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NEED TO KNOW Before Exams!!! > Micro > Flashcards

Micro Flashcards

1
Q

Sobourard agar

A

Fungal cultures
e.g Candida albicans goes cream

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2
Q

Coagulase test used for

A

Staph.aureus it contains coagulase
from other Staphs

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3
Q

Staph aureus

A

Gold on agar plate
Cot in rabbit plasma

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4
Q

Haemolysis used for diff steps

A

the ability to haemolysis in blood agar

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5
Q

Optoichin test why?

A

Used to identify strep pneumoniae
-it is very very sensitive to it

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6
Q

Flora

A

Skin
Vagina
Bowel
Oropharnx

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7
Q

Gonorrhoea

A

is always diplococci

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8
Q

Lancefield is a

A

agglutination reaction

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9
Q

Diagnostic swab

A

Green swab - viral
Black/Charcoal - bacterial

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10
Q

EBV

A

Green swab a diagnostic test for viral. Unusual because normalyy it is
Instead you need to run tests:
FBC (atypical lymphocytes)
Blood film (atypical lyphocytes)

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11
Q

Classic question on EBV

A
  1. Bood film (atypical lymphocytes) - quick (hours)
  2. PCR (day)
  3. Serology (2 days)

Even black swab is used to differentiate between viral and bacterial funnily enough, green isn’t used

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12
Q

CMV

A

Aids definig illness

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13
Q

Gold Standard TB

A

auramine phenol fluorescents microscopy

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14
Q

Close contact meningitis

A

Ciproflaxacin

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15
Q

If Listeria is suspected for meningitis what do you give?

A

Amoxicillin

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16
Q

An ________ disease is always present at a low frequency in a given population.
A epidemic
B hexademic
C endemic
D pandemic

A

Endemic

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17
Q

Innate immunity involves all of the following host defences. Which statement is false:
A secretion of mucus to prevent microbial entry
B production of antibodies to bind specific pathogen proteins
C production of small peptides that destroy the bacterial membrane
D engulfment of microbes by phagocytes

A

B production of antibodies to bind specific pathogen proteins

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18
Q

Robert Koch…
A proved diseases could be caused by specific pathogens
B created germ theory
C pioneered vaccination
D designd the petri dish

A

A proved diseases could be caused by specific pathogens

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19
Q

Which of the following is an example of an opportunistic pathogen that may be hospital acquired?
A Zika
B Ebola
C Clostridium difficile
D HIV

A

C Clostridium difficile

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20
Q

Who made a map showing that people infected with cholera drank from the Broad Street pump?
A Robert Koch
B John Snow
C Horacio Lumbridge
D Florence Nightingale

A

B John Snow

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21
Q

The main advances in combating disease over the last two centuries has been:
A clean food and water
B the establishement of the World Health Organisation
C the use of vaccination to prevent disease
D burying our dead

A

A clean food and water

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22
Q

A patient experiences pain and discomfort. These changes in the patient’s body function are referred to as:
A signs
B symptoms
C a syndrome
D infection

A

B symptoms

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23
Q

An infectious disease state is…
A when a host is infected with a pathogen
B when the host biology is compromised
C when a biological conflict occurs between host and pathogen
D when people get sick

A

C when a biological conflict occurs between host and pathogen

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24
Q

What was unusual about Mary Malone’s (Typhoid Mary) response to being named as a ‘healthy carrier’ of typhoid fever?
A She did not believe the authorities and continued to put the public at risk
B She died of typhoid fever
C She made apricot jelly ‘jello’
D She exciled herself on an island

A

A She did not believe the authorities and continued to put the public at risk

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25
Q

If a patient enters the period of illness and does not successfully overcome the disease, what occurs?
A The patient enters the period of decline
B The patient enters the prodormal period
C The patient enters the period of convalescence
D The patient dies

A

D The patient dies

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26
Q

Pathogens usually co-evolve with their hosts, why?
A because they share similar geographic distribution
B because they are constantly competing for survival with each other
C because they have nothing else better to do
D because they both kill each other

A

B because they are constantly competing for survival with each other

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27
Q

John Snow is considered the father of epidemiology for his work on?
A cholera
B gonorrhoea
C typhoid fever
D influenza

A

A cholera

28
Q

What would be the most appropriate methods to treat Potato Blight?
A Fungicide and Coper Sulphate
B Fungicide and Mercury Chloride
C Antibiotics and Coper Sulphate
D Antibiotics and Vaccines

A

A Fungicide and Coper Sulphate

29
Q
  1. Which of the following leukocytes is part of the INNATE immune system?
    a) Natural Killer cell
    b) B lymphocyte
    c) T lymphocyte
    d) Plasma cell
A

a) Natural Killer cell

30
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neutrophils?
a) Produce hydrogen peroxide
b) Fast moving
c) Long-lived
d) Most numerous phagocyte in blood

A

c) Long-lived

31
Q

Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of MAMPS (microbe-associated
molecular patterns)?
a) Shared by many microbes
b) Unique to microbes
c) Non-essential for microbe survival
d) Recognised by PRRs (pattern recognition receptors)

A

c) Non-essential for microbe survival

32
Q
  1. Which of the following does NOT occur during inflammation?
    a) Release of prostaglandins
    b) Cytokine secretion
    c) Recruitment of innate immune cells
    d) Constriction of blood vessels
A

d) Constriction of blood vessels

33
Q
  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT?
    a) B lymphocytes are responsible for humoral immunity.
    b) T lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
    c) T lymphocytes acquire their T cell receptors in the bone marrow.
    d) B lymphocytes must bind antigen to develop further.
A

c) T lymphocytes acquire their T cell receptors in the bone marrow.

34
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about vaccines is CORRECT?
    a) The MMR vaccine is associated with increased risk of autism.
    b) There is a safe, effective vaccine for TB.
    c) Inactivated polio virus is an effective vaccine for polio.
    d) Vaccination with chickenpox virus protects against smallpox.
A

c) Inactivated polio virus is an effective vaccine for polio

35
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of antibodies?
    a) Consist of 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains
    b) Consist of compact globular domains that have an alpha helical structure
    c) Most contain a flexible “hinge” region
    d) Consist of variable (V) and constant (C) regions
A

b) Consist of compact globular domains that have an alpha helical structure

36
Q

Which of the following is INCORRECT?
a) IgM can activate complement.
b) IgG can act as an opsonin
c) IgA is important in allergies
d) IgG and IgA can neutralise toxins

A

c) IgA is important in allergies

37
Q

Which of the following statements about complement is CORRECT?
a) Complement component C5a can bind to receptors on neutrophils.
b) Complement component C3a acts as an opsonin
c) The membrane attack complex is effective against gram positive bacteria.
d) Complement can only be activated by antibodies

A

a) Complement component C5a can bind to receptors on neutrophils.

38
Q

. Which of the following statements about the use of antibodies is INCORRECT
a) Polyclonal antibodies can recognise multiple epitopes
b) Monoclonal antibodies are more specific than polyclonal antibodies
c) Monoclonal antibodies are more difficult to standardise than polyclonal
antibodies.
d) Monoclonal antibodies used in therapy are usually human/humanised

A

c) Monoclonal antibodies are more difficult to standardise than polyclonal
antibodies.

39
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
    a) Cytotoxic T cells express CD4 protein
    b) Helper T cells express CD8 protein
    c) Both helper and cytotoxic T cells can make cytokines
    d) T helper cells kill infected host cells
A

c) Both helper and cytotoxic T cells can make cytokines

40
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true of MHC proteins?
    a) The main role of MHC proteins is to prevent graft rejection
    b) MHCI proteins present antigen to CD8 T cells
    c) MHCII proteins present antigen to CD4 T cells
    d) MHC proteins are very polymorphic
A

a) The main role of MHC proteins is to prevent graft rejection

41
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of cytokines?
    a) Cytokines usually act locally and their activity is tightly controlled.
    b) Cytokines are only made by T cells
    c) Many cytokine receptors are dimeric
    d) Cytokines can induce inflammation
A

b) Cytokines are only made by T cells

42
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are CORRECT?
    a) Gp120 binds to CD4
    b) Monocytes can be infected by HIV
    c) Dendritic cells can be infected by HIV
    d) T helper cells can be infected by HIV
A
  1. (a) and (d) are correct; 2. (a) (c) and (d) are correct 3. ALL are correct 4. (a), (b) and (d) are correct
43
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a means of HIV transmission?
    a) Mother to foetus
    b) Breast feeding
    c) Contaminated needles
    d) Inhalation of aerosols from an infected person
A

d) Inhalation of aerosols from an infected person

44
Q

5 cardinal signs of inflammation

A

Rubor
Calor
Dolor
Tumor
Loss of function

45
Q

What are granulomas

A

Aggregates of epitheliod histiocytes
Look like a horse shoe
They secrete ACE

46
Q

Parasite

A

Eosinophil + Granuloma

47
Q

Virchows triad

A

Blood Stasis
Hypercoagulability
Endotheial Injury

48
Q

What is neoplasm

A

Autonomous Abnormal Perissitent New Growth

49
Q

Toll Like Receptors

A

TLR 2
Two
TB and other mycobacteria

TLR4 (for LPS)
CD14

TLR 5
Five
Flagellin
Flagelated bacteria

TLR 7
Seven
SS RNA

TLR 9
Nine
Nonmethylated
Nucleotide motifs - CpG

TLR 3
Three is “Free” of MyD88

What are the intracellular TLRs?
TLR 3, 7, 8, and 9 are in the intracellular compartment and detect nucleic acids.

What is MyD88?
MyD88 is an adapter protein that plays a role in TLR signaling. MyD88 is involved in all TLR-signaling pathways except TLR 3.

50
Q

T and B cells: types

A

When bacteria enter body, T-cell says to B: “Help Me Catch Some!” B-cell replies: “My Pleasure!”:
· T-cell types:
Helper
Memory
Cytotoxic
Suppressor
· B-cell types:
Memory cell
Plasma cell

51
Q

Hypersensitivity reactions: Gell and Goombs nomenclature

A

ACID
· From I to IV:
Anaphylactic type: type I (Allergic, Anaphylaxis, Atrophy)

Cytotoxic type: type II (antiBody)

Immune complex disease: type III (immune Complex)

Delayed hypersensitivity (cell mediated): type IV

52
Q

Histamine features:

A

HISTAMINE:
HCL production
Inflammation
Strong vasodilator
Therapeutic vaue none
Allergy
Mast cells
Neurotransmitter/ Narrow airways
IgE

53
Q

Leukocytes: granulated and agranulated

A

“BEN Loves Money”:
· Granulocytes:
Basophil
Eosinophil
Neutrophil
· Agranulocytes:
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
· Alternatively: Granpa BEN…” to keep the granulated group straight.

54
Q

CAP treatment

A

Amoxicillin (typical)
Clarothromycin (Atypical)

55
Q

COPD treatment

A

Amoxicillin/clarothromycin, doxycycline

56
Q

HAP treatment

A

Co-amoxiclav

57
Q

Cellulitis treatment

A

Floxacillin

58
Q

Pyelonephritis treamtnent

A

Cefalexin

59
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis treamtent

A

Azithromycin/doxycycline

60
Q

Neissiera gonorrhoea treamtnent

A

Im Ceftriaxone + Azithromycin

61
Q

Syphilis treatment

A

Benzypeniciilin

62
Q

Gastroenteritis

A

Campylobacter: clarithromycin
Salmonella + Shigella = ciprafloxacin

63
Q

C. difficile treatment

A

caused by antibiotics beginning with C
Vancomycin

64
Q

Infective Endocarditis treatment

A

S.aureus: vancomycin + rifampicin
S. viridans: Benzypencilin + Gentamycin

65
Q

Bioavailability of Opioids?

A

50%
NALOXONE

NEED TO KNOW Before Exams!!! (13 decks)

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