety disorder?
1) antipsychotics
2) buspirone
3) barbiturate
4) antidepressants
A) only the 1st 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
101
Which of the following groups does panic syndrome belong to?
1) personality disorders
2) affective disorders
3) vegetative disorders
4) anxiety disorders
A) answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B) answers 1 and 3 are correct
C) answers 2 and 4 are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
E) all of the 4 answers are correct
D) only answer 4 is correct
102
Which of the following drugs can be used in the treatment of panic disorder?
1) antidepressants
2) antipsychotics
3) anxiolytics
4) neuroleptics
5) cognitive psychotherapy
6) mood stabilizers
A) answers 1 and 2 are correct
B) answers 2, 4 and 6 are correct
C) answers 1, 3 and 5 are correct
D) answers 3, 4 and 6 are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
C) answers 1, 3 and 5 are correct
103
They are symptoms of panic disorder:
1) vertigo
2) delusions
3) tachycardia
4) hallucinations
5) sweating
6) fear of death
A) answers 1, 2 and 4 are correct
B) answers 1, 3, 5 and 6 are correct
C) answers 2, 4 and 6 are correct
D) all of the answers are correct
B) answers 1, 3, 5 and 6 are correct
104
Match the characteristic symptoms with the diagnoses!
A) it is characterised by a feeling of anxiety which occurs during attacks
B) improvement can be expected primarily from behavioural therapy (exposition therapy)
C) it is characterized by a constant feeling of anxiety which is difficult to overcome
D) the person has a fear of getting into humiliating situations in the social environment
PSY - 4.137.1 - panic disorder
1- A
105
Match the characteristic features with the diagnoses!
A) the person is afraid of having a serious disease
B) the person is afraid of infections
C) the person is afraid of being humiliated
D) the person is afraid of experiencing another anxiety attack
E) the constant anxiety affects several areas of the patients' lives
PSY - 4.138.1 - generalised anxiety disorder
PSY - 4.138.2 - panic disorder
PSY - 4.138.3 - social anxiety
PSY - 4.138.4 - hypochondriasis
PSY - 4.138.5 - obsessive-compulsive disorder
1- E
2- D
3- C
4- A
5- B
106
Which is the most likely diagnosis based on the symptoms of the patient?
A 38-year-old female patient works in a bank; previously, she had no problems with having to work together with many of her colleagues in a single room and that they had lots of clients. However, she has not been able to go to work for 1 month, and she tries to avoid going to places where many people are present, or to places from where getting out is difficult. She does not use public transport either, she neither dares to drive a car and or go shopping without being accompanied by her husband.
A) post-traumatic stress disorder
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder
C) social phobia
D) generalised anxiety disorder
E) agoraphobia
E) agoraphobia
107
Which of the following statements are false about obsessive-compulsive disorder?
A) It greatly inhibits the patient's everyday life
B) Recurring, unpleasant thoughts or ideas which cause anxiety
C) The patient doesn't realize that these thoughts are products of their own psyche instead of an external origin
D) The purpose of compulsive behaviour is to relieve the anxiety caused by obsessive thoughts
C) The patient doesn't realize that these thoughts are products of their own psyche instead of an external origin
108
Which of the following play a role in the etiology of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
1) According to the cognitive development theory the compulsive symptoms are active avoidance behaviour in response to anxiety
2) Serotonin plays an important part in its pathomechanism
3) According to the psychoanalytic theory, a strict superego and suppressed instincts cause anxiety
4) Genetic and environmental factors also play an important part
A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.
E) all answers are correct.
109
Match the symptoms with the diagnoses!
A) anticipatory tension
B) ego-syntonic obsessive traits
C) ego-dystonic obsessive thoughts and behaviour
D) acute response to psychotrauma
PSY - 4.144.4 - acute stress disorder
PSY - 4.144.3 - obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
PSY - 4.144.1 - obsessive-compulsive disorder
PSY - 4.144.2 - panic disorder
1- C
2- A
3- B
4- D
110
Which diagnosis is most likely according to the complaints?
