Micro 200a- Midterm 2 MC Q's Flashcards

1
Q

The sum of all biosynthetic reactions in a cell is known as

A

anabolism

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2
Q

Based on the functional roles of phosphate in various microbial metabolisms, deduce which compounds phosphate exists as in microorganisms

A

both organic and inorganic compounds

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3
Q
Which of the following would be used by a chemoorganotroph for energy? 
A) C2H3O2- 
B) H2 
C) CO2 
D) H+
A

C2H3O2-

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4
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Most bacteria are capable of using ammonia as their sole nitrogen source.
B) Some bacteria are able to use nitrates or nitrogen gas as their nitrogen source.
C) Most available nitrogen is in organic forms.
D) Nitrogen is a major component of proteins and nucleic acids.

A

Most available nitrogen is in organic forms

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5
Q

All microorganisms require

A

phosphorus, selenium, and sulfur

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6
Q

Based on your understanding of metabolism, generalize when an enzyme’s rate of activity can be changed.

A

after enzyme production

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7
Q

The change in Gibbs free energy for a particular reaction is MOST useful in determining

A

whether there will be a requirement or production of energy.

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8
Q
Which is an example of a micronutrient? 
A) arginine 
B) inorganic phosphorous 
C) iron 
D) vitamin B12
A

iron

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9
Q

Aseptic technique refers to

A

a series of practices to avoid contamination.

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10
Q

To ensure growth of a newly discovered bacterium with unknown nutritional requirements, it would be best to begin with a ________ medium rather than a ________ medium.

A

complex / minimal

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11
Q

If ΔG0’ is negative, the reaction is

A

exergonic and energy will be released.

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12
Q

Activation energy is the energy

A

required to transform all reactants into their reactive state.

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13
Q

A catalyst

A

changes the rate of the reaction but does not change the end amount of products.

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14
Q

The portion of an enzyme to which substrates bind is referred to as the

A

active site.

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15
Q

What is the difference between a coenzyme and a prosthetic group?

A

Coenzymes are weakly bound whereas prosthetic groups are strongly bound to their respective enzymes.

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16
Q

If an oxidation reaction occurs

A

simultaneous reduction of a different compound will also occur, because electrons do not generally exist alone in solution.

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17
Q

A chemoorganotroph and a chemolithotroph in the same environment would NOT compete for

A

carbon.

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18
Q

A chemoorganotroph and a photoautotroph in the same environment would NOT compete for

A

carbon and oxygen.

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19
Q

The Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway is another name for

A

glycolysis.

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20
Q

The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose fermented is

A

2.

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21
Q

Fermentation has a relatively low ATP yield compared to aerobic respiration because

A

oxidative phosphorylation yields a lot of ATP.

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22
Q

From the standpoint of the microorganism, in glycolysis the crucial product is

A

ATP; the fermentation products are waste products.

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23
Q

In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is

A

oxygen.

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24
Q

The rising of bread dough is the result of

A

carbon dioxide produced by fermentation.

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25
Q

Which feature of anaerobic and aerobic respiration is different between the two catabolic strategies?

A

electron acceptor

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26
Q

For a carbon source, chemoorganotrophs generally use compounds such as

A

acetate, succinate, and glucose.

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27
Q

How does the proton motive force lead to production of ATP?

A

Translocation of three to four protons drives the F0 component of ATPase which in turn phosphorylates one ADP into ATP.

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28
Q

Five-carbon sugars are used in the

A

biosynthesis of DNA and RNA.

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29
Q

Most of the carbon in amino acid biosynthesis comes from

A

citric acid cycle intermediates and glycolysis products.

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30
Q

T/F: A bacterial isolate that grows better on a nutrient agar plate supplemented with amino acids but still grows in a nutrient agar plate lacking amino acids suggests amino acids are trace nutrients for the isolate.

A

False.

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31
Q

T/F: In a given chemical reaction, if the free energy of formation is known for all of the reactants and each of the products, the change in free energy can be calculated for the reaction.

A

True

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32
Q

T/F: Free-energy calculations are dependent on the rates of the reactions.

A

False

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33
Q

T/F: With respect to nitrogen utilization, relatively few bacteria can use NH3 whereas many more can make use of N2.

A

False

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34
Q

T/F: If a substance is reduced, it gains electrons.

A

True.

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35
Q

T/F: In substrate-level phosphorylation, ATP storage is depleted during the steps in catabolism of the fermentable compounds.

A

False

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36
Q

T/F: Catabolic pathways are essential for microorganisms to obtain energy, because biosynthetic reactions for cellular growth generally require energy input.

A

True

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37
Q

T/F: Many defined growth media that support microbial growth lack malonate, which is an important precursor for biosynthesis of lipid membranes. Based on this, we can infer cells also must have a metabolic pathway to generate malonate from other compounds.

A

True

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38
Q

T/F: The net result of electron transport is the generation of a pH gradient and an electrochemical potential across the membrane.

A

True

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39
Q

Why do eukaryotes have organelles?

A

prevents interference between competing pathways

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40
Q

An organotrophic organism is distinguished by

A

obtains hydrogen or electrons from organic substrates. This term is used in microbiology to classify and describe organisms based on how they obtain electrons for their respiration processes. Some organotrophs such as animals and many bacteria, are also heterotrophs. Organotrophs can be either anaerobic or aerobic.

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41
Q

Which of the following is always true for enzymes?

A

catalyze exergonic reactions

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42
Q

Which of the following is always true of lithotrophs?

A

utilize inorganic molecules as an electron source

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43
Q

What do chemotrophs utilize as an electron source?

A

reduced compounds

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44
Q

What is used to define the change in free energy of a reaction taking place in a living cell?

A

ΔG

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45
Q

What type of agar can be used to detect hemolysis?

A

blood agar

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46
Q

In general, what is the relationship between heat and the efficiency of microbial control methods?

A

decreasing temperature decreases effectiveness

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47
Q

Generally, what environment will a facultative anaerobe grow best in?

A

aerobic environment

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48
Q

Which of the following organisms would you be most likely to encounter in a human duodenum, which is the compartment of the gut immediately following the stomach?

A

facultative anaerobe, acidophile, mesophile

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49
Q

Which of the following can be safely used to disinfect skin?

A

quaternary ammonium compounds

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50
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes facilitated diffusion?

