Repro Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

What ligament carries the uterine blood supply?

Ovarian blood vessels?

A

Cardinal ligament

Suspensory ligament of the ovary

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2
Q

How would a radical prostatectomy cause erectile dysfunction?

A

Cavernous nerves carrying parasympathetics to the penis travel near the prostate and can be damaged during removal

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3
Q

Female equivalent of bulbourethral glands (after prostate)

A

Vestibular (bartholin) glands (dorsal vestibule)

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4
Q

Female equivalent of prostate gland

A

Paraurethra (skene) glands

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5
Q

What does the gubernaculum form in the female?

A

Ovarian ligament (ovary-uterus) + round ligament of the uterus (uterus-labia majora)

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6
Q

What reproductive structures would form if Sertoli cell development was disrupted?

A

Both male and female internal genitalia
No MIF = paramesonephros never regress
Leydig cells still make testosterone = mesonephros develop

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7
Q

Why can obese males become testosterone deficient?

A

More adipocytes = increased amortize activity = depletes normal testosterone production by converting it to estrogen

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8
Q

How would exogenous testosterone increase risk for cardiovascular disease?

A

Increases LDL and decreases HDL

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9
Q

Clinical use for finasteride?

Flutamide?

A

Finasteride (5a-reductase inhibitor) - DPH, male-patterned baldness
Flutamide (testosterone R inhibitor) - prostate CA

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10
Q
What causes:
Female pseudohermaphrodite (XX + ambiguus genitalia)
Male pseudohermaphrodite (XY + ambiguus genitalia)
A
Female = congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Male = androgen insensitivity syndrome
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11
Q

Normal female external genitalia + no internal genitalia + bilateral lumps in labia majora

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome - labs will show increased LH and testosterone
External = no DHT, default female
Internal = Sertoli cells produce MIF to cause paramesonephros to regress, but testosterone cannot maintain mesonephros development
Testes in labia majora = SRY gene from Y chr comes before testosterona/DHT to induce testis formation

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12
Q

Ambiguus genitalia until puberty

A

5a-reductase deficiency - labs will show normal testosterone and LH
No DHT = default female external genitalia
Testosterone increases enough during puberty to cause external genitalia to masculinize

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13
Q

Primary amenorrhea + anosmia

A

Kallmann syndrome - impaired migration of cells that secrete GnRH and that form the olfactory bulb

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14
Q

Fried egg cells

A

Testicular seminoma, oligodendrogliomas, and HPV koilocytes

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15
Q

Scrotal pain that improves when lifted

Scrotal pain that does not improve when lifted

A

Epidydimitis

Testicular torsion

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16
Q

Schiller-Ducal bodies + elevated AFP

A

Yolk sac tumor

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17
Q

Painful testicular lump + elevated hCG

A

Embryonal tumor

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18
Q

Multinucleate giant cells + elevated hCG

A

ChorioCA (syncitiotrophoblasts)

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19
Q

Elevated hCG and AFP

A

Teratoma

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20
Q

Eosinophilic rod-shaped inclusions (Reinke crystals) + gynecomastia

A

Leydig cell tumor - secretes testosterone (visualization in females) that is converted peripherally to estrogen

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21
Q

Testicular lump + gynecomastia (without unique histology findings)

A

Stroll cell tumor - secretes estrogen

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22
Q

3 indications for PDE5 inhibitors

A

Erectile dysfunction, raynaud syndrome, and primary pulmonary HTN

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23
Q

3 side effects of PDE5 inhibitors

Why can they not be taken with nitrates?

A

Headache (vasodilation), dyspepsia, blue-green color vision loss (cross-over with retinal PDE, “Little blue pill”)
Life threatening HoTN

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24
Q

What is Bowen’s disease, erythroplasia of Queyrat, and Bowenoid papulosis? Which can progress to SCC?

A

Bowen disease = leukoplakia on pencil shaft
Erythroplasia of Queyrat = erythroplakia on glans
Bowenoid papulosis = red papules on penis of younger men
Only Bowen and Queyrat progress to SCC