A 27-year-old woman is constantly afraid of infections and contamination; she instantly takes off and cleans every piece of clothing she’s been wearing outside. Whenever she invites guests she is always occupied with what they touch and instantly cleans and disinfects those things when they leave. This inhibits her in her everyday tasks, she’s tense, and nervous because of her complaints and would like to be freed of them.
A) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
B) generalized anxiety disorder
C) acute stress disorder
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
111
Which of the following illness is characterized by an increased fear of getting ill?
A) hypochondria
B) phobia
C) conversion disorder
D) somatization (Briquet-) syndrome
E) aggravation
A) hypochondria
112
Which of the following symptoms are usually present in case of somatization?
1) painful menstruation
2) palpitation
3) anxiety
4) nausea
A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.
E) all answers are correct.
113
Which of the following are true for conversion disorder?
1) the symptoms can raise the question of a somatic illness
2) expresses a psychological conflict
3) attracts attention and the sympathy of others
4) is intentional
A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.
A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct
114
Which of the following symptoms are present in conversion disorder?
1) primary and secondary illness benefits are present
2) the symptoms start suddenly and dramatically
3) the patient cannot control the symptoms intentionally
4) limb paralyses and sensory deficits don't follow anatomical innervations
A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.
E) all answers are correct.
115
Which of the following are the disadvantages of somatization disorder?
1) excessive use of medication
2) secondary iatrogenic consequences of invasive diagnostic interventions
3) excessive claim on medical services
4) a frequent change of doctors
A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.
E) all answers are correct.
116
Somatization disorder can be effectively treated by:
1) gradual decrease of unnecessary medication
2) regular check-ups at the doctor's
3) remaining at one doctor
4) anxiolytic medication
A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.
A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
117
Which of the following is false for dissociative psychogenic amnesia?
A) Is a memory lapse that can be traced back to psychogenic reasons.
B) Cannot be explained by lesions of the central nervous system
C) Is the multiplication of personality
D) Is the inability to recall memories for the period of hours or days.
E) Usually starts and ends suddenly.
C) Is the multiplication of personality
118
Match the diagnoses with the symptoms!
A) dissociative amnesia
B) dissociative fugue
C) dissociative identity disorder
PSY - 4.154.1 - Aimless wandering with a sudden onset over the period of amnesia that can last for days
PSY - 4.154.2 - The temporary inability to recall memories
PSY - 4.154.3 - The multiplication of personality
PSY - 4.154.4 - Organized foggy state
PSY - 4.154.5 - The memory lapse can be partial, only regarding emotionally significant experiences
1- B
2- A
3- C
4- B
5- A
119
Which of the following illnesses should be considered when making the diagnosis above, EXPECT?
A 39-year-old woman has been suffering from pelvic pain for 10 years, which can sometimes be relieved with sedating analgesics. Multiple examinations, including explorative laparotomy have been carried out, yet doctors haven’t managed to find organic causes. The patient denies having low mood or other psychiatric problems, but feels anger towards doctors, who, she feels, cannot cure her.
1) simulating
2) organic psychiatric disorder
3) conversion disorder
4) schizophrenia
A) answers 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
120
Which of the following is not true for stress?
A) it also refers to the suffering of the person in danger (distress)
B) it can disrupt the homeostatic balance of an organism
C) it is also referred to aggressive impact
D) doesn't include the response of the person in danger
E) phases of the general adaptation syndrome are: alarm reaction, phase of resistance, phase of exhaustion
D) doesn't include the response of the person in danger
121
Which of the following is not effective when treating PTSD:
A) cognitive-behavioural therapy
B) psychodynamic therapy
C) haloperidol
D) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
E) propranolol
C) haloperidol
122
Which of the following is true for adaptation disorder?
A) vast environmental disasters can cause it
B) doesn't cease after the stressful stimulus has stopped
C) reaching a new level of adaptation doesn't help it cease
D) everyday stressful stimuli can cause severe symptoms that hinder everyday life
E) doesn't affect social integration
D) everyday stressful stimuli can cause severe symptoms that hinder everyday life
123
Which of the following increase(s) vulnerability to PTSD?
