Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

USMLE > Micro > Flashcards

Micro Flashcards

(137 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Encapsulated bacteria

“SHiNE SKiS”

A

Strep pneumo, Hib, Neisseria meningiditis, E coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella, and gBs
+ Pseudomonas!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What yeast has a capsule?

What are 2 stains for the organism?

A 
Cryptococcus neoformans (meningitis in AIDS pts)
India ink and mucicarmine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is transformation?

What is transduction?

A

Transformation - when a live bacterium takes up free DNA released from nearby lysed cells and incorporates it into their genome
Transduction - when a bacteriophage brings along bacterial DNA with it’s viral genome. Once it infects another bacteria, it will gain the donor bacterial DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What bacteria can undergo transformation?

A

“SHiN”

Strep pneumo, Hib, and Neisseria meningiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is transposition?

A

When a small part of DNA is self-exiled from it’s chromosome and moves to a new location (i.e. a plasmid)

Genetic material isn’t actually exchanged between bacteria, BUT this would allow an ax-resistance gene to move to a plasmid where it would be shared via conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What 3 species can form spores?

A

Bacillus, clostridium, and Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Giemsa stain

“Certain Bugs Really TRY my Patience”

A

Chlamydia, Borielal, Rickettsiae, TRYpanosomes (african sleeping sickness), and Plasmodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What molecule does PAS stain?

What organism is detected with a PAS stain?

A

Stains glycogen.

Detects Tropheryma whipplei (Whipple disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

India ink

A

Cryptococcus neoformans (AIDS meningitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Silver stain (3)

A

Legionella, H pylori, and fungi (PCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

A

Acid fast = Mycobacterium and norcadia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Food poisoning (vomiting) associated with potato salad

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Food poisoning (vomiting) associated with reheated rice

A

Bacillus cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does Protein A do?

What bacterium expresses it?

A

Binds Fc region of host IgG (expressed on PM)

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bacteria associated with the pigment:
Gold
Yellow
Green

A

Gold - Staph aureus “Au = gold”
Yellow - Actinomyces isrelii
Green - Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pneumonia with rust colored sputum - what is the organism?

A

Strep pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of infection can Staph saprophytic cause?

A

UTI - especially in young, sexually active women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What bacteria have IgA protease?

What other 2 characteristics do these bacteria all have in common?

A

“SHiN” - Strep pneumo, Hib, and Neisseria meningiditis

They are also all encapsulated and are capable of transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sandpaper-like rash + strawberry tongue

A

Scarlet fever - toxin mediated (pyro- and erythro-genic toxins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What bacteria causes necrotizing fasciitis?

A

Strep species (especially strep pyogenes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of neonatal meningitis?

A

GBS, E coli, and Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are 3 causes of strawberry tongue?

A

Scarlet fever, kawasaki disease, and vitamin B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What 3 bacteria are associated with subacute endocarditis?

A

Viridans strep, enterococcus, and Strep bovis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cystine-tellurite agar

