Nasal Cavity, Oropharynx, And Larynx Flashcards

(152 cards)

1
Q

The floor of the nose is

A

The palatine bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The roof of the nose is formed from

A

The cribriform plate in the ethmoid bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What separates the nasal cavity from the cranial cavity?

A

The cribriform plate in the ethmoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The nasal cavity has sinuses called

A

Paranasal sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Paranasal sinuses are formed from

A

Extensions of the ethmoid bone, frontal, maxillary, and sphenoid bones. Extensions are also called Turbinates or nasal conchae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The posterior aspect of the nasal cavities is the _______, which separates them from the nasopharynx.

A

Choana.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The nasal cavities drain into the

A

Superior, inferior, and middle meatus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The nasolacrimal duct drains into the

A

Inferior meatus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A congenital anomaly of the choana is known as

A

Choanal atresia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Choanal atresia occurs when infants are born with one or both _________ obstructed. This requires emergency surgery to restore __________.

A

Choanae airflow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The paired ______ sinuses are the large sinuses below the ocular orbits.

A

Maxillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The paired _______ sinuses lie behind the lower forehead.

A

Frontal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The _______ sinuses consist of many small air cells in the lateral wall of the nasal cavity between the lateral nasal wall and the turbinates.

A

Ethmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The _______ sinuses lie at the posterior superior extent of the nasal cavity.

A

Sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pituitary glands may be accessed through a _______ approach.

A

Transsphenoidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The oral cavity is divided into two sections. Name them.

A

Vestibule: The inner surface of the lips, the buccal mucosa (cheeks) and the lateral aspects of the mandible and maxilla.
Oral cavity proper: medial surfaces of the maxillary and mandivular teeth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The soft palate meets in the middle to form the

A

Uvula.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The tongue is attached to the floor of the mouth by the

A

Frenulum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The floor of the mouth contains the ducts for the paired ______ and _______ salivary glands.

A

Sublingual and submandibular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The pharynx is the tubular structure extending from the _____ to the _______. The three regions are called:

A

Nose to the esophagus. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, and hypopharynx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The larynx is composed of _______ segments. How many are paired, unpaired?

A

9, 3 paired and 3 unpaired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The cricoid, thyroid, and epiglottis segments of the larynx are ________.

A

Unpaired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The arytenoids, corniculate and cuneiform segments of the larynx are _______.

A

Paired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the only closed ring in the upper airway?

A

Cricoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The true vocal cords are located in what area of the larynx?
The glottis.
26
The microscope used to examine the upper airway is ___-mm lens.
400
27
What is the vasoconstrictive agent commonly used in the nose or larynx?
Cocaine.
28
The Alar, Fomon, Aufricht, and cottle are what type of common instrument used in nasal surgery>
Retractors.
29
The Joseph, ballenger swivel, and button knife is used for
Deep dissection in the nasal cavity.
30
The cottle, lempert, freer and penfield are what type of common instrument used in nasal surgery?
Dissectors or elevators.
31
The takahashi ethmoid, Noyes alligator, Blakesley-wilde, Walsham, and knight are what type of common instrument used in nasal surgery?
Forceps.
32
The kerrison, hartman, wilde, and jansen-middleton are what common type of instrument used in nasal surgery?
Rongeurs.
33
The ____- degree scope is used for maxillary, sphenoid, and ethmoid sinus procedures. The ____- degree scope is used for procedures of the frontal sinuses.
30 | 70.
34
___to _____% cocaine can be applied topically.
4 -10%
35
What is often used as a local anesthetic and hemostatic agent during nasal and sinus surgery?
1 to 2% lidocaine (Xylocaine) with epi.
36
Other than cocaine, what is another drug used to decrease bleeding in the nose?
Phenylephrine (Neo-synephrine)
37
Epistaxis
Nosebleed
38
Where does a nose bleed generally occur from>
Arterial plexus in the anterior nasal septum
39
Afrin is used as what during a nasal procedure?
Vasoconstrictor.
40
A Fess is what?
Function endoscopic sinus surgery
41
Polypectomy, maxillary antrostomy, ethmoidectomy, turbinectomy, and sphenoidