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Security + NET Attacks > Messer exam 1 > Flashcards

Messer exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

fencing

A

the process of** isolating a node of a computer cluster or protecting shared resources** when a node appears to be malfunctioning.

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2
Q

Authentication token

A

piece of information that verifies the identity of a user to a website, server, or anyone requesting verification of the user’s identity.

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3
Q

Biometrics

A

the process of using electronic devices to identify people by recording and analyzing their unique physical or behavioral characteristics. used to access door

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4
Q

Lighting

A

for outside building

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5
Q

Security guard

A

protect lobby

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6
Q

Access badge

A

used for door entrance

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7
Q

Access control vestibule

A

also known as a mantrap, is a physical access control system that creates a space between two sets of interlocking doors. used in lobby

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8
Q

operational

A

are often implemented by people instead of systems.
Security guards and awareness programs are examples of an operational control

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9
Q

managerial

A

are **administrative controls associated with security design **
and implementation. ```
A set of policies and procedures would be an example of a
managerial control

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10
Q

Physical

A

are used to** limit physical access**. 

Badge readers, fences, and 
guard shacks
are categorized as physical controls
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11
Q

Technical

A

are implemented using systems. Operating system controls,
firewalls, and automated processes are considered technical controls.

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12
Q

Something you have

A

During the login process, ```
your phone receives a
text message with a one-time passcode
~~~

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13
Q

something you know

A

PIN

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14
Q

something you are

A

bio metrics–fingerprint

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15
Q

somewhere you are

A

Your login will not work unless you are
connected to the VPN

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16
Q

Passive reconnaissance

A

**gathering as much information from
open sources such as social media, corporate websites, and business **
organizations

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17
Q

Vulnerability scanning

A

Some active reconnaissance tests will query systems directly to see if a
vulnerability currently exists

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18
Q

Supply chain analysis

A

will examine the security associated with a
supplier, and the analysis will not provide any information regarding a
company’s own servers and data

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19
Q

Regulatory audit

A

A regulatory audit is a detailed security analysis based on existing laws or
private guidelines. A regulatory audit commonly requires access to internal
systems and data

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20
Q

**DMARC **
**(Domain-based Message Authentication Reporting and Conformance)**

A

specifies the disposition of spam emails. The legitimate
owner of the originating email domain can choose to have these messages
accepted, sent to a spam folder, or rejected

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21
Q

SPF (Sender Policy Framework)

A

is 

a list of all authorized mail servers for 
a specific domain
. All legitimate emails would be sent from one of the
servers listed in the SPF configuration
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22
Q

NAC (Network Access Control)

A

is a way to limit network access to only
authorized users. NAC is not commonly used to manage the transfer of
email messages.

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23
Q

DKIM (Domain Keys Identified Mail)

A

provides a way to validate all
digitally signed messages from a specific email server. DKIM does not
determine how the receiving server categorizes these digitally signed
messages

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24
Q

Root cause analysis

A

The goal of a root cause analysis is to explain the ultimate cause of an
incident. Once the cause is known, it becomes easier to protect against
similar attacks in the future

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25
`E-discovery`
**relates to the collection, preparation, review, interpretation, and production of electronic documents**. E-discovery itself is not involved with the research and determination of an attack's root cause
26
`Risk appetite`
**describes the amount of risk an organization is willing to take before taking any action to reduce that risk**. Risk appetite is not part of a root cause analysis
27
`Data subject`
**describes any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person**, especially when describing or managing private information about the subject
28
`Automation`
**Automation ensures that compliance checks can be performed on a regular basis** without the` need for human` `intervention`
29
`Maintenance window`
****** describes the scheduling associated with the change control process . Systems and services generally have limited availability during a maintenance window
30
`Attestation and acknowledgment`
With compliance, the process of attestation and acknowledgment is the **final verification of the formal compliance documentation**
31
`External audit`
*can be a valuable tool* ``` for verifying the compliance process, ``` but an automated alert from a monitoring system would not be part of an external audit
32
`Obfuscated`