A

Corynebacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What two toxins can be made by Clostridium perfringens and what diseases do they cause?
Gas gangrene - a toxin (a phospholipase) | Food poisoning - enterotoxin (reheated meat)
26
What 2 abs could b e used to treat diphtheria?
Penicillin or erythromycin
27
What infection is associated with people that work with goat hair?
Bacillus anthrasis
28
What are 3 obligate anaerobes? | What two antibiotics can be used?
Clostridium tetani, Actinomyces, and Bacteroides | Clindamycin or metronidazole
29
Gram+ rod that grows at cold temperature (room temp) + narrow zone of B hemolysis
Listeria
30
What is the treatment for Actinomyces isrelii?
Penicillin
31
Headache + fever + rash | What is the treatment?
``` Rickettsial infection (RMSF, typhus, ehrlichiosis, anaplasma, and Q fever) All are treated with Doxycycline ```
32
What 4 infections can cause a rash on the palms and soles? | "drive Kawasaki CARS with your hands and feet"
Kawasaki disease, Coxsackie A, RMSF, and secondary Syphillis
33
Headache + fever + rash that spares palms/soles What vector transmitted the bacteria: Rickettsia typhi Rickettsia prowazekii
Rickettsia typhi - fleas ("thyphi = thyFLEA") | Rickettsia prowazekii - lice ("prowasekII = lIIce")
34
Nonspecific flu-like illness (with fever) + inclusions in monocytes or granulocytes What is the treatment?
Monocytes - Ehrlichiosis Granulocytes - Anaplasma Tx - Doxycycline (a rash-rare rickettsial subtype)
35
Risk factor includes birthing farm animals
Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)
36
What 3 organisms can be spread through unpasteurized milk?
Listeria, Coxiella burnetii (Q fever - pneumonia), and Brucella (recurrent fever)
37
What are 2 presentations of Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)?
Acute pneumonia (fever lasting several weeks) or chronic endocarditis
38
What are 3 presentations of Chlamydia?
``` Follicular conjunctuvitis ("ABC = africa, blindness, chronic infection") Urethritis/PID Lymphogranuloma venerium (painless genital ulcers + unilateral ulcerative LAD) ```
39
What is the treatment for suspected sexually transmitted Chlamydia?
Azithromycin (chlamydia) + Ceftriaxone (gonorrhea)
40
What bacteria are associated with reactive arthritis?
Chlamydia and diarrhea bugs (shigella, salmonella, campylobacter, and yersinia)
41
Pet parrot + pneumonia | Treatment?
Chlamydia psittaci | Tx - azithromycin (all Chlamydia bugs)
42
What 3 bacteria can cause atypical pneumonia (nonproductive cough + flu-like, Xray looks worse than the pts feels)?
Legionella pneumophila, Chlamydia pneumoniae, and Mycoplasma pneumoniae
43
What is the treatment for atypical pneumonia?
Macrolide (azithromycin)
44
What non-pneumonia phenomonon is associated with Mycoplasma infection?
IgM cold agglutinins (also with CLL and EBV)
45
What organisms of transmitted by animal urine?
Leptospira interrogans and Hantavirus
46
What is Weil disease?
Severe Leptospira infection = liver and kidney dysfunction
47
What 2 symptoms characterize each stage of Lyme disease? Stage 1 - early localized Stage 2 - early disseminated Stage 3 - late disseminated
Stage 1 - flu-like + erythemia migrans Stage 2 - fluctuating AV block + bilateral Bells palsy Stage 3 - migratory arthritis + encephalopathy
48
What is the treatment for Lyme disease?
Doxycycline
49
What symptoms characterize secondary (2 sxs) and tertiary (3 sxs) syphillis?
Secondary - rash on palms/soles + condyloma lata | Tertiary - gummas + aortitis + neurosyphillis (general paresis dementia, tabes dorsalis, and argyll-robertson pupil)
50
What is used to screen for syphillis?
VDRL (sometimes also called RPR) - tests for serum reactivity against a cardiolipin (non-specific, happens to be in all pts with syphillis)
51
What can cause a false + on VDRL? | "Suspicious Positive VDRL"
SLE, Pregnancy, Visuses (EBV), iv Drug users, Rheumatic fever, and Leprosy
52
What organism causes Bacillary angiomatosis (confused with Kaposi sarcoma)?
Bartonella (also Cat Scratch Disease)
53
2 bacterial causes of recurrent fever
Borriella recurrentis and Brucella
54
Transmitted via rabbits
Francisella tularensis "rabbits eat tulips"
55
Transmitted via armadillos
Leprosy
56
Cellulitis/osteomyelitis from a cat/dog bite
Pasteurella multocida
57
Transmitted via prairie dogs
Boubonic plague (painful inflamed lymph nodes) - Yersinia pestis
58
What RNA viruses are naked? | "my REal HEavy PICture of CALIfornia was Ruined without an envelope"
REovirus (rota), HEpevirus (HEV), PICornavirus (PERCH), CALIcivirus (noro) = Rna
59
What DNA viruses are naked? | "PA PA and Aunt POLY Didn't have an envelope"
PApilloma (HPV), PArvovirus (B10), Adeno, POLYoma (JC) = Dna
60
What is reassortment? | Which viruses can participate?
