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1
Q

Helminths

A

parasitic worms

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2
Q

Examples of parasitic worms include:

A

roundworms (Ascaris), tapeworms, pinworms, and hookworms

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3
Q

Protoza are transmitted through

A

ingestion, the fecal-oral route, insect bites, or direct contact with the genitourinary tract.

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4
Q

Protoza cause diseases such as

A

amebic dysentery, trichomoniasis vaginalis, and malaria

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5
Q

Mycotic infection is caused by

A

fungi

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6
Q

Yeast are cable of causing infections such as

A

thrush (Candida albicans), vaginitis, and histoplasmosis (respiratory fungal infection)

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7
Q

Molds cause diseases such as

A

ringworm and athlete’s foot (tinea pedis)

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8
Q

Rickettsiae are transmitted by what and cause what diseases

A

vectors and cause Rocky Mountain Spotted fever, typhus fever, Lyme disease. Most common vector is ticks

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9
Q

Viruses can be broken down into four broad categories. Name them.

A

Pneumotropic: respiratory system
neurotropic: Nervous system
Dermatropic: integumentary system
Viscerotropic: Affect multiple or all body systems

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10
Q

Bacteriophages

A

Viruses that attach to and invade a bacterium

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11
Q

During viral infections, host cells produce what three things to prevent the replication of viruses to other cells?

A

inflammatory response, antibodies, and interferons

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12
Q

What is the most common type of viral hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis A

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13
Q

Hepatitis A is spread how?

A

by ingestion of contaminated food and water and by fecal contamination

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14
Q

Hepatitis B is spread how?

A

blood, saliva, semen, and other body fluids

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15
Q

Hepatitis C is spread how?

A

blood

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16
Q

HIV attacks what two types of cells?

A

white blood cells and T cells

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17
Q

Herpes zoster causes

A

shingles

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18
Q

HPV causes

A

veneral warts (condylomas)

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19
Q

Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are a group of diseases caused by what?

A

Prions

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20
Q

Cytomegalovirus causes what?

A

enlargement of affected organs

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21
Q

What is the choice of drug for streptococci infections?

A

vancomycin

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of surgical site infections?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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23
Q

Treponema pallidum causes

A

syphilis

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24
Q

Clostridium tetani causes

A

tetanus

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25
Clostridium perfringens causes
gas gangrene
26
Endospores are found in about 150 types of what bacteria?
gram positive bacilli
27
Endotoxins are secreted by
gram-negative rods
28
Exotoxins are secreted by
gram-positive spore forming rods
29
Hyaluronidase
proteolytic enzyme which hydrolyzes the body's hyaluronic acid (intracellular adhesive) which allows the organism to spread Ex. Streptococci and clostridium perfringens
30
Fibrinolysin
enzyme produced by some virulent organisms (hemolytic streptococci) that breaks down fibrin and is a major factor in wound infection
31
Coagulase
enzyme produced by some bacteria that speeds up the blood clotting mechanism and induce thrombus formation
32
Leukocidin
enzyme produced by some bacteria that destroys WBCs
33
At what pH do most pathogens thrive?
7 or 7.35-7.45 (similar to the body)
34
At what temperature do most pathogens thrive?
37C or 98.6F
35
Mutualism
beneficial to both organisms
36
Commensalism
one organism benefits while the other doesn't benefit or isn't harmed
37
parasitism
one organism thrives at the expense of the host
38
What is the first line of defense against bacterial infections?
The skin, mucous membranes, body fluid, cilia, and normal flora
39
List the four factors that determine whether one exposed to a disease will contract it
1. Resistance of the host 2. Virulence of the mircoorgamism 3. number of organism present 4. duration of exposure
40
list the 9 factors that lowers host resistance
presence of another disease process, hormone imbalance, destruction of lymphatics by antineoplastic (cancer) drugs or radiation therapy, poor circulation, poor nutritional stat, sue of anti-inflammatory drugs, extremes of age, destruction of normal flora, and emotional depression
41
leukocytosis means
elevated WBC
42
suppuration means
pus
43
What percentage of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies have no known source of transmission? What percentage of them have been traced to medically related exposure?
90%, 1%
44
Streptococci appear in what type of arrangement?
Chains
45
Are most streptococci gram negative or positive?
Positive
46
Facultative means
Can live with or without oxygen
47
Streptococci are commonly found in what areas of the body?
Upper respiratory tract, GI and GU tract.
48
Hemolytic streptococcus are capable of what?
Hemolyzing blood
49
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
gonorrhea
50
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Pneumonia
51
Puerperal means
After child birth
52
Saprophytic means
Living on dead or decaying matter
53
Stephylococcus aureus gains access through the body how?
Respiratory tract, breaks in skin, and mucous membranes.
54
Treponema pallium
Syphilis
55
Septicemia means
Infection in the blood
56
What is MRSA? How is it transmitted?
Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus. contact
57
What is VRE? How is it transmitted?
Vancomycin. Resistant enterococcus, contact
58
Vancomycin-intermediate resistant staphylococcus aureus was first seen in the US in what year?
1997
59
Microbes are composed of what percentage of water? What does this make them vulnerable to?
75-80% desiccation drying out as a means of inhibition of growth.
60
Most pathogenic bacteria thrive in what type of light? What type of light destroys them?
Darkness, UV light
61
Where do autotrophic bacteria obtain their energy from? Heterotrophic? Parasite?
Carbon dioxide in inorganic matter. Dead organic material (saprophytes). Living matter.
62
What is the body's second line of defense against infection?
Inflammatory response and phagocytosis
63
What are the five signs of inflammation?
1. Redness 2. Heat 3. Swelling 4. Pain 5. Disturbance of function
64
What is the body's third line of defense?
Antigen-antibody reaction
65
Define antigen.
Foreign substance or microbe entering the body
66
Define antibody
Protein substance, produced by the body in response to a specific antigen, which serves to provide immunity
67
Define Immunoglobulins.
Family of plasma proteins that contain antibodies tested to determine immunity.
68
What are the five classes of antibiotics?
1. Antitoxins: neutralize toxins 2. Agglutinins: cause clumping of bacteria 3. Lying: cause bacteria to dissolve 4. Opponents: increase vulnerability of pathogens to phagocytosis 5. precipitous: cause bacteria to settle out of blood for filtration by lymph nodes.
69
Define Interferon.
Chemical produced by a cell that has been attacked by a virus to prevent replication in similar cells.
70
Define active immunity. What are the 2 types.
Antibodies are formed following exposure to antigens, long lasting. 1. Naturally acquired: resulting from having a disease and recovering. 2. Artificially acquired: produced by receiving a vaccine.
71
Define passive immunity. What are the two types.
Antibodies from an outside source are supplied the immunity is borrowed, short lived. 1. naturally acquired: antibodies are passed from mother to fetus through placenta or breast milk 2. Artificially acquired: antibodies from another source (immune serum) are injected, usually after exposure to disease (antigen)
72
An unusual susceptibility to an antigen that is ordinarily harmless to others is
An allergy
73
What are symptoms of anaphylaxis?
Irritability, dyspnea, swelling, urticaria, hypotension, and headache
74
Urticaria
Rash, irching, redness
75
Treatment of anaphylaxis includes what
Vasopressor drugs (epinephrine) anti-histamines, oxygen, and corticosteroids.
76
Metabolism increases approximately what % for every degree Fahrenheit rise in temperature?
7
77
A minimum of how many air exchanges per hour should occur?
15-20
78
What are the four stages of an acute infection?
Incubation, prodromal (vague symptoms), acute, covalescence (recovery)

Microbiology (12 decks)

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