describes the modification of data **to make something understandable into something very difficult to understand.**
33
`Data in use`
**describes information actively processing** in the memory of a *system, such as system RAM, CPU registers, or CPU cache.*
34
`Regulated`
**Reports and information created for governmental use** *are regulated by laws regarding the disclosure of certain types of data.*
35
`Federation`
***allow members of one organization to authenticate using the credentials of another organization***
36
EAP **(Extensible Authentication Protocol)**
**is an authentication framework ** *commonly associated with network access control*.
37
MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)
is a prediction of how often a repairable system will fail
38
RTO (Recovery Time Objectives
define a timeframe needed to restore a particular service level
39
MTTR (Mean Time to Restore)
is the amount of time it takes to repair a component
40
RPO **(Recovery Point Objective)**
***describes the minimum data or operational state required to categorize a system as recovered.***
41
MOA (Memorandum of Agreement) partner
is a formal document where both sides agree to a broad set of goals and objectives associated with the partnership.
42
`SLA (Service Level Agreement)`
is **commonly provided** as a formal *contract between two parties* **that documents the minimum terms for services provided.**
43
SOW (Statement of Work)
is a detailed list of items to be completed as part of overall project deliverables
44
NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement)
is a confidentiality agreement between parties. This question did not mention any requirement for privacy or confidentiality. More information
45
Integrity
refers to the trustworthiness of data.
46
Confidentiality
describes the privacy of data
47
Availability
y describes the ability of an authorized user to access data
48
Race condition
occurs when two processes occur at similar times, and usually with unexpected results.
49
Memory injection
is commonly used by malicious software to add code to the memory of an existing process.
50
Malicious update
occurs when a software patch installs unwanted or unauthorized code
51
Deterrent
A deterrent control does not directly stop an attack, but it may discourage an action.
52
Preventive control
A preventive control physically limits access to a device or area
53
Corrective control
A corrective control can actively work to mitigate any damage
54
Detective control
may not prevent access, but it can identify and record any intrusion attempts
55
Compensating
doesn’t prevent an attack, but it does restore from an attack using other means
56
Directive
is relatively weak control which relies on security compliance from the end users.
57
Continuity of operations
Continuity of operations planning ensures that the business will continue to operate when these issues occur.
58
Platform diversity
Using different operating systems and platforms can help mitigate issues associated with a single OS
59
Cold site
has space and power, and likely connectivity, but will require that systems and data be put in place to be used
60
Warm sites
have systems, connectivity, and power but do not have the live or current data to immediately take over operations
61
hot site
can immediately take over operations
62
Tabletop exercise
A tabletop exercise usually consists of a meeting where members of a recovery team or disaster recovery talk through a disaster scenario.
63
Bollards
barricades are often used on the exterior of a facility to prevent access to motorized vehicles and channel people through a specific access location.
64
Pressure sensors
are commonly used on doors or windows to detect movement in those devices.
65
Record-level encryption
is commonly used with databases to encrypt individual columns within the database. This would store some information in the database as plaintext and other information as encrypted data
66
Full-disk encryption
ensures that all data on a storage drive is protected
67
Asymmetric encryption
uses a public and private key pair to encrypt data.
68
Key escrow
describes the storage and management of decryption keys by a third-party
69
Journaling
writes data to a temporary journal before writing the information to the database. If power is lost, the system can recover the last transaction from the journal when power is restored
70
Off-site backups
can be used to recover a corrupted database, but this does not minimize or prevent database corruption from occurring
71
Replication
is used to create a duplicate copy of data.
72
MDM (Mobile Device Manager)
provides a centralized management system for all mobile devices. From this central console, security administrators can set policies for many different types of mobile devices.
73
Segmentation
describes the separation of user data from company data, but the implementation all policies is managed by the MDM
74
COPE (Corporately Owned and Personally Enabled)
commonly purchased by the corporation and allows the use of the mobile device for both business and personal use.
75
False negative
A false negative is a result that fails to detect an issue when one actually exists
76
Exploit
is an attack against a vulnerability.
77
Compensating controls
are used to mitigate a vulnerability when an optimal security response may not be available. For example, if a company can't deploy a patch for a vulnerability, they can revoke or limit application access until a patch is provided
78
Escalation
Automation can recognize security events and escalate a security-related ticket to the incident response team without any additional human interaction.
79
Guard rails
are used by application developers to provide a set of automated validations to user input and behavior. Guard rails are not used by the help desk team
80
Continuous integration
provides an automated method of constantly developing, testing, and deploying code.
81
Resource provisioning
can be automated during the on-boarding and off-boarding process to quickly create or remove rights and permissions. Resource provisioning is not commonly part of the automation associated with security event notification.
82
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