1) genetic factors
2) lack of social protection
3) low intelligence
4) separation from parents in childhood
A) answers 1, 2, 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.
E) all answers are correct.
124
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 32-year-old woman has survived a train accident 2 years ago, the train was derailed. Many were injured, there was chaos and despair. She’s relived the memory many times since, evoking a feeling of despair. She also has similar feelings when an external situation reminds her of it, then she sweats and starts to tremble. Since the accident she’s never travelled by train.
A) acute post-traumatic stress disorder
B) adaptation disorder
C) acute stress disorder
D) chronic post-traumatic stress disorder
D) chronic post-traumatic stress disorder
125
The following criteria support the diagnosis:
A 32-year-old woman has survived a train accident 2 years ago, the train was derailed. Many were injured, there was chaos and despair. She’s relived the memory many times since, evoking a feeling of despair. She also has similar feelings when an external situation reminds her of it, then she sweats and starts to tremble. Since the accident she’s never travelled by train.
1) the person has experienced a situation which was potentially threatening to the safety of him/her or others
2) a prolonged pathological state
3) a recurring, compulsive, distressing recall of the stressful event
4) a situation similar to the traumatic event can cause a vegetative reaction
5) a natural response to trauma
A) answers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B) all answers are correct.
C) answers 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
D) answers 2, 3, and 5 are correct
E) answers 1, 3, and 5 are correct
A) answers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
126
Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A 26-year-old woman doesn’t dare to go out to the streets without pepper spray even during daytime. She frequently remembers being sexually abused when she was a child. She cannot relax in an intimate situation with her partner. When he touches her, her every muscle tenses, she’s defensive and their sexual life is not balanced.
A) social phobia
B) acute stress reaction
C) adaptation disorder
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
E) post-traumatic stress disorder
E) post-traumatic stress disorder
127
Which of the following is true for insomnia?
A) comorbid disorders are not connected with insomnia
B) it is a syndrome with a 9-10% rate of becoming chronic
C) the occurrence of sleep disorders doesn't increase with age
D) the comorbid illness can always be identified
E) everyday stress cannot cause it
B) it is a syndrome with a 9-10% rate of becoming chronic
128
Which of the following are the main types of insomnia?
1) subjectively non-restful sleep
2) disorders of maintaining asleep
3) early awakening and inability to go back to sleep
4) disorders of going to sleep
A) answers 1, 2, 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.
E) all answers are correct.
129
Which of the following are used in the treatment of the above the illness?
A 40-year-old woman goes to sleep effortlessly at 11 at night, however, she wakes up at 1-2 a.m. She can’t go back to sleep again for a long time, and even if she can, she wakes up again after a short while. She could fall asleep again after 6 in the morning, but she must get up early to go to work. In the mornings she feels not having slept at all, is exhausted, and fatigued. Otherwise she’s in good spirits and keen.
1) medication
2) lifestyle and sleep hygienic advice
3) therapies other than medication
4) assessing possible comorbid illnesses
5) we give medication for 4-6 months
A) answers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
B) all answers are correct.
C) answers 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
D) answers 2, 3, and 5 are correct
E) answers 1, 3, and 5 are correct
A) answers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
130
Which of the following disorders, which are otherwise grouped within other categories, could be regarded as impulse-control disorders, because of their specific qualities?
1) bulimia
2) alcohol dependence
3) paraphilias
4) drug dependence
A) answers 1, 2, 3 are correct.
B) answers 1, and 3 are correct
C) answers 2, and 4 are correct.
D) only answer 4 is correct.
E) all answers are correct.
E) all answers are correct.
131
Match the symptoms with the diagnoses!