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25
Why is the mechanism for Tamsulosin unique?
Specific a-1A/D blocker (specific to the prostate) = BPH
26
What stage of meiosis are eggs arrested in before ovulation?
Prophase 1 (condensed chr)
27
What stage of meiosis are eggs arrested in after ovulation?
Metaphase 2 (chr aligned on metaphase plate)
28
How many days after ovulation can fertilization occur? When does implantation occur?
Fertilization - within 1 day | Implantation - 6 days after ovulation
29
How does suckling affect hormones of lactation?
Increases prolactin (milk production, suppress ovulation) and oxytocin (milk let down)
30
What must be supplemented to infants that are exclusively breast fed?
Vitamin D
31
What is the order of Tanner stage development for girls?
Breast bugs - pubic hair - menarche
32
Which birth control method can decrease bone mineral density?
Depo-provera shots (progestin-only)
33
Vulvar pruritis + smooth white plaques + thin epidermis
Lichen sclerosis - increases risk for SCC
34
What is the main risk factor for vaginal adenoCA?
DES exposure in utero (retained columnar cells in vaginal mucosa) - also causes T-shaped uterus
35
Grape-like clusters in the vagina of a young girl | What is the histological marker?
Sarcoma botryoides | Desmin + (rhabdomyosarcoma, has cross-striations)
36
How do E6 and E7 protein expression in HPV cause cancer?
E6 degrades p53, E7 inactivates Rb
37
What is the mechanism of Danazol?
Androgen R PA
38
What are the 2 indications for Danazol?
Endometriosis (inhibits FSH/LH to suppress cycles) and hereditary angioedema (stimulates C1 esterase inhibitor synthesis)
39
What are the 3 most common gynecological tumors?
Endometrial (best prognosis) > ovarial (worst prognosis) > cervical
40
What is the mechanism of Leuprolide? | What is the mechanism of Clomiphene?
Leuprolide - GnRH analog (continuous antagonist, pulsitile agonist) Clomiphene - SERM estrogen antagonist in the hypothalamus (only works as an agonist) = both are used to stimulate ovulation, but Leuprolide can also be used to suppress cycles (leiomyomas, endometriosis)
41
Enlarged tender uterus | Enlarged non-tender uterus
Tender - adenomyosis | Non-tender - leiomyoma
42
What type of estrogen is increased in PCOS and why? What does this cause?
Estrone - elevated androstenedione is converted by peripheral aromitase into estrone Chronic estrone elevation suppresses follicular development
43
What is the primary cause of PCOS?
Hypothalamic/pituitary dysfunction causing more LH to be secrete than FSH
44
What is the 1 non-reproductive side effect of clomiphene?
Visual disturbances (retinal toxicity)
45
Ovarian tumor is associated with simultaneous primary endometrial CA
Endometrioma (benign germinal epithelial tumor)
46
Brennor tumor
Benign ovarian tumor of bladdar transitional epithelium
47
Dermoid cyst
Benign teratoma
48
Meigs Syndrome
Ovarian fibroma + ascites + hydrothorax
49
Ovarian tumor with fallopean-like epithelium
Serious cystadenoma/cystadenoCA (benign germinal epithelial tumor)
50
Ovarian tumor associated with psammoma bodies
Serous cystadenoCA
51
Ovarian tumor that causes Pseudomyxoma peritonei (mucus ascites)
Mucinous cystadenoCA
52
Primary tissue found in immature teratoma
Immature neuroectoderm
53
Ovarian tumor with fried egg cells
Dysgerminoma
54
Ovarian tumor markers hCG and LDH AFP hCG
Dysgerminoma Yolk-sac tumor ChorioCA
55
Ovarian tumor with call-exner bodies (primordial follicles)
Granulosa cell tumor - normally outlines follicles, tumor produces so many cell they form follicles without the oocyte in the middle
56
What 3 ovarian tumors are most commonly bilateral?
Serous cystademona, endometrioma, and teratomas
57
Krukenburg tumor
GI tumor (typically gastric) that metastasizes to the ovaries - signet cell adenoCA (mucin-secreting)
58
Mole without maternal DNA and higher risk for chorioCA
Complete mole
59
Antihypertensives safe in pregnancy | "Hypertensive Mothers Love Nifedipine"
Hydralazine, a-methyldopa (a2 agonist), labetalol, and nifedipine
60
What is given during pre-eclampsia to prevent seizures
Mg Sulfate
61
HELLP syndrome (a type of pre-eclampsia)
Hemolysis + Elevated Liver enzymes + Low Platelets | Thrombosis in liver = platelet consumption, RBC shearing, and liver ischemia (elevated LFTs)
62
What are 2 fetal malformations associated with pre gestational DM?
Transposition of the great vessels and caudal regression syndrome
63
Bleeding in the 3rd trimester: Painful Nonpainful
Painful - placental abruption (retained blood irritates the uterus) Nonpainful - placenta previa (bleeding immediately out the cervix)
64
What are 2 risk factors for ectopic pregnancy that are unrelated to fallopian tube scarring?
Smoking (decreases epithelial ciliary motility) and fertilization when IUD is placed
65
What drugs cause gynecomastia? | "Some Drugs Cause Awesome Knockers"
Spironolactone, digoxin, cimetidine, alcohol (chronic), ketoconazole
66
Breast stream hyperplasia + blue dome cysts + fluctuates with cycle
Fibrocystic change
67
Breast increased number of glands + intraductal fibrosis + calcification
Sclerosing adenosis
68
Breast scar with irregular edges, looks like fat necrosis
Radial scar (complex sclerosing)
69
Mobile breast mass with sharp edges in a patient under 25, changes with hormones
Fibroadenoma - benign
70
Straw colored/bloody nipple discharge
Intraductal papilloma - benign tumor within the ducts just beneath the areola
71
Large breast mass with leaf-like projections on histology
Phyllodes tumor - benign
72
Intraductal caseous necrosis with central calcification
DCIS - comedoCA
73
Eczematous rash or ulceration of the nipple
Paget's disease of the breast (DCIS that migrates out the nipple)
74
Signet ring cells that are ER/PR +
LCIS or invasive lobular CA
75
What form of breast cancer arises from inactivation of E cadherin
Invasive lobular CA
76
Pt diagnosed with molar pregnancy, what is most likely see in the ovary?
Theca-lutein cyst - stimulated by high hCG