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Biology > 124-Lecture Midterm > Flashcards

124-Lecture Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Earth was formed
A) before our sun was formed
B) before gravity existed
C) as a part of the Big Bang
D) from the breaking apart of a larger body
E) from dust that formed when a sun exploded

A

Earth was formed

from dust that formed when a sun exploded

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2
Q

Cosmologists believe that some of the water that now exists on Earth was a part of the Earth’s first atmosphere and some of it
A) was formed deep within the molten Earth
B) was formed at the bottom of the deepening ocean
C) was formed by bacteria after they evolved
D) was formed by plants after they evolved
E) arrived in meteorites

A

Cosmologists believe that some of the water that now exists on Earth was a part of the Earth’s first atmosphere and some of it

arrived in meteorites

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3
Q

Radioisotopes

A) of all the elements decay at the same rate
B) disappear faster as they age
C) disappear more slowly as they age
D) did not exist on earth when it was first formed
E) of carbon can be used to date the age of Earth

A

Radioisotopes

disappear more slowly as they age

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4
Q

Life arose in the

A) Hadean eon
B) Archaean eon
C) Proterozoic eon
D) Phanerozoic eon
E) none of the above
A

Life arose in the

Archaean eon

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of Stromatolites?

A) composed of minerals arranged in layers
B) grow from the bottom
C) require light for their formation
D) released oxygen into the atmosphere
E) were created by extinct organisms
A

Which of the following is NOT true of Stromatolites?

grow from the bottom

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6
Q

Oxygen levels in the Earth’s atmosphere

A) were high when it first formed
B) increased ~4bya because of volcanic activity
C) decreased ~4bya because of volcanic activity
D) increased ~2.5bya because of Cyanobacteria
E) decreased ~2.5bya because of Cyanobacteria

A

Oxygen levels in the Earth’s atmosphere

increased ~2.5bya because of Cyanobacteria

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7
Q

Pick the statement that does NOT apply to “Snowball Earth”
A) caused by a drop in CO2 concentration in the atmosphere
B) caused by cyanobacteria raising the nitrogen concentrations in the oceans
C) ended as a result of volcanoes releasing CO2
D) most oceans froze to their bottom and ice completely encircled the Earth
E) occurred about 600mya

A

Pick the statement that does NOT apply to “Snowball Earth”

caused by cyanobacteria raising the nitrogen concentrations in the oceans

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8
Q

Rodinia and Pangaea

A) existed at the same time
B) were formed as a result of plate tectonics
C) were bodies of water
D) were caused by Snowball Earth
E) were regions where multicellular life evolved

A

Rodinia and Pangaea

were formed as a result of plate tectonics

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9
Q

Ediacaran life forms

A) were all prokaryotic
B) were all unicellular
C) were all aquatic
D) have clear relationships to living species 
E) included many multicellular animals
A

Ediacaran life forms

were all aquatic

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10
Q

Pick a statement that does NOT apply to the Phanerozoic eon

A) oxygen levels in the atmosphere are high
B) CO2 levels in the atmosphere increase
C) the supercontinent Pangaea is formed
D) diversification of multicellular plants and animals
E) subdivided into Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic eras, based on fossil record

A

Pick a statement that does NOT apply to the Phanerozoic eon

CO2 levels in the atmosphere increase

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11
Q

True or False

Most species that have ever lived are now extinct

A

True

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12
Q

True or False

The average time that a mass extinction lasts is 4 years

A

False

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13
Q

True or False

The most common hypotheses for mass extinctions involve asteroids and volcanic activity

A

True

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14
Q

Obese mice mutation (ob/ob) was invisible to observers until the mice with the mutation were mated together to result in the homozygous state.

1) why did the homozygous state occur?
2) what’s the main aspect of evolution that’s missing from the experiment?
3) could the obese mutation have any selective advantage?

A

1) why did the homozygous state occur?
= because of inbreeding

2) what’s the main aspect of evolution that’s missing from the experiment?
= natural selection

3) could the obese mutation have any selective advantage?
= No. They are sterile, and may have less fitness that Ob/ob mice

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15
Q

Which of the following must have occurred first?

A) formation of phospholipid bilateral enclosing a fluid environment
B) abiotic synthesis of organic molecules
C) formation of genetic code in which DNA and RNA participate in synthesis of proteins
D) formation of protobionts
E) abiotic synthesis of macromolecules

A

Which of the following must have occurred first?

abiotic synthesis of organic molecules

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16
Q

The carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and other elements that make up our bodies were formed

A) by chemical reactions in living organisms
B) by nuclear reactions in stars
C) on earth after it was formed
D) from heavier elements
E) at the same time as the Earth was formed

A

The carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and other elements that make up our bodies were formed

by nuclear reactions in stars

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17
Q

A reducing atmosphere

A) contains organic molecules
B) lacks organic molecules
C) contains oxygen 
D) lacks oxygen 
E) lacks oxygen and organic molecules
A

A reducing atmosphere

lacks oxygen

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18
Q

The Miller-Urey experiment showed that an electrical discharge caused formation of

A) amino acids from ammonia, methane, nitrogen, and CO2
B) proteins from ammonia, methane, nitrogen, and CO2
C) nucleic acids from ammonia, methane, nitrogen, and CO2
D) a phospholipid bilayer from ammonia, methane, nitrogen, and CO2
E) ammonia, methane, nitrogen, and CO2 from amino acids

A

The Miller-Urey experiment showed that an electrical discharge caused formation of

amino acids from ammonia, methane, nitrogen, and CO2

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19
Q

It has been proposed that hot clay played a role in evolution by

A) supplying energy for metabolism
B) catalyzing the formation of polypeptides from amino acids
C) forming protobionts
D) forming phospholipid bilayers
E) providing the formation to synthesize DNA

A

It has been proposed that hot clay played a role in evolution by

catalyzing the formation of polypeptides from amino acids

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20
Q

Which of the following features does NOT apply to protobionts?

A) contained ribosomes, mRNAs and tRNAs
B) aggregates of abiotically produced molecules
C) surrounded by a membrane-like structure
D) carried out simple reproduction
E) maintained an internal chemical environment

A

Which of the following features does NOT apply to protobionts?

contained ribosomes, mRNAs and tRNAs

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21
Q

Liposomes are

A) flat sheets of lipid
B) fluid filled membrane spheres
C) clumps of amino acids bonded together
D) more complex that protobionts 
E) composed of an impermeable membrane
A

Liposomes are

fluid filled membrane spheres

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22
Q

Ribozymes

A) were important in evolution but no longer exist
B) synthesize protein
C) are composed of RNA and have enzyme activity
D) are composed of DNA and have RNA activity
E) are proteins that make DNA

A

Ribozymes

are composed of RNA and have enzyme activity

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23
Q

Archeaebacteria and Eubacteria differ in

A) the amino acids that make up their proteins
B) the nucleotides that make up their nucleic acids
C) the lipids that make up their membranes
D) the monosaccharides that make up their polysaccharides
E) all of the above

A

Archeaebacteria and Eubacteria differ in

the lipids that make up their membranes

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24
Q

True or False

The first genetic code was probably composed of proteins

A

False

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25
Q

True or False

The genetic code is the same for all organisms

A

True

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26
Q

True or False

The atmosphere of the early earth contained toxic gases like hydrogen sulfide and ammonia that were released by volcanoes

A

True

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27
Q

True or False

Panspermia is the idea that life arose on earth under conditions that no longer exist

A

False

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28
Q

An ancestral species and all of its descendants are called

A

A clade

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29
Q

What occurs at each branch point in a phylogenetic tree?

A

Divergence

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30
Q

A scientific approach in which organisms are classified based on ancestral and derived characteristics is called

A

Cladistics

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31
Q

Describes 2 structures that look the same but do not have a common evolutionary origin

A

Analogous

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32
Q

Describes 2 different species that share a common ancestor

A

Sister

33
Q

A scientific approach in which organisms are classified according to their evolutionary relationships

A

Systematics

34
Q

A type of classification that does not necessarily involve evolutionary relationships

A

Taxonomy

35
Q

The opposite of “ancestral” for a systematist

A

Derived

36
Q

When one or more nucleotides added with a DNA region

A

Insertion

37
Q

Describes 2 structures that have a common evolutionary origin but may not look the same

A

Homologous

38
Q

Used to decide between a simple explanation and a complex explanation

A

Parsimony

39
Q

The scala naturae

A) explained how species changed over time
B) referred to human sensory systems
C) described animal behaviour
D) was developed by philosopher Aristotle about 300 BCE
E) is still an important part of scientific thought

A

The scala naturae

was developed by philosopher Aristotle about 300 BCE

40
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of Linnaeus

A) developed a binomial naming system
B) named many species of plants and animals
C) was a Swedish botanist of the 1700s
D) observed that some organisms could evolve rapidly
E) differed from Darwin in his view of how biological diversity arose

A

Which of the following is NOT true of Linnaeus

observed that some organisms could evolve rapidly

41
Q

Lamarck proposed that evolution

A) applied to non-living matter but not living organisms
B) resulted from inheritance of acquired traits
C) was consistent with the Christian belief system
D) occurred at varying rates
E) was inconsistent with the fossil record

A

Lamarck proposed that evolution

resulted from inheritance of acquired traits

42
Q

During his voyage on the Beagle, Darwin’s ideas on evolution were influenced strongly by observations of

A) crocodiles of the Nile River 
B) old world primates
C) birds that inhabited remote islands
D) bats in Brazilian caves
E) all of the above
A

During his voyage on the Beagle, Darwin’s ideas on evolution were influenced strongly by observations of

Birds that inhabited remote islands

43
Q

Alfred Russell Wallace

A) developed a theory of natural selection at the same time as Darwin
B) was a cousin of Darwin’s
C) denied the existence of evolution
D) prevented Darwin from publishing “The Origin of Species”
S) all of the above

A

Alfred Russell Wallace

developed a theory of natural selection at the same time as Darwin

44
Q

Darwin avoided the word evolution in the first edition of “The Origin of Species” but instead used the phrase

A) survival of the fittest
B) ascent of the fittest
C) descent with modification
D) branching of the tree of life
E) the times they are a changing
A

Darwin avoided the word evolution in the first edition of “The Origin of Species” but instead used the phrase

descent with modification

45
Q

Darwin referred to__________as artificial selection

A) the action of humans to allow organisms with certain traits to reproduce
B) evolution that affected plants
C) changes in traits that were acquired not inherited
D) changes resulting from asexual reproduction
E) changes that resulted in an animal become better adapted to a change in diet

A

Darwin referred to__________as artificial selection

the action of humans to allow organisms with certain traits to reproduce

46
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the key components of Darwin’s view of natural selection?
A) the more organisms that are present, the faster that natural selection occurs
B) species produce more offspring that the environment can support
C) members of a population vary in their traits
D) traits are inherited
E) owing to lack of food or other resources, many offspring do not survive to reproduce

A

Which of the following is NOT one of the key components of Darwin’s view of natural selection?

the more organisms that are present, the faster that natural selection occurs

47
Q

According to Darwin, individuals whose inherited traits give them a higher probability of surviving and reproducing in a given environment tend to ___________than other individuals

A) have shorter lives
B) be larger
C) leave more offspring
D) consume more resources 
E) all of the above
A

According to Darwin, individuals whose inherited traits give them a higher probability of surviving and reproducing in a given environment tend to ___________than other individuals

leave more offspring

48
Q

According to Darwin, the unequal ability of individuals to survive and reproduce leads to

A) inability of a species to evolve 
B) artificial selection 
C) accumulation of "favourable" traits in the population over generations
D) loss of heritable traits
E) sterility
A

According to Darwin, the unequal ability of individuals to survive and reproduce leads to

accumulation of “favourable” traits in the population over generations

49
Q

Peter and Rosemary Grant applied to a travel grant to study endemic species on the Galápagos Islands. What is meant by the term endemic?

A

A species found somewhere and no where else in the world

50
Q

Give 2 reasons why the depth of the ground finches’ beaks was a good trait for studying evolution (hint: think of what Darwin said was necessary for evolution to occur)

A

1- it was an inherited trait

2- it varied in the population of finches

51
Q

Why did the Grants go all the way to the Galápagos Islands to carry out their natural experiment on finch evolution?

A) test
B) isolation
C) because it was extremely secluded
D) low gene flow
E) going extinct
A

Why did the Grants go all the way to the Galápagos Islands to carry out their natural experiment on finch evolution?

low gene flow

52
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Eukarya, Archaea, and Bacteria are equally related
B) Eukarya is more closely related to Bacteria than to Archaea
C) Eukarya is more closely related to Archaea than to Bacteria
D) Bacteria is more closely related to Archaea than to Eukarya

A

Eukarya is more closely related to Archaea than to Bacteria= true

53
Q

To get citrate into the cell, the E. coli in the LTEE experienced what type of mutation that allowed them to express CitT in the presence of oxygen

A

Gene duplication

54
Q

Why is it practical for the Cit+ cells to export succinate in exchange for importing citrate?

A

Importing citrate allows the cells to attain more glucose for energy

55
Q

Bacteria are capable of moving towards

A

Food/chemicals
Oxygen
Light

56
Q

Bacteria move by

A

Flagella or gliding mobility

57
Q

What is the function of hopanoids and why are they significant in prokaryote evolution?

A

Similar to cholesterol, they help stabilize the cell membrane from harsh environments. Different in Archaea.

58
Q

How do prokaryotes carry out photosynthesis and aerobic respiration without having either chloroplasts or mitochondria?

A

Cell membrane folds in on itself

59
Q

How do Bacteria and Archaea differ in the structure of their cell wall?