A) pathological gambling
B) trichotillomania
C) pyromania
D) kleptomania
PSY - 4.177.3 - the person commits arson intentionally for pleasure
PSY - 4.177.5 - unconditional belief in a "winning system"
PSY - 4.177.4 - an irresistible urge to steal worthless objects
PSY - 4.177.2 - the essence of the illness is the lack of ability to assess potential risk
PSY - 4.177.1 - patients are unable to resist pulling out their own hair
1- B
2- A
3- C
4- D
5- A
132
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 28-yearold man lives with his parents, has a job, but has no savings; in fact, he must ask the parents for 1.500.000 Forints although he apparently has no major expenses. His behaviour doesn’t seem to have changed, he goes to work punctually, his colleagues like him. He has a reasonably good salary, but still has debts, which he wants to keep secret; he has a “winning system” for winning the money back.
A) alcohol dependence
B) kleptomania
C) pathological gambling
D) drug dependence
C) pathological gambling
133
Which of the following provide suitable treatment for the diagnosis above?
A 28-yearold man lives with his parents, has a job, but has no savings; in fact, he must ask the parents for 1.500.000 Forints although he apparently has no major expenses. His behaviour doesn’t seem to have changed, he goes to work punctually, his colleagues like him. He has a reasonably good salary, but still has debts, which he wants to keep secret; he has a “winning system” for winning the money back.
1) SSRI
2) carbamazepine
3) naltrexone
4) bupropion
5) cognitive and behavioural therapy
A) answers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
B) all answers are correct.
C) answers 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
D) answers 2, 3, and 5 are correct
E) answers 1, 3, and 5 are correct
B) all answers are correct.
134
Which statement(s) is/are true regarding suicide?
1) the rate of completed suicides decreases with age
2) women commit lethal suicides more often than men
3) suicides can be reliably predicted based on clinical characteristics
4) an empathetic conversation with a potential victim about his suicidal ideations might prevent the attemp
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
135
Lifetime risk and prevalence of completed suicide is in:
1) major depression: 3.6-8.5%
2) schizophrenia: 5-10%
3) alcohol dependence: 3.4-6.7%
4) the average population: 14 / 100.000 people
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
136
Suicide:
1) is the second most common cause of death by young male
2) occurs three times more often by males than by females in every age group
3) divorce, urban residence and unemployment mean increased risk for it
4) is the least frequent in the middle class
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
E) all of the answers are correct
137
In case of suicidal behaviour the admission to a psychiatric ward is
1) only possible with the informed consent of the patient
2) not possible if the patient agrees to give up his suicidal intent in writing
3) not needed if the patient agrees to give up his suicidal intent in writing
4) necessary if direct threat of harm exists, even in the absence of the informed consent of the patient, but only in compliance with the appropriate rules and with proper documentation
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
138
How many times higher risk do earlier suicide attempts mean regarding a future attempt?
A) hundred
B) ten
C) two
D) one
A) hundred
139
Future suicide attempters visit doctors with some kind of symptoms during the weeks prior to the attempt, which is regarded as:
A) aggravation
B) presuicidal syndrome
C) cry for help
D) transference
C) cry for help
140
The massive wave of copycat suicides after a widely publicized suicide through social learning is known as:
A) Ringel effect
B) model effect
C) Werther effect
D) cry for help effect
C) Werther effect
141
The indicator(s) of suicidal risk is/are:
1) the 3 criteria of the presuicidal syndrome according to Ringel
2) the score of the item regarding suicidal behaviour in the Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D)
3) the score of the short version of the Hopelessness Scale by Beck
4) the WAIS score
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
142
Crisis intervention is
1) a short treatment (1-6 sessions)
2) the re-evaluation of the triggering causes
3) activating the reserves of the personality and developing the helping potentials
4) giving advices and urging to change in order to overcome the causes
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
143
Which of the following does NOT apply for crisis intervention?
1) it aims cognitive re-evaluation
2) the therapist is non-directive
3) it might be conducted via telephone
4) it aims to totally reconstruct the personality
A) only the 1st, 2nd and 3rd answers are correct
B) only the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
D) only the 4th answer is correct
E) all of the answers are correct
C) only the 2nd and 4th answers are correct