A

facilitated diffusion requires a protein to transport molecules

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51
Q

When might you utilize a differential supportive media that contains bile salts?

A

to enrich the number of E. coli cells in a mixture of Gram +ve and Gram –ve organisms

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52
Q

A soil organism gets its electrons and energy from organic carbon sources. What classification best describes this organism?

A

chemoorganotroph

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53
Q

You have developed a media that contains the sugar lactose as the sole carbon source . There are no unknown extracts, but there is a pH indicator in the media to identify products of lactose fermentation. With the information provided, how would you describe this media?

A

selective and differential

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54
Q

Which of the following about redox pairs is true?

A

the reducing agent is oxidized during the reaction

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55
Q

Which of the following lists is arranged in order, from lowest level of cleanliness to highest?

A

untreated, sanitized, disinfected

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56
Q

What adaptations do cells have to survive in high osmosis conditions?

A

compatible solutes

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57
Q

Which of the following statements about oxygen is true?

A

can be converted to toxic products in the cell

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58
Q

Which of the following lists is composed entirely of growth factors?

A

amino acids, vitamins

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59
Q

Which of the following statements about protists are true?

A

may be flagellated

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60
Q

On a growth curve, the four stages of growth, in order are:

A

lag phase, exponential phase, stationary phase, death phase

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61
Q

What is the difference between soap and antibacterial soap?

A

only antibacterial soap targets specific enzymes

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62
Q

An aquatic microbe utilizes light energy to convert CO2 into sugars. What classification best describes this organism?

A

photoautotroph

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63
Q

The lethal target of heavy metals is:

A

protein

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64
Q

Where are antiseptics typically used?

A

surface of living tissue

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65
Q

During feedback inhibition of metabolic pathways, why does the inhibitor generally bind allosterically?

A

end product of a pathway must be structurally different from the starting product and can’t bind the active site

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66
Q

What is one advantage and one disadvantage of measuring growth by plate counts?

A

disadvantage – time consuming / advantage - only counts living cells

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67
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of a biofilm?

A

biofilms maintain a homogeneous environment for bacteria

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68
Q

Cyanobacteria typically use CO2 as the primary carbon source. Such organisms would be:

A

autotrophs

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69
Q

Which of the following would be associated with most of the ATP produced by cyanobacteria growing in the light?

A

Photophosphorylation

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70
Q

In the Citric Acid Cycle, what side rxn is associated with:

Pyruvate+CoA→ Acetyl-CoA+CO2

Isocitrate→α-Ketoglutarate+CO2

α-Ketoglutarate+CoA→Succinyl-CoA

Malate→Oxaloacetate

A

NAD+ → NADH

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71
Q

In the Citric Acid Cycle, what side rxn is associated with:

Succinate→Fumarate

A

FAD → FADH2

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72
Q

In the Citric Acid Cycle, what side rxn is associated with:

Succinyl-CoA → Succinate+CoA

A

GDP+Pi → GTP

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73
Q

In the Citric Acid Cycle, what side rxn is associated with:

Acetyl-CoA+Oxaloacetate → Citrate+CoA

Fumarate → Malate

A

No side reaction

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74
Q

Trace elements are found in bacterial cells in very small amounts because they __________.

A

function only in a limited set of enzymes and cofactors

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75
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

  • Most available nitrogen is in organic forms.
  • Some bacteria are able to use nitrates or nitrogen gas as their nitrogen source.
  • Most bacteria are capable of using ammonia as their sole nitrogen source.
  • Nitrogen is a major component of proteins and nucleic acids.
A

Most available nitrogen is in organic forms.

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76
Q

All microorganisms require

A

phosphorus, selenium, and sulfur.

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77
Q

Which element functions BOTH as an enzyme cofactor and as a stabilizer of ribosomes and nucleic acids?

A

magnesium

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78
Q

Which is an example of a micronutrient?iron
arginine
vitamin B12
inorganic phosphorous

A

iron

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79
Q

The class of macromolecules in microorganisms that contributes MOST to biomass is

A

proteins.

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80
Q

In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is

A

oxygen.

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81
Q

All of the following are non-protein electron carriers EXCEPT

FMNH2.
FADH2.
quinones.
cytochromes.

A

cytochromes.

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82
Q

When culturing a chemoorganoheterophic bacterium, what outcome is LEAST likely to occur if ammonia and phosphate are provided at equal concentrations?

A

Cells require much less P to grow than N, so extra P will be used for ATP synthesis and result in a faster growth rate.

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83
Q

Organic micronutrients are commonly called __________.

A

growth factors

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84
Q

T/F: A bacterial isolate that grows better on a nutrient agar plate supplemented with amino acids but still grows in a nutrient agar plate lacking amino acids suggests amino acids are trace nutrients for the isolate.

A

False

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85
Q

T/F: Magnesium is not considered a growth factor for microorganisms, because growth factors are always organic compounds.

A

True

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86
Q

T/F: Cells require iron supplemented in their growth medium as a trace metal, because it is consumed by quinones during electron transport for ATP production.

A

False

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87
Q

T/F: During the electron transport process, protons and electrons become physically separated in the cell membrane.

A

True

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88
Q

Fuel for cellular respiration:

Which of the following molecules is broken down in cellular respiration, providing fuel for the cell?

A

glucose

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89
Q

Energy for cell work:

Which energy-rich molecule directly powers cell work?

A

ATP

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90
Q

Which of the following would NOT be required to grow an autotroph?

elements
potassium phosphate
glucose
water

A

glucose

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91
Q

A nurse takes a urine sample from a patient suspected of having contracted a urinary tract infection. The nurse uses careful aseptic technique in collecting the sample. Which is NOT a reason for using aseptic technique in this situation?

A

to get as many organisms as possible to grow in the culture medium

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92
Q

Aseptic technique refers to

A

a series of practices to avoid contamination.

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93
Q

To ensure growth of a newly discovered bacterium with unknown nutritional requirements, it would be best to begin with a ________ medium rather than a ________ medium.

A

complex / minimal

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94
Q

Explain why you would use selective media instead of differential media to grow an organism.

A

You only want to determine the cell wall type, not any biochemical characteristics.