Co-infection allows viruses to exchange segments of DNA | Reovirus (rota), influenza, and hantavirus
61
What is recombination?
Co-infection allows non-homologous recombination of chromosomes in areas with similar sequences - progeny is a completely new virus Only occurs in DNA viruses and retro viruses (RNA virus with DNA phase)
62
What is the only ssDNA virus?
Parvovirus ("parvo = small")
63
Child with diarrhea in winter months
Rotavirus
64
Aseptic meningitis in summer months
Echovirus
65
What are the 3 most common presentations of Coxsackie virus infection?
Hand/foot/mouth disease (papules/ulcers), myocarditis, and pericarditis
66
How would Coltivirus present?
"COLorodo TIck fever = COL TI virus" | Self-limited flu-like in a hiker (outdoorsy person)
67
What virus is most active in the winter? In the summer?
``` Winter = rotavirus (diarrhea in kids) Summer = echovirus (aseptic meningitis) ```
68
What 2 viruses cause the common cold?
Rhinovirus and coronavirus
69
What 2 viruses cause aseptic meningitis?
Echovirus and coxsackievirus
70
High fever + hemorrhage + jaundice
Yellow fever
71
Severe musculoskeletal pain + retro-orbital headache + fever
Dengue fever | Complication = hemorrhagic fever
72
How does West Nile virus spread? | How does it present?
Birds to mosquitos to humans | Flu-like. Some progress to meningitis/encephalitis
73
What family do each of the hepatitis viruses (except HDV) belong?
HAV - picornavirus (+ ssRNA, PERCH) HBV - hepadnavirus (partial dsDNA circular) HCV - flavivirus (+ ssRNA) HEV - hepevirus (+ ssRNA)
74
What drug is used as prophylaxis for vertical transmission of HIV?
Zidovudine (NRTI)
75
What are the side effects for the following protease inhibitors: Ritonavir Indinavir Atazanavir
Ritonavir - P450 inhibitor, pancreatitis Indinavir - nephrolithiasis Atazanavir - nephrolithiasis, increased bilirubin ("AtAzanavir
76
What are 2 side effects of protease inhibitors as a class?
GI upset and lipdystrophy/hyperTG
77
What are the side effects for the following NRTIs: Abacavir Didanosine Zidovudine
Abacavir - life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction Didanosine - pancreatitis, peripheral neuropathy, hepatic steatosis ("Dan Died = we should wear PPH") Zidovudine - bone marrow suppression (EX megaloblastic anemia) ("Zidovudine Zaps the marrow"
78
What are the side effects of NRTIs as a class?
Lactic acidosis
79
What are 2 side effect of NNRTIs as a class?
Rash and hepatotoxicity
80
What are 3 side effects specific to Efevirenz?
Neuro-psych changes (dizziness, depression), marajuiana false positive test, teratogen
81
What is the mechanism of: Raltegravir Enfuvertide Miraviroc
Raltegravir - integrase inhibitor Enfuvertide - gp41 fusion inhibitor (cannot enter cell) Miraviroc - binds CCR5 to prevent gp120 binding
82
What is the treatment for cryptococcus meningitis?
Amphoteracin B + flucytosine (converted to 5FU by fungal enzymes) followed by fluconazole
83
Recent travel to Latin America + severe pneumonia + granulomas in mucus membranes
Paracoccidioides = dimorphic fungi with captains wheel appearance on imaging "PARAcocco PARAsails with the captains wheal all the way to latin america"
84
Where do systemic mycoses generally disseminate to? | What additional place does coccidioidomycoses disseminate to?
Skin and bone | Cocco - also to CNS (meningitis)
85
What 2 fungi are transmitted via bird/bat droppings?
Histomycoses (dimorphic, endemic fungus) and cryptococcus neoformans (meningitis in AIDS pts)
86
Treatment for sporothrix schenckii
Itraconazole or potassium iodide | "Transmitted by planting roses in your POT = treat with POTassium iodide"
87
What is the most common side effect of amphoteracin B? | Azoles?
Nephrotoxicity | Hepatotoxicity (increases LFTs)
88
What is used for prophylaxis in AIDS pts for: | Candida (CD4
Candida - Itraconazole | Cryptococcus - Fluconazole
89
What is the treatment for endemic mycoses (Histo, blast, cocoa, paracocco)?
Itraconazole
90
What is the mechanism of terbinafine? | What is it used to treat?
``` Inhibits squalene epoxidase Dermatophyte infecitons (Tineas) ```
91
In addition to the flask-shaped ulcer and bloody diarrhea, what other finding is seen with Entamoeba histolytica infection?
Liver abscess
92
What do entamoeba histolytica cysts look like on light microscopy?
Round with multiple nuclei
93
What is the treatment for toxoplasma?
Sulfadiazine + pyramethamine (DHFR inhibitor)
94
What parasite is transmitted through freshwater lakes?
``` Naegleria fowleri (rapidly fatal meningo-encephalitis) "Naegleria sounds like Nalgene" ```
95
What causes Chagas disease?
Trypanosoma cruzi
96
What parasite is transmitted by the sandfly?
Leishmania donovani
97
Spiking fevers + hepatosplenomegaly + pancytopenia + macrophages containing small amastigoes