A

Bacteria= peptidoglycan

Archaea= polysaccharides and proteins, but lack peptidoglycan

60
Q

Describe the difference between gram+ and gram- bacteria

A

Gram+ = high peptidoglycan. Cell consists of cell wall + cytoplasmic membrane (Purple)

Gram- = low peptidoglycan. Cell consists of outer wall + periplasma + cytoplasmic membrane (Pink)

61
Q

A bacterial capsule is composed of ________ and functions to_________.

A
  • proteins

- helps attach to substrate

62
Q

Describe the STRUCTURE and FUNCTION of fimbriae

A

STRUCTURE= long thin flexible projections from the bacterial cell

FUNCTION= attachment pili that helps prokaryotes attach to substrate

63
Q

Describe the 3 types of genetic recombination of Bacteria

A
  • Transformation = DNA from surroundings
  • Transduction = transfer of DNA via bacteriophages
  • Conjugation = horizontal gene transfer via sex pili
64
Q

Organisms that obtain their carbon from _________ are termed autotrophs, while organisms that obtain their carbon from ____________ are termed heterotrophs.

A
  • CO2

- organic molecules

65
Q

List the 5 major groups of Bacteria, including one characteristic of each

A
  • Proteobacteria = gram-, 5 subgroups, varied nutrition and lifestyles, low peptidoglycan.
  • Clamydias = found w/in animal reproductive tracts. Parasites that live w/in mammalian cells.
  • Spirochetes = flagella found w/in the helical shape.
  • Cyanobacteria = found in fresh H2O and marine environments. Photosynthetic. Form colonies.
  • Gram+ bacteria = Staphylococcus + Streptococcus: some are pathogens. Mycoplasma: no cell wall, smallest known.
66
Q

A holotype is a

A) written description
B) a person 
C) specimen
D) place
E) time period
A

A holotype is a

Specimen

67
Q

Which of the following does NOT apply to Linnaeus?

A) lived in the 1700s
B) was a botanist 
C) studied speciation
D) gave names to many organisms
E) created the name "Homo sapiens"
A

Which of the following does NOT apply to Linnaeus?

studied speciation

68
Q

An organism classified as “Rangifer tarandus caribou” belongs to the

A) species Rangifer
B) genus Rangifer
C) species tarandus
D) genus tarandus
E) species caribou
A

An organism classified as “Rangifer tarandus caribou” belongs to the

genus Rangifer
species tarandus
subspecies caribou

69
Q

Which of the following is true about hybrids

A) plant hybrids are usually sterile
B) animal hybrids are usually fertile
C) the parents of a hybrid are the same species
D) some plant species are hybrids
E) a hybrid is one form of subspecies
A

some plant species are hybrids = true

70
Q

The members of a species always

A) look the same
B) look different 
C) live on the same continent 
D) can interbreed
E) occupy different niches
A

The members of a species always

can interbreed

71
Q

Which of the following is the best example of allopatric speciation

A) “Homo sapiens” and “Homo neanderthalensis” inhabiting caves in Europe
B) 2 species of frogs in the Everglades
C) 2 species of antelope squirrels on opposite sides of the Grand Canyon
D) Grizzly bears in North America and European brown beats in Romania
E) several species of fish inhabiting a large lake

A

allopatric speciation = 2 species of antelope squirrels on opposite sides of the Grand Canyon

72
Q

Polyploidy is

A) a result of hybridization
B) the presence of extra chromosomes
C) the presence of an extra set of chromosomes
D) the cause of most speciation in animals
E) not the cause of any speciation in plants

A

Polyploidy is

the presence of an extra set of chromosomes

73
Q

Which of the following is postzygotic form of reproductive isolation

A) water-dwelling and land dwelling snakes
B) skunks that become fertile at different time of the year
C) dolphins with reproductive organs of different size
D) reduced fertility of offspring
E) transient and resident Orcas develops different cultures

A

Which of the following is postzygotic form of reproductive isolation

reduced fertility of offspring

74
Q

Introgression is like

A) habitat isolation
B) gamete incompatibility
C) the opposite of speciation 
D) hybrid infertility
E) behavioural isolation
A

Introgression is like

the opposite of speciation

75
Q

If a form of sexual selection arose in a species then

A) males and females would become more similar
B) introgression would occur
C) hybrids would become less fertile
D) the population size may increase due to speciation
E) natural selection would no longer function

A

If a form of sexual selection arose in a species then

the population size may increase due to speciation

76
Q

True or False

A species results from a unique combo of genes that produce an organism that can survive in a certain environment

A

True

77
Q

True or False

Once an organism has been assigned a species name, it cannot be changed

A

False

78
Q

True or False

Introgression can be used by plant breeders to bring genes from wild relatives into domesticated species

A

True

79
Q

True or False

Natural selection is the process by which organisms with a certain genotype are more successful in a certain environment than organisms with a different genotype

A

True

Biology (12 decks)

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