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95
Q

organisms obtain their energy from different types of metabolic pathways

A
chemicals= chemotrophs
light= phototrophs
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96
Q

organisms obtain their energy from different types of metabolic pathways

A

chemicals= chemotrophs

light= phototrophs

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97
Q

types of molecules chemotrophic organisms obtain their energy from

A

organic chemicals= chemoorganotrophs

inorganic chemicals= chemolithotrophs

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98
Q

chemoorganotrophs organic chemicals=

A

glucose, acetate, etc.

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99
Q

chemolithotrophs inorganic chemicals=

A

H2, H2S, Fe 2+, NH4 +, etc.

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100
Q

lithotrophs electron source:

A

H2 + O2 → H2O

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101
Q

organotrophs electron source:

A

glucose + O2 → CO2 + H2O

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102
Q

A defined culture medium must supply all of the nutrients an organism needs, including essential biochemicals that the cell cannot synthesize. Based on the following recipe, this defined medium could support the growth of certain members of what group? Recipe: 7 g of K2HPO4; 2 g of KH2PO4; 1g of (NH4)2SO4; 0.1g of MgSO4; 0.02g of CaCl2; 10g of glucose; trace elements mix; 1000mL of distilled water; adjust to pH 7.

A

chemoorganotroph

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103
Q

Which of the following would be used by a chemoorganotroph for energy?

CO2
H+
H2
C2H3O2-

A

C2H3O2-

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104
Q

A chemoorganotroph and a chemolithotroph in the same environment would NOT compete for

A

carbon.

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105
Q

A chemoorganotroph and a photoautotroph in the same environment would NOT compete for

A

carbon and oxygen.

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106
Q

For a carbon source, chemoorganotrophs generally use compounds such as

A

acetate, succinate, and glucose.

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107
Q

Which statement below demonstrates why the majority of organisms are heterotrophs?

A

The majority of organisms obtain their carbon from organic sources.

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108
Q

In metabolism, energy that is not used

A

is given off as heat.

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109
Q

The reactions involved in producing larger compounds from smaller compounds is called

A

anabolism.

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110
Q

Where does the energy required for anabolic reactions come from?

A

Catabolic reactions

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111
Q

The use of amino acids to make proteins

A

is an example of anabolism.

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112
Q

According to the animation, oxidative phosphorylation

A

is a catabolic process.

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113
Q

According to the animation, the reactions that occur between glucose and pyruvic acid

A

can either be anabolic or catabolic.

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114
Q

To calculate the free energy (ΔG0′) of a reaction, you can subtract the free energies of formation (Gf0) of the reactants from those of the products. Given the following data, what will be true of this reaction? C6H12O6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O Gf0 : -917.3 0 -394.4 -237.2

A

The reaction will be exergonic.

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115
Q

The change in Gibbs free energy for a particular reaction is MOST useful in determining

A

whether there will be a requirement or production of energy.

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116
Q

If ΔG0’ is negative, the reaction is

A

exergonic and energy will be released.

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117
Q

T/F: Free-energy calculations are dependent on the rates of the reactions.

A

False

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118
Q

Properly label the steps that occur as an enzyme catalyzes a chemical reaction.

A
  1. enzyme active site is filled by substrate
  2. enzyme-substrate complex forms
  3. catalytic cycle is ready to begin again
  4. the bond in the substrate is strained
  5. release of products
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119
Q

The role of an enzyme includes all EXCEPT which of the following?

  • reducing the rate of a reaction to allow for better control
  • straining chemical bonds in a substrate so that they break easier
  • lowering the activation energy of a reaction
  • binding only one specific substrate to the enzyme active site
A

reducing the rate of a reaction to allow for better control

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120
Q

Based on your understanding of metabolism, generalize when an enzyme’s rate of activity can be changed.

A

after enzyme production

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121
Q

Activation energy is the energy

A

required to transform all reactants into their reactive state.

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122
Q

A catalyst

A

changes the rate of the reaction but does not change the end amount of products.

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123
Q

The portion of an enzyme to which substrates bind is referred to as the

A

active site.

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124
Q

T/F: In a given chemical reaction, if the free energy of formation is known for all of the reactants and each of the products, the change in free energy can be calculated for the reaction.

A

True

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125
Q

Why do all enzymatic reactions need activation energy?

A

Energy is required to disrupt a substrate’s stable electron configuration.

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126
Q

What is meant by the statement “Enzymes are biological catalysts”?

A

Enzymes speed up the chemical reactions in living cells.

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127
Q

Why are enzymes important to biological systems?

A

Enzymes decrease the amount of activation energy required for chemical reactions to occur.

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128
Q

The reduction potential (E0′) of a substance reflects its tendency to donate or accept electrons. The larger the difference (ΔE0′) between the reduction potentials of the electron donor and the electron acceptor, __________.

A

the greater the change in free energy (ΔG0′), and the greater the energy released

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129
Q

If an oxidation reaction occurs

A

simultaneous reduction of a different compound will also occur, because electrons do not generally exist alone in solution.

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130
Q

The function of NAD+/NADH in the cell is best described as __________.

A

a way to increase the types of redox reactions that occur in the cell by acting as an intermediary between dissimilar compounds

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131
Q

T/F: If a substance is reduced, it gains electrons.

A

True

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132
Q

A reaction that involves the transfer of electrons from one molecule to another is referred to as

A

a redox reaction.

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133
Q

During an oxidation reaction,

A

the donor molecule loses an electron and becomes oxidized.

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134
Q

Why is reduction the term used to describe the gain of an electron?

A

The electron acceptor’s net charge decreases.

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135
Q

Which of the following statements regarding redox reactions is true?

  • No metabolic reactions are redox reactions.
  • Redox reactions must either be oxidizing reactions or reducing reactions.
  • Redox reactions are only seen in the electron transport chain.
  • Redox reactions involve an oxidation reaction coupled with a reduction reaction.
A

Redox reactions involve an oxidation reaction coupled with a reduction reaction.

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136
Q

T/F: Due to the number of phosphate groups, ATP has approximately three times more energy stored than AMP, and ADP has approximately two-thirds the energy stored of ATP.

A

False

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137
Q

At the doctor’s office, the doctor drains the abscess and takes a sample for culturing. She also prescribes some broad-spectrum antibiotics to treat the obvious infection. A couple days later, the doctor tells Sam that his wound contained a number of bacteria including Pasteurella multocida. When the dog bit Sam’s arm P. multocida entered the wound and started to establish an infection. In order to do so, the bacteria have to grow, which requires energy. One of the most common energy sources used by bacteria is glucose. Why is glucose such a good source of energy for bacteria?

A

Glucose is a highly reduced compound, containing many carbon-hydrogen bonds and a lot of potential energy.

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138
Q

The P. multocida that are growing within Sam’s abscess are breaking glucose down via glycolysis in order to obtain energy. This process occurs via a series of enzymatic reactions. During a chemical reaction, an enzyme functions as a biological catalyst and lowers the activation energy. How does an enzyme lower the activation energy of a reaction?

A

The enzyme increases the effectiveness of reactant collisions thereby increasing the number of reactant molecules that reach activation energy.

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139
Q

During the infection, there are many different environments that P. multocida will encounter. In order to cause an infection like the one in Sam’s forearm, P. multocida must regulate its metabolic pathways in order to adapt to the changing environments. The process of glycolysis is regulated at several steps by allosteric inhibition. Which of the following are features of allosteric inhibition?

A
  • Allosteric inhibition can be irreversible.
  • Allosteric inhibition can be reversed.
  • The allosteric inhibitor binds to a site distinct from the active site resulting in decreased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate.
140
Q

Arrange the components of the electron transport chain in order from least electronegative to most electronegative thereby indicating the path of electrons through the electron transport chain.

A
  • NADH dehydrogenase
  • Coenzyme Q
  • Cytochrome b-c1 complex
  • Cytochrome c
  • Cytochrome oxidase complex
  • O2
141
Q

One of the environmental changes that P. multocida encounters during infection is the limitation of nutrients and oxygen. One of the changes that P. multocida (a facultative anaerobe) makes in this environment is to switch to anaerobic metabolism. Predict which of the following is most likely to occur as a result of the switch from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism.

A

The organisms will grow more slowly because they will produce less ATP compared to aerobic metabolism.

142
Q

Fermentation occurs when there is no usable external electron acceptor (like O2) available for respiration. The fermentation products are made following glycolysis as a result of reactions that __________.

A

oxidize NADH so that NAD+ can be reused again in glycolysis

143
Q

The Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway is another name for

A

glycolysis.

144
Q

The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose fermented is

A

2.

145
Q

Which of the following is a common energy storage polymer in microorganisms?

A

glycogen

146
Q

Fermentation has a relatively low ATP yield compared to aerobic respiration because

A

oxidative phosphorylation yields a lot of ATP.

147
Q

From the standpoint of the microorganism, in glycolysis the crucial product is

A

ATP; the fermentation products are waste products.

148
Q

Applying your knowledge of metabolism, glycolysis starts with one molecule of glucose (6C) and produces a net total of __________.

A

two pyruvates; 2 NADH; 2 ATP

149
Q

T/F: In substrate-level phosphorylation, ATP storage is depleted during the steps in catabolism of the fermentable compounds.

A

False

150
Q

Why is ATP required for glycolysis?

A

ATP makes it easier to break apart glucose into two three-carbon molecules.

151
Q

Glycolysis literally means

A

sugar splitting.

152
Q

How many net ATPs can be made from one molecule of glucose in glycolysis?

A

Two

153
Q

What carbon molecules remain at the end of glycolysis?

A

Pyruvic acid

154
Q

Which of the following statements about glycolysis is true?

  • Glycolysis is the main source of NADH in the cell.
  • All cells perform glycolysis.
  • Glycolysis is also called the Embden-Meyerhof pathway.
  • Glycolysis produces glucose.
A

Glycolysis is also called the Embden-Meyerhof pathway.

155
Q

Glycolysis produces energy in which form?

A

NADH and ATP

156
Q

Which step is the step for which glycolysis is named?

A

Fourth

157
Q

What is meant by substrate-level phosphorylation?

A

Production of ATP by transferring phosphates directly from metabolic products to ADP

158
Q

What is the driving force of energy production in steps 6 and 7 of Gylcolysis?

A

The oxidation of three-carbon compounds (ADP to ATP)

159
Q

What is the net production of ATP in glycolysis?

A

2 ATP

160
Q

Distinguish how fermentation and respiration differ.

A

Fermentation forms organic acids and takes place in the absence of oxygen, while respiration forms water and carbon dioxide in the presence of oxygen.

161
Q

Which of the following statements about fermentation is true?

  • It allows the electron transport chain to continue in the absence of oxygen.
  • It is an alternative way to return electron carriers to their oxidized state.
  • It provides additional protons to allow the electron transport chain to continue.
  • It is an alternative way for a cell to produce oxygen.
A

It is an alternative way to return electron carriers to their oxidized state.

162
Q

What is the role of pyruvic acid in fermentation?

A

It takes the electrons from NADH, oxidizing it back into NAD+.

163
Q

What is the fate of the NAD+ newly regenerated by fermentation?

A

It returns to glycolysis to pick up more electrons.

164
Q

Which of the following is an acid produced by fermentation?

A

Lactic acid and propionic acid

165
Q

What is the intermediate product formed by pyruvic acid during alcoholic fermentation?

A

Acetaldehyde

166
Q

Electron carriers used in electron transport chains are always found in membranes. Which one of the following statements is NOT a reason why electron transport chains are found in membranes?

  • so that the electron carriers can be oriented within the membrane such that protons are passed from one side of the membrane to the other
  • so that they can efficiently pass electrons in sequence from the carriers with the more negative reduction potentials to those with the more positive reduction potentials
  • so that they can transport NADH out of the cell to the periplasm
  • So that electron-only carriers can be arranged to alternate with electron-plus-proton carriers in the chain.
A

so that they can transport NADH out of the cell to the periplasm

167
Q

During electron transport reactions,

A

OH- accumulates on the inside of the membrane while H+ accumulates on the outside.

168
Q

The rising of bread dough is the result of

A

carbon dioxide produced by fermentation.

169
Q

How does the proton motive force lead to production of ATP?

A

Translocation of three to four protons drives the F0 component of ATPase which in turn phosphorylates one ADP into ATP.

170
Q

Hypothetically, if electron pools existed in sufficient numbers for enzymes to use in metabolic reactions,

A

most metabolic pathways for both anabolism and catabolism would have to be rewritten.

171
Q

The proton motive force (PMF) is driven by __________.

A

the difference in charge across the plasma membrane with protons outside the membrane

172
Q

T/F: Depending on the particular metabolism of a bacterium, electron transport can be used to energize and rotate ATP synthase.

A

False

173
Q

T/F: The terminating step of moving electrons onto oxygen releases additional ATP during aerobic metabolism not made during anaerobic growth.

A

False

174
Q

T/F: The proton motive force is most often generated by splitting of H2.

A

False

175
Q

T/F: In electron transport systems, the electron carriers are membrane associated.

A

True

176
Q

T/F: The net result of electron transport is the generation of a pH gradient and an electrochemical potential across the membrane.

A

True

177
Q

Electron Transport Chain: Factors Affecting ATP Yield

Why does lack of oxygen result in the halt of ATP synthesis?

A

The chain shuts down and can no longer pump hydrogen ions across the membrane, and the proton gradient cannot be maintained.

178
Q

Why might some cells uncouple the electron transport chain?

A

Cells can use the energy from the proton gradient for functions other than producing ATP, such as heat generation.

179
Q

How does cyanide poisoning result in the decrease of ATP production?

A

Cyanide permanently reduces cytochrome a3, preventing other components to change into the oxidized state. This causes the proton gradient to break down, stopping ATP synthesis.

180
Q

Which of the following situations does not result in a breakdown of the proton gradient?

A

Uncoupling proteins

181
Q

Where would you expect to find electron transport chains in a prokaryote?

A

Along the plasma membrane

182
Q

According to the animation, which compounds provide electrons to the ETC system?

A

NADH and FADH2

183
Q

According to the animation, what does oxygen get reduced to at the end of the electron transport chain?

A

Water

184
Q

According to the animation, what does the electron transport chain do to the concentration of hydrogen ions (protons)?

A

The concentration of protons is higher outside the membrane than inside.

185
Q

The process of generating ATP using a proton gradient is referred to as

A

chemiosmosis.

186
Q

Why does FADH2 yield less ATP than NADH?

A

FADH2 electrons enter the electron transport chain at a lower energy level.

187
Q

Which of the following can be used as a final electron acceptor for aerobic respiration?

A

Molecular oxygen

188
Q

What is one difference between ubiquinones and cytochromes?

A

Ubiquinones are not made of protein; cytochromes are

189
Q

How does the proton gradient help ATP synthase to make ATP?

A

Protons move from outside the membrane to inside the membrane.

190
Q

Iron is considered an essential element for many bacteria. Based on the animation, how would lack of iron affect energy production of a bacterium?

A

Lack of iron would mean lack of heme, and thus lower amounts of functioning cytochrome proteins. This would mean lower energy yields.

191
Q

If the citric acid cycle was interrupted after the reaction that forms citrate, predict how this would affect the total amount of ATP generated per glucose molecule.

A

The amount of ATP would be reduced from a total of 38 ATP to 14 ATP.

192
Q

T/F: Regeneration of oxaloacetate is essential for the citric acid cycle to be cyclical.

A

True

193
Q

T/F: Catabolic pathways are essential for microorganisms to obtain energy, because biosynthetic reactions for cellular growth generally require energy input.

A

True

194
Q

Krebs Cycle:

What occurs at the bridge step?

A

Decarboxylation of pyruvic acid

195
Q

Based on the animation, how many electron carriers are reduced in the Krebs cycle only?

A

Four

196
Q

Krebs Cycle:

What is the function of GTP?

A

An energy carrier

197
Q

What is the fate of metabolites during respiration?

A

They are oxidized completely to carbon dioxide and water.

198
Q

Which of the following is needed as a reactant for the first step of the citric acid cycle?

A

Oxaloacetic acid

199
Q

Krebs Cycle:

Where does the energy come from to power the formation of GTP?

A

Succinyl CoA

200
Q

Krebs Cycle:

Which step involves the release of carbon dioxide?

A

The third and fourth steps

201
Q

Krebs Cycle:

How many molecules of ATP can be generated from one molecule of NADH?

A

3

202
Q

Which step(s) of the Krebs cycle does (do) not produce any usable energy?

A

The second and seventh steps

203
Q

What is the correct general equation for cellular respiration?

A

C6H12O6(glucose) + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP energy

204
Q

the correct sequence of steps as energy is extracted from glucose during cellular respiration.

A

glycolysis → acetyl CoA → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain

205
Q

Which of the following processes takes place in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell?

A

glycolysis

206
Q

In what organelle would you find acetyl CoA formation, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain?

A

mitochondrion

207
Q

statement describes glycolysis?

A

This process splits glucose in half and produces 2 ATPs for each glucose.

208
Q

statement describes the citric acid cycle?

A

This process produces some ATP and carbon dioxide in the mitochondrion.

209
Q

statement describes the electron transport chain?

A

This process uses energy captured from electrons flowing to oxygen to produce most of the ATPs in cellular respiration.

210
Q

Which of the following equations represents photosynthesis?

A

6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2

211
Q

In which of the following organelles does photosynthesis take place?

A

Chloroplast

212
Q

What connects the two photosystems in the light reactions?

A

An electron transport chain

213
Q

What two molecules are produced by the light reactions and used to power the Calvin cycle?

A

ATP and NADPH

214
Q

What provides electrons for the light reactions?

A

H2O

215
Q

What provides the carbon atoms that are incorporated into sugar molecules in the Calvin cycle?

A

Carbon dioxide (CO2)

216
Q

What transports electrons from the light reactions to the Calvin cycle?

A

NADPH

217
Q

The light reactions take place in the _________ and the Calvin cycle takes place in the _________.

A

thylakoids; stroma

218
Q

The sum of all biosynthetic reactions in a cell is known as

A

anabolism.

219
Q

Which feature of anaerobic and aerobic respiration is different between the two catabolic strategies?

A

electron acceptor

220
Q

Which metabolic strategy does NOT utilize the proton motive force?

A

fermentation

221
Q

How is anaerobic respiration different from aerobic respiration?

A

The terminal electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration is not oxygen

222
Q

Gluconeogenesis is the process of synthesizing __________.

A

glucose from other compounds

223
Q

Which two metabolic processes are MOST dissimilar?

A

glycolysis and gluconeogenesis

224
Q

One example of an electron acceptor that can be used in anaerobic respiration is

A

nitrate.

225
Q

Most of the carbon in amino acid biosynthesis comes from

A

citric acid cycle intermediates and glycolysis products.