Visceral leishmaniasis
98
Slow healing ulcerative papules
Cutaneous leishmaniasis
99
How can you differentiate the gametocyte of Plasmodium falciparum from other subtypes?
It's banana shaped
100
What is the treatment for malaria? What do you add if it's vivid or oval? What do you use if it's falciparum (likely resistant)?
Chloroquine + primaquine Atovaquone/proguanil or mefloquine
101
Metrozoite cross in RBC
Babesia
102
What 3 organisms are transmitted via the Ixodes tick?
Borellia burdorferi (lyme disease), anaplasma (chlamydiophila bacteria), and babesia (protozoan hemolytic anemia)
103
What is the presentation of the following roundworms: 1. Enterobius vermicularis 2. Ascaris lumbricoides 3. Strongyloides stercoralis 4. Ancylostoma/Necator
1. Anal pruritis 2. Loffler eosinophilic pneumonitis (gut-lung-gut) 3. Peptic ulcer-like pain, vomiting (skin-lung-gut) 4. Anemia (skin-lung-gut)
104
Treatment for roundworms (except strongyloides)
Bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate
105
Myositis + periorbital edema + eosinophilia
Trichinella spiralis (from undercooked game meat)
106
What roundworms are transmitted by ingestion? | Which roundworms are transmitted by skin penetration?
"EAT" - Enterobius (anal pruritis), Ascaris (loffler eosinophilic pneumonitis), and Trichinella (game meat) "SANd" - Strongyloides (peptic ulcer-like), Ancyclostoma and Necator (anemia)
107
What is the treatment for strongyloides?
Ivermectin
108
What is the consequence of ingesting Taenia solium larvae? | Ingesting Taenia sodium eggs?
``` Larvae = tapeworm Eggs = cysticercosis (muscle) or neurocysticercosis (brain) ```
109
What does praziquantel treat?
Tapeworms (taenia solim, diphyllobothrium) and flukes (schistosoma, clonorchis)
110
Treatment for neurocysticercosis
Albendazole
111
Biopsy procedure of liver mass results in anaphylaxis - what is the mass?
Echinococcus granulosus cysts (transmitted via dogs)
112
Eosinophilia + megaloblastic anemia
Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm)
113
Eosinophila + portal HTN
Schistosoma mansoni (invades the mesenteric vasculature and can cause vascular obstruction)
114
Egyptian immigrant with bladder squamous cell CA
Schistosoma haematobium
115
Eosinophila + pigmented gallstones
Clonorchis sinensis - increases risk for cholangioCA
116
What is the presentation of Wuchereria bancrofti?
Elaphantitis (transmitted via mosquito)
117
What parasite can be treated with Amphoteracin B?
Leishmania donovani - visceral leishmaniasis
118
Prophylaxis against N meningiditis | Treatment for N meningiditis
Prophylaxis - Rifampin (also for Hib) | Treatment - Ceftriaxone
119
What is the first step in treatment for H influenza epiglottis?
Secure the airway (if you do anything else first they may cry and lose their airway)
120
Chocolate agar + factors 5 and 10
Hib | "when you're sick with the FLU, mom runs to the 5 and DIME store to get some CHOCOLATE"
121
Severe atypical pneumonia + GI symptoms + CNS changes
Legionnaires disease (legionella pneumophila)
122
What lab abnormality is associated with Legionnaires disease?
HypoNa
123
How is legionella transmitted?
Contaminated water (air conditioner, sprinkler system, history of cruise or hotel)
124
What is the triple and quadruple therapy for H pylori?
``` Triple = PPI + metronidazole/amoxacillin + clarithromycin (macrolide) Quadruple = PPI + Bismuth + metronidazole + tetracycline ```
125
IF you chose to treat Gram - diarrhea, what 3 antibiotics could be used?
Fluoroquinolone, TMP-SMX, or azithromycin
126
Fever + salmon colored spots on the abdomen
Salmonella typhi
127
Diarrhea + pet turtle
Salmonella
128
What bacteria are associated with reactive arthritis?
Salmonella, shigella, campylobacter
129
Pseudoappendicitis
Yersinia enterocolitica
130
"Currant jelly sputum"
Klebsiella pneumonia
131
Who is at high risk for Klebsiella pneumonia?
Alcoholics and diabetics
132
"Swarming motility" + urease positive
Proteus (UTI with strive stones)
133
Lowenstein-jensen agar
TB
134
What antibiotic is used to treat latent TB?
Isoniazid
135
What is the mechanism of the TB drugs?
Rifampin - RNApol inhibitor Isoniazid - block mycolic acid synthesis Pyrazinamide - acidify phagolysosomes Ethambutol - block other cell wall carb synthesis
136
Side effects for TB drugs | R (2), I (3), P (2), E (1)
Rifampin - hepatotoxicity, Ramps up P450s and Red/orange body fluids Isoniazid - hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy (vitB6 deficiency), and drug-induced lupus Pyrazinamide - hepatotoxicity and gout Ethambutol - red/green color blindness (ONLY one that's non-hepatotoxic)
137
What is the presentation of Mycobacterium kansasii?
TB-like illness

USMLE (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions