MH-60R - 80T-106

Question 0

LHA/LHD Control zone parameters

Answer 0

Out to 5 NM and up to 2,500’ AGL

Question 1

LHA/LHD Control Area parameters

Answer 1

Out to 50 NM, upper limit as required

Question 2

Advisory control

Answer 2

A form of air traffic control in which the controlling agency monitors radar and radio contact with aircraft under its control and provides traffic advisories. Traffic separation is the responsibility of the individual pilot, with the assistance provided by the control agency.

Question 3

Ball

Answer 3

A pilot report indicating that the visual landing aid is in sight.

Question 4

Base Recovery Course (BRC)

Answer 4

The ship’s magnetic heading during flight operations.

Question 5

Charlie

Answer 5

A signal for aircraft to land aboard the ship. A number suffix indicates time delay in minutes before landing may be anticipated.

Question 6

Clara

Answer 6

A pilot transmission meaning he does NOT have the visual landing aid (meatball) in sight.

Question 7

Emergency Expected Approach Time (EEAT)

Answer 7

The future time, assigned prior to launch, at which an aircraft is cleared to depart inbound or penetrate from a preassigned fix under lost communications conditions.

Question 8

Emergency Final Bearing (EFB)

Answer 8

A magnetic heading provided by AATCC to all flightcrews prior to launch to be used when executing emergency procedures for communications failure in IMC. The emergency marshal pattern shall be relative to the EFB and is the final bearing for the lost communications tacan approach.

Question 9

Emergency Marshall

Answer 9

A marshal established by AATCC and assigned to each aircraft prior to launch. The emergency marshal consists of a radial, DME, altitude, and emergency expected approach time.

Question 10

Emission Control (EMCON)

Answer 10

Control of all electromagnetic radiations, including electronic communications, radar, and visual systems. During its imposition, no electronic emitting device within the designated bands shall be operated unless absolutely essential to the mission of the force.

Question 11

Expected Approach Time (EAT)

Answer 11

The future time at which an aircraft is cleared to depart inbound from a prearranged fix. Aircraft shall depart and commence approach at assigned time if no further instructions are received.

Question 12

Final Bearing

Answer 12

The magnetic bearing assigned by AATCC for final approach. It is an extension of the landing area centerline.

Question 13

Marshal

Answer 13

A bearing, distance, and altitude fix designated by AATCC from which pilots shall orient holding and from which initial approach shall commence.

Question 14

Monitor Control

Answer 14

The monitoring of radar and radio channels for emergency transmissions.

Question 15

NVD compatible

Answer 15

Lighting systems which are only required for the unaided operator and shall have no adverse effect on the operator equipped with ANVIS devices. A system virtually invisible to the ANVIS devices.

Question 16

NVD compliant

Answer 16

Components that are NVD compatible, NVD shipboard friendly, and incompatible systems which are dimmed, baffled or hidden from direct line of sight of the aided operator. A NVD compliant ship consisting of this lighting discipline can be used for aided and unaided operations so the ship’s mission is not compromised and the aided/unaided personnel can perform all their duties, tasks and functions in a safe and efficient manner.

Question 17

Pigeons

Answer 17

Magnetic bearing and distance from an aircraft to a specific location.

Question 18

Pogo

Answer 18

A term utilized by a controlling agency indicating return to last assigned frequency if no contact experienced on newly assigned frequency.

Question 19

Popeye

Answer 19

A pilot term used to indicate that his aircraft has entered IMC.

Question 20

Positive Control

Answer 20

A form of air traffic control in which the controlling agency has radar and radio contact with the aircraft being controlled and published approach and departure procedures are complied with, or where specific assignments regarding heading and altitude are issued by the controller. While altitude separation is provided by pilot maintaining assigned altitude, lateral and time separation is the responsibility of the air traffic controller. Speed changes may be directed by the air traffic controller.

Question 21

Zip Lip

Answer 21

A condition that may be prescribed for flight operations during day or night VMC under which positive communications control is waived and radio transmissions are held to the minimum necessary for safety of flight.

Question 22

Condition I/ Alert 15

Answer 22

The aircraft shall be spotted for immediate launch, with rotor blades spread, starting equipment plugged in, and the LSE, starting crewman, and ordnance personnel ready for launch in all respects. When the word is passed to “Standby for Launch,” engines shall be started without further instructions; however, launch shall be positively controlled from PriFly. Aircraft should be airborne within 5 minutes of order to launch.

Question 23

Condition II/ Alert 15

Answer 23

The same conditions apply as for Condition I, except that flight crews are not required to be in the helicopter, and rotor blades may be folded or tied down. Aircrews shall be on immediate call, if rotor blades are folded, the blades shall be run through an unfold/fold cycle to ensure operability. Aircraft should be airborne within 15 minutes of order to launch.

Question 24

Condition III/Alert 30

Answer 24

Main rotor blades may be folded and the helicopter need not be in a position for immediate launch; however, it must be parked so as to allow direct access to a suitable launch spot. A towbar shall be attached to the helicopter and a specific LSE, tractor driver, handling crew, and starting crewmen shall be designated and assigned to each helicopter. These personnel must be thoroughly briefed, so that when the order is given to prepare to launch, the helicopter can be safely and expeditiously moved into position and readied for launch. Flight crews shall be in the ready rooms or working spaces, in flight gear, and pre briefed for the launch. Aircraft should be airborne within 30 minutes of order to launch.

Question 25

Condition IV/ Alert 60

Answer 25

The condition of the helicopter is similar to condition III, except that minor maintenance may be performed if no restoration delay is involved. The aircrew shall be designated and available. Aircraft should be airborne within 60 minutes of order to launch.

Question 26

Case I departure procedure

Answer 26

This departure may be used when IMC is not anticipated during departure and subsequent rendezvous. Helicopters shall clear the control zone at or below 300' or as directed by PriFly. Rendezvous shall be accomplished at briefed points in accordance with squadron tactical doctrine.

Question 27

Case II departure procedure

Answer 27

Weather at the ship not less than 500' ceiling and 1 mile visibility. Helicopters shall depart via Case I departure and maintain flight integrity below the clouds. Weather conditions permitting, departure on assigned missions shall also comply with Case I procedure. If unable to maintain VMC, helicopters shall proceed in accordance with Case III departures.

Question 28

Case III departure procedure

Answer 28

Whenever weather conditions at the ship are below Case II minimums, or there is no visible horizon, or when directed by the commanding officer or OTC, helicopters shall launch at not less than 1-minute intervals, climb straight ahead to 500 feet, and intercept the 3 mile arc. They shall arc at 3 miles to intercept assigned departure radials. Upon reaching the assigned departure radial, turn outbound and commence climb to assigned altitude. Departure radials shall be separated by a minimum of 20 degrees. Departing aircraft shall report: 1. Airborne 2. Arcing 3. Established on departure radial 4. POPEYE with altitude 5. On top with altitude 6. KILO

Question 29

Case I recovery procedure

Answer 29

Case I may be used when it is anticipated that aircraft will not encounter IMC at any time during descent, break, and pattern established on the port side of final approach. Weather minimums of 1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility are required in the control zone. Flights shall check in with AATCC. Pilots shall report ship in sight when visual contact with the ship is gained VMC; AATCC shall switch aircraft to PriFly frequency by 5 NM (VMC). Unless otherwise directed by PriFly, flights shall proceed to and hold in the overhead Delta pattern and plan their descent and break to meet the designated recovery time and maintain an orderly flow of traffic into the Charlie pattern.

Question 30

Night Case I Recovery

Answer 30

The helicopter night Case I recovery pattern is a left-hand pattern on the port side of the ship. The pattern is extended downwind allowing for a complete turn to final prior to beginning descent. The straight-in final approach is flown using available visual landing AIDS such as V/STOL OLS.

Question 31

Case II approach procedures

Answer 31

Case II procedures shall be used whenever weather or meteorological conditions at the ship are below Case I minima, but greater than a 500 foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility. Curing Case II, positive control shall be utilized until the flight leader/pilots reports the ship in sight. AATCC shall be fully manned and ready to assume control of Case III in the event weather deteriorates to below Case II minimums.

Question 32

Case III approach procedures

Answer 32

Case III shall be used whenever weather conditions at the ship are less than Case II minima, or when no visible horizon exists, or when directed by the commanding officer or OTC. Positive control shall be provided by AATCC from letdown throug final approach until the flight leader/pilot reports ship in sight and requests to proceed visually. Case III formation recoveries are not authorized except when an aircraft experiencing difficulties is recovered on the wing of another aircraft. Formation flights by dissimilar aircraft shall not be attempted except in extreme circumstances when no safer recovery method is available. A straight-in, single-frequency approach shall be provided in all cases. Precision radar shall be used whenever available.

Question 33

I desire immediate landing signal

Answer 33

Fly by or hover close aboard starboard quarter, remaining clear of other traffic, with gear down and flood/landing light on. With complete electrical failure, fire a red flare on a safe bearing away from the ship.

Question 34

I desire to land but can wait for the next recovery or scheduled recovery time.

Answer 34

Fly by or hover on the starboard side, low and close aboard with navigation lights bright and flashing and anti-collision lights on. With complete electrical failure, fire a red flare on a safe bearing away from the ship.

Question 35

"I am proceeding to the divert field" signal

Answer 35

Fly up the starboard side of the ship, rocking wings wi landing gear up, navigation lights bright and steady and anti-collision lights on. If fuel state and nature of the emergency permit, continue making pass until joined by a wingman. Upon reaching divert fuel state proceed alone, setting IFF to emergency when departing.

Question 36

"Bingo" signal from ship

Answer 36

OLS - Flashing cut and wave off lights Aldis lamp - Flashing red light

Question 37

"Cleared to enter Charlie pattern" signal from ship

Answer 37

Aldis Lamp - Flashing green

Question 38

"Charlie - cleared to land aboard" signal from ship

Answer 38

Aldis lamp - steady green

Question 39

"Delta - delay in landing. Enter Delta pattern and maintain visual contact with the ship" signal from ship

Answer 39

OLS - flashing landing area lights Aldis lamp - steady red light

Question 40

"Closed deck. Do not land." signal from ship

Answer 40

OLS - landing area lights off

Question 41

"Do not land. Ditch or bail out in the vicinity of the ship" signal from ship

Answer 41

Aldis lamp - Z or _ _ ..

Question 42

Lost comms during approach (VMC)

Answer 42

Aircraft shall remain VMC and continue approach utilizing VFR lost communications signals.

Question 43

Lost communications during approach (IMC)

Answer 43

If only communications failure occurs, continue approach utilizing instrument approach lost communications procedures. Attempt to contact the ship using survival radio, time and safe control of aircraft permitting. When visual contact with the ship is made, utilize lost communications visual signals.

Question 44

Complete communications/navigation failure

Answer 44

Pilot of single aircraft may elect to continue approach by dead reckoning to MDA until at least 2 minutes past expected arrival time. Climb out on final bearing until VMC is achieved or at emergency marshal altitude if unable to maintain VMC. Fly appropriate triangular pattern (right receive, nothing left) at altitude, conserve fuel, and expect join up. Follow lead, or at pilot's discretion, divert to divert field, fuel permitting. If below overcast, fly DR search pattern to locate ship. When visual contact with ship is made, utilize lost communications light signals.

Question 45

Describe alpha pattern

Answer 45

Clockwise pattern, flown at 300' and 80 KIAS. Maintain heading such that firing bearing does it cross the ship.

Question 46

Definition of EMCON

Answer 46

Control of all electromagnetic radiations, including electronic communications, radar, and visual systems. During its imposition, no electronic emitting device within the designated bands shall be operable unless absolutely essential to the mission of the force.

Question 47

Definition of Zip-lip

Answer 47

A condition that may be prescribed for flight operations during day or night VMC under which positive communications control is waived and radio transmissions are held to a minimum necessary for safety of flight.

Question 48

What is the LHA/LHDs version of the ATO?

Answer 48

The Combat Cargo Officer

Question 49

Case I weather criteria for helicopters

Answer 49

1,000 / 3

Question 50

Case II weather criteria for helicopters

Answer 50

500 / 1

Question 51

Case III weather criteria for helicopters

Answer 51

Less then 500' or 1 NM visibility

Question 52

What are the 4 types of control?

Answer 52

Positive, advisory, monitor, and nonradar

Question 53

When is positive control required?

Answer 53

1. Ceiling of 1,000 feet or less for fixed-wing operations. 2. Ceiling of 500 feet or less for helicopter operations. 3. Forward flight visibility of less than 5 miles for fixed wing and tiltrotor V-22 Airplane Mode (APLN) mode operations. 4. Forward flight visibility of 1 mile or less for helicopter operations and tiltrotor conversion mode operations. 5. All unaided flight operations between one-half hour after sunset and one-half hour before sunrise except as modified by the OTC or ship's commanding officer. NOTE Night CQ/DLQ pattern is excluded from positive control, provided a visible horizon exists. 6. During mandatory let down in thunderstorm areas. 7. In other situations where supervisory personnel can anticipate weather phenomena that might cause difficulty to pilots.

Question 54

What is advisory control?

Answer 54

This control shall be utilized when the traffic density in an operating area requires a higher degree of control for safety of flight than required under visual flight rules. Advisory control is normally limited to VMC and is recommended for all operations in or adjacent to oceanic control areas or routes.

Question 55

What is monitor control?

Answer 55

This control shall be utilized only when aircraft are operating VMC outside controlled airspace and the responsibility for separation from other aircraft can be safely assumed by the pilot.

Question 56

What is non radar control?

Answer 56

This control shall be used when shipboard radar is inoperative or so degraded as to be inadequate to provide radar separation of aircraft under conditions normally requiring positive control. The decision to attempt control of aircraft at night or in instrument flight conditions shall be made with careful consideration of factors such as: 1. Actual meteorological conditions. 2. Degree of radar degradation. 3. Expected duration of radar degradation. 4. Fuel states/fuel available for delays. 5. Divert field suitability/availability. 6. Operational requirement. 7. Departure/recovery in progress at the time a nonradar environment develops. 8. Availability of other surface or airborne platforms to provide radar traffic separation and approach information.

Question 57

What are the non-standard helicopter landing patterns?

Answer 57

1. Cross-deck 2. Helicopter around stern 3. Helicopter modified straight-in

Question 58

How do you do a cross-deck landing?

Answer 58

A cross-deck approach shall be flown the same as a standard landing pattern except the approach shall continue across the flight deck to assigned landing spot.

Question 59

How do you do a helicopter around-stern approach?

Answer 59

Starboard spots may be utilized by entering the normal Charlie pattern, calling abeam port quarters, descending to 200' by the astern position, continuing up the starboard side to intercept an approximate 45 degree angle to the spot and then straight-in.

Question 60

How do you do a helicopter modified straight-in?

Answer 60

PriFly may approve a straight-in to the spot depending on traffic in the pattern.

Question 61

What does Prep Charlie mean?

Answer 61

Aircraft shall conform to normal Charlie pattern entry procedures and once established in the pattern, conform to the racetrack pattern until cleared by PriFly.

Question 62

What does "Charlie number" mean?

Answer 62

Aircraft shall enter the landing pattern for landing with the lead aircraft planning to be over the deck at the expiration of the number of minutes specified.

Question 63

What does "Charlie spot _____" mean?

Answer 63

The aircraft is cleared to land.

Question 64

When shall a wave off occur?

Answer 64

1. Upon voice command from PriFly or loss of communication wit PriFly 2. Upon command from the LSE. 3. Upon loss of visual contact with the LSE during final approach. 4. Any time the aircrew feels the approach cannot be safely completed.

Question 65

What are the parameters for a starboard delta?

Answer 65

It is a holding pattern established on the starboard side of the ship's 045-110 relative bearing from 1-3NM and flown at 300' and 80 KIAS.

Question 66

What are the parameters for the port delta?

Answer 66

It is a holding pattern established between the ship's 225 and 315 relative bearing between 3 and 5 NM and flown at 300' and 80 KIAS.

Question 67

What are the parameters for the overhead delta?

Answer 67

It is a VFR left-hand racetrack pattern oriented on the BRC and close aboard the starboard side at an optimum airspeed.

Question 68

What is included in the initial voice check-in with center?

Answer 68

1. Call sign 2. Position 3. Altitude 4. Fuel state (in hours and minutes) 5. Souls on board 6. Ordnance remaining 7. Other pertinent information

Question 69

What is the comms flow for going into the LHA/LHD?

Answer 69

1. Green crown (50 miles) 2. Ice pack after being switched by green crown 3. AATCC/ Center by 10 miles and call "See me" 4. Tower by 5 miles

Question 70

What is the maximum number of aircraft in the night DLQ pattern?

Answer 70

6 unless modified by the air officer.

Question 71

What is VERTREP area A?

Answer 71

The area bounded by the port elevator, the portion of the deck from the elevator's leading edge along or outboard of the fore/aft lineup lines aft to the extended horizontal baseline of spot 8 and then across the flight deck.

Question 72

What is VERTREP area B?

Answer 72

The area from the horizontal baseline of spot 4 aft to the leading edge of the port elevator along that portion of the flight deck along or outboard of the fore/aft lineup lines.

Question 73

What is VERTREP area C?

Answer 73

The area of the flight deck toward of the extended horizontal baseline of spot 4.

Question 74

Which VERTREP areas are approved for use at night?

Answer 74

A and C