226
Q

T/F: With respect to nitrogen utilization, relatively few bacteria can use NH3 whereas many more can make use of N2.

A

False

227
Q

B. subtilis cell shape
The L-form B. subtilis bacteria described in the introductory passage have a spherical shape and pattern of growth that is very different from non-mutant B. subtilis, which is a rod-shaped bacterium. What best explains the difference in appearance and shape?

A

A sphere is the most energetically favorable shape for a cell.

228
Q

Cell membranes and temperature:

Hyperthermophiles are organisms that thrive at extremely high temperatures. What sorts of specializations might they have to survive in such high temperatures?

A
  • cell membranes with long chain fatty acids
  • monolayer membranes that link one side to the other for stability
  • extremely heat stable proteins that function best at high temperatures
  • increased use of isoprene units instead of fatty acids
229
Q

Osmotic conditions:

  • a hypersaline environment
  • an environment that is hypertonic to the inside of the cell
A

Desiccation

230
Q

Osmotic conditions:

  • an environment that is isotonic to the inside of the cell
  • an isotonic environment containing penicillin
A

Growth and survival

231
Q

Osmotic conditions:

  • an environment that is hypotonic to the inside of the cell
  • a liquid culture of distilled water with minimal added materials
A

Lysis

232
Q

Microbial control using temperature
Microbes are found at a wide range of temperatures, from the cold in the Antarctic to hot springs like those at Yellowstone National Park. In the introductory passage, B. subtilis is discussed because it has been used as a model organism. B. subtilis is a bacterium normally found in the human gut and can sometimes cause disease. An autoclave is often used at a temperature of 121°C, which is close to the maximum temperature for most Archaea (122°C). What is likely to be an optimal temperature for the growth of B. subtilis?

A
  • The optimal temperature for the growth of B. subtilis is 36-38°C.
  • B. subtilis is considered a mesophile.
233
Q

What results when a single bacterium reproduces?

A

Two genetically identical daughter cells

234
Q

If you begin with six cells, how many cells would you have after three rounds of division?

A

48 cells

235
Q

Which of the following is NOT a step in bacterial cell division?

Disappearance of nuclear envelope
Splitting apart of two new daughter cells
Cell elongation
Replication of the genetic material

A

Disappearance of nuclear envelope

236
Q

Which step of binary fission is the reason for genetically identical daughter cells?

A

Replication of the bacterial chromosome

237
Q

What enables the copied chromosomes to separate during binary fission?

A

The chromosomes are attached to different parts of cell membrane, which elongates and thus separates the chromosomes.

238
Q

How long does it take for the daughter cells from one round of replication to replicate themselves?

A

No time is required – they are ready to divide immediately after DNA replication and separation of the daughter cells is complete if conditions are right.

239
Q

Put the following steps of bacterial replication in the correct order, starting from a parent cell.

Cell elongation
Septum formation
Chromosome replication
Separation of daughter cells

A

Chromosome replication
Cell elongation
Septum formation
Separation of daughter cells

240
Q

What would happen if the septum did not form during binary fission?

A

The parent cell would now have two copies of the chromosome.

241
Q

Starting with three cells, how many cells would result from three rounds of replication?

A

24

242
Q

A typical bacterial growth curve exhibits distinct phases. It is important to know which phases occur when and what is occurring during each phase.

A

lag- exponential- stationary- death phase

243
Q

Place the labels for each step in the spread- plate viable count methods in the correct order

A
  • small portion of sample is pipetted onto agar
  • sterile glass is used to evenly spread sample
  • incubation
244
Q

Place the labels for each step in the pour-plate viable count methods in the correct order

A
  • sample is pipetted into sterile empty plate
  • sterile medium is added and mixed with sample
  • solidification and incubation
245
Q

Correctly identify the term used to characterize each microbial group based on ideal growth temperature range.

4 degrees
ex. Polaromonas vacuolata

A

Psychrophile

246
Q

Correctly identify the term used to characterize each microbial group based on ideal growth temperature range.

39 degrees
ex. E coli

A

Mesophile

247
Q

Correctly identify the term used to characterize each microbial group based on ideal growth temperature range.

60 degrees
ex. Geobacillus

A

Thermophile

248
Q

Correctly identify the term used to characterize each microbial group based on ideal growth temperature range.

88-106 degrees

ex. (88) Thermococcus celer
(106) Pyrolobus fumarii

A

Hyperthermophile

249
Q

Which of the following is/are transferred to daughter cells during cell division?

A

chromosome, proteins, and all other cellular constituents

250
Q

The process by which two cells arise from one is known as

A

binary fission

251
Q

The time interval required for the formation of two cells from one is called the

A

generation time.

252
Q

Enumerating cells in a biofilm is especially challenging for

A

microscopic direct county, measuring turbidity, and viability counts with spread plating.

253
Q

Which of the following methods to enumerate cells often requires specialized staining to observe non-pigmented bacteria?

A

microscopy

254
Q

The partition that is a result of the inward growth of the cytoplasmic membrane and cell wall from opposing directions is known as the

A

septum.

255
Q

One laboratory group repeated the same experiment described by others with the identical bacterial isolate and the same growth medium and conditions used but were unable to achieve the same O.D. at 600 nm. What is the LEAST likely cause for this discrepancy of turbidity measured?

A

The two labs varied with 1000 m elevation and did not consider the influence of pressure.

256
Q

T/F: Microbial growth is generally described as the increased number of cells rather than the expanding size of an individual microbial cell.

A

True

257
Q

T/F: Generation of new bacillus-shaped cells starts with one cell elongating and terminates when split into two separate bacilli.

A

True

258
Q

T/F: In fast-growing Escherichia coli cells, multiple replication forks of genomic DNA allows binary fission to occur before the genome has been fully duplicated.

A

False

259
Q

Both lysozyme and penicillin disrupt the bacterial cell wall peptidoglycan, leading to cell lysis. However, their mechanisms of action are different, resulting in the fact that __________.

A

penicillin kills only growing cells

260
Q

An antibiotic that increased the activity of ________ would likely result in cell death.

A

autolysin

261
Q

T/F: During elongation of a cell during binary fission, small gaps caused by transglycosylases are formed before cell membrane precursors can be inserted.

A

False

262
Q

To determine the specific growth rate of a bacterial population, it is essential to know

A

cell concentrations at varied time points.

263
Q

In a batch culture, bacterial cultures typically exhibit four different phases of growth. In which phase are the cells rapidly synthesizing proteins, but cell numbers are not changing?

A

lag phase

264
Q

The time between inoculation and the beginning of growth is usually called the

A

lag phase

265
Q

Optical density and viable cell concentration are LEAST proportional to each other during

A

death phase.

266
Q

A closed system, used for bacterial growth, where nothing is added and nothing is removed is called __________.

A

a batch culture

267
Q

what occurs in the stationary phase of bacterial growth?

A

cryptic growth, where the number of new cells equals the number of dying cells

268
Q

T/F: The duration of logarithmic growth would increase if bacterial cells divided into three equal daughter cells rather than two.

A

False

269
Q

T/F: The lag phase does NOT occur if all the cells in the culture are viable.

A

False

270
Q

T/F: The rates of exponential growth (in the exponential phase) vary greatly according to the bacterial species as well as the bioavailable nutrients.

A

True

271
Q

T/F: In both lag and stationary phase, there is no net increase or decrease in viable cells.

A

True

272
Q

The death phase applies to individual cells rather than populations.

A

False

273
Q

A microbial ecologist wants to study a bacterium that is adapted to growth in lake water containing very low nutrient concentrations. Assuming that a suitable growth medium is available for this organism, which type of culture would be best to use for growing this organism in the lab?

A

a chemostat using a low-nutrient medium

274
Q

In a culture grown in a chemostat (continuous culture), the best way to increase the yield of bacteria (numbers of cells per mL) would be to __________.

A

increase the concentration of nutrients in the medium

275
Q

Cell density in a chemostat is controlled by

A

the concentration of the limiting nutrient.

276
Q

By controlling the concentration of nutrients added into a chemostat continuously, cells can constantly be maintained at

A

log or stationary growth phase.

277
Q

Growing bacteria that degrade an environmental pollutant, which is also toxic to the cells at artificially high concentrations, might require ________ to obtain a sufficient population for biochemistry studies.

A

the use of a chemostat

278
Q

T/F: In a chemostat, growth rate and growth yield can be controlled independently.

A

True

279
Q

T/F: Heterotrophic bacteria will run out of organic growth substrates in batch cultures but chemostats can provide constant nutrient source for them to grow. Chemostats for photoautotrophic bacteria are not necessary to maintain them at a constant growth phase because a light can artificially be turned on constantly.

A

False

280
Q

A student has a pure culture of bacteria growing in a flask and wants to know how many living cells are in the culture at a given time. Which method should she employ to get an estimate?

A

plate counts

281
Q

T/F: Direct microscope counting of stained cells is an accurate method for calculating the exact number of cells in a sample.

A

True

282
Q

T/F: Counting chambers are used for estimating the number of cells present in a liquid culture.

A

True

283
Q

To determine viable cell counts of a heat-sensitive bacterial isolate, which cell counting method would be best to AVOID?

A

pour-plate method

284
Q

An agar plate for counting colonies and maximizing statistical validity should ideally contain

A

30 to 300 colonies.

285
Q

The number of colonies obtained in a plate count does NOT depend on the

A

size of the colonies.

286
Q

T/F: For most purposes of studying bacterial isolates, viable counting usually gives accurate information about the number of active cells present in a culture volume.

A

True

287
Q

T/F: By using a stain targeting living cells only, microscopy would be a better approach to enumerate the number of living cells in a soil sample compared to viability counts of serially diluted soil.

A

True

288
Q

T/F: When viable cell concentrations are too high to count on an agar medium, it is most common to use larger sized plates to increase the surface area for counting the colonies.

A

False

289
Q

In mesophiles, growth rates increase gradually as the temperature is increased, until the optimum growth temperature for the organism is reached. If the temperature is increased beyond the optimum, __________.

A

growth rates decline rapidly as the temperature increases

290
Q

Bacteria that are able to grow in humans and cause disease have likely evolved to be

A

mesophiles.

291
Q

Most mesophilic organisms can grow in a temperature range of

A

20-40°C.

292
Q

A microbe growing in a refrigerator is likely

A

psychrotolerant or psychrophilic.

293
Q

T/F: One reason food is refrigerated to control microbial growth is because irreversible cell damage is more likely to occur at low rather than high temperatures.

A

False

294
Q

T/F: The optimum temperature is usually closer to the minimum temperature than the maximum temperature.

A

False

295
Q

Relative to enzymes in mesophilic microorganisms, which of the following is NOT characteristic of enzymes in psychrophiles?

A

decreased alpha helices

296
Q

T/F: A bacterium such as a snow alga that is able to survive a cold temperature is called a psychrophile.

A

False

297
Q

Which of these statements is/are TRUE?

  • Nonphototrophic organisms are able to grow at higher temperatures than phototrophic organisms.
  • The most thermophilic prokaryotes are species of Archaea.
  • In general, prokaryotic organisms can grow at higher temperatures than eukaryotic organisms.
  • All of the statements are true.
A

All of the statements are true.

298
Q

statement shows which adaptations are necessary for hyperthermophilic proteins to stay functional at temperatures above 80°C?

A

Hyperthermophiles have increased ionic bonds to stabilize the proteins.

299
Q

T/F: Some microbes can grow in boiling water.

A

True

300
Q

T/F: Due to the relationship between the rate of enzyme catalysis and temperature, organisms living in boiling hot springs are also rapid growers with fast doubling times.

A

False

301
Q

T/F: Taq polymerase was isolated from a thermophile and is used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique because it does not become inactivated at high temperatures.

A

True

302
Q

Consider solution A (pH 6) and solution B (pH 9). Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

  • Solution A is 300 times more acidic than solution B.
  • Solution A is 3 times more acidic than solution B.
  • Solution B is 3,000 times more alkaline (basic) than solution A.
  • Solution B is 1,000 times more alkaline (basic) than solution A.
A

Solution B is 1,000 times more alkaline (basic) than solution A.

303
Q

T/F: A bacterium’s pH optimum reflects the optimal pH of its intracellular environment.

A

False

304
Q

Microbes can be grouped based on their tolerance to differing levels of salts in their environments. Knowing the meaning of these terms can help to predict which microbes might be found in a particular environment. Rank groupings from requiring low salt concentrations to high NaCl concentrations:

A
  • nonhalophile
  • halotolerant
  • halophile
  • extreme halophile (15-30%)
305
Q

The ratio of the vapor pressure of the air in equilibrium with a substance to the vapor pressure of pure water is known as

A

water activity.

306
Q

Organisms able to live in environments with high sugar concentrations are

A

osmophiles.

307
Q

When water activity is low, an organism must

A

increase its internal solute concentration.

308
Q

T/F: The sensitivity of DNA and RNA is one major reason water activity can limit microbial growth

A

False

309
Q

A bacterium containing ________ provided with hydrogen peroxide will produce oxygen bubbles.

A

catalase

310
Q

A halotolerant facultative anaerobic bacterium would grow BEST in a ________ environment.

A

oxygenated non-saline

311
Q

Which of the following forms of oxygen is/are generally toxic to living organisms?

A

superoxide, hydrogen peroxide, and hydroxyl radicals are all toxic

312
Q

Superoxide dismutase and catalase work together to convert superoxide into

A

oxygen.

313
Q

T/F: A non-aerated or shaken liquid growth medium inoculated with a bacterium is one of the best ways to culture an obligate anaerobe.

A

False

314
Q

What temperature is most commonly used for autoclaves to sterilize growth media and other devices prior to experimentation?

A

121°C

315
Q

T/F: An unpressurized autoclave would not be able to sterilize a growth medium with contaminating bacteria but could still pasteurize it.

A

True

316
Q

Many aromatic compounds used for growth substrates by bacteria are broken down during high heat autoclaving. Which is the BEST way to sterilize these aqueous solutions?

A

0.2 μm filter sterilization

317
Q

A microbiologist wants to study the virus particles from a urine sample, but not any bacteria that might be present. How can the bacteria be eliminated without harming the viruses?

A

Filter the sample with a 0.2 ï­m pore filter

318
Q

In general, which group is MOST resistant to radiation?

A

viruses

319
Q

Your laboratory supervisor has given you a plastic petri dish filled with soil to sterilize using radiation. What type of radiation will you use?

A

ionizing radiation

320
Q

T/F: Sterility of a laminar flow hood is accomplished by filter-sterilized air passed through the hood quickly enough that non-sterile air does not flow into the work area.

A

True

321
Q

The MOST effective antibiotics in preventing growth of disease-causing bacteria are

A

bacteriolytic or bacteriocidal.

322
Q

A chemical that denatures proteins is MOST likely to be classified as a(n) ________ agent.

A

bacteriocidal

323
Q

Which term is most relevant in describing the efficacy of an antimicrobial for use in a clinical setting?

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

324
Q

Which method would be LEAST effective at sterilizing a glass hockey stick to use in the spread-plate method?

A

ultrahigh-temperature pasteurization

325
Q

An antiseptic (or germicide) is distinguished from other sterilizing compounds by

A

being able to be used on living tissues without harm.

326
Q

The major distinguishing difference between antiseptics and disinfectants is __________.

A

antiseptics can be used on living tissue

327
Q

What does the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of a chemical tell you?

A

It tells you the smallest concentration of the chemical that is needed to inhibit the growth of a specific microorganism.

328
Q

Succinyl CoA as an intermediate:

Assume that the activity of the two novel enzymes found to covert α-ketoglutarate to succinate + CO2 do not result in formation of any succinyl-CoA as an intermediate. Which of the following would be expected as a result?

A

No GTP (ATP) formation by substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in the citric acid cycle of cyanobacteria.

329
Q

How does a competitive inhibitor slow enzyme catalysis?

A

They compete with the substrate for the enzyme’s active site.

330
Q

What enables competitive inhibitors to bind to a specific enzyme?

A

Competitive inhibitors have structures that resemble the enzyme’s substrate.

331
Q

If high amounts of sulfanilamide are in the presence of an enzyme whose substrate is PABA, what outcome is expected?

A

The enzyme will stop functioning.

332
Q

statements regarding competitive inhibitors is true?

A

Competitive inhibitors decrease the rate of enzyme activity.

333
Q

Why do all enzymatic reactions need activation energy?

A

Energy is required to disrupt a substrate’s stable electron configuration.

334
Q

What is meant by the statement “Enzymes are biological catalysts”?

A

Enzymes speed up the chemical reactions in living cells.

335
Q

Why are enzymes important to biological systems?

A

Enzymes decrease the amount of activation energy required for chemical reactions to occur.

336
Q

The role of an enzyme includes all EXCEPT which of the following?

  • straining chemical bonds in a substrate so that they break easier
  • lowering the activation energy of a reaction
  • binding only one specific substrate to the enzyme active site
  • reducing the rate of a reaction to allow for better control
A

reducing the rate of a reaction to allow for better control

337
Q

Activation energy is the energy

A

required to transform all reactants into their reactive state

338
Q

T/F: In a given chemical reaction, if the free energy of formation is known for all of the reactants and each of the products, the change in free energy can be calculated for the reaction.

A

True

339
Q

During an oxidation reaction,

A

the donor molecule loses an electron and becomes oxidized.

340
Q

T/F: If a substance is reduced, it gains electrons.

A

True

341
Q

T/F: The energy released from the hydrolysis of coenzyme A is conserved in the synthesis of ATP.

A

True

342
Q

What is meant by substrate-level phosphorylation?

A

Production of ATP by transferring phosphates directly from metabolic products to ADP

343
Q

Aerobic respiration produces proton motive force (PMF). Understanding how this process takes place is critical to understanding the metabolic functions of cells. Correctly identify steps occurring in this typical electron transport chain diagram.

A
  • electrons enter the chain from a primary electron donor
  • protons are extruded as Fe/S protein is reduced by FMNH2
  • Q-cycle rxns
  • as the terminal electron acceptor is reduced, electrons exit the chain.
344
Q

T/F: Depending on the particular metabolism of a bacterium, electron transport can be used to energize and rotate ATP synthase.

A

False

345
Q

Microbial growth on the two-carbon acetate substrate invokes

A

both the citric acid and glyoxylate pathways.

346
Q

T/F: Regeneration of oxaloacetate is essential for the citric acid cycle to be cyclical.

A

True

347
Q

Gluconeogenesis is the process of synthesizing __________.

A

glucose from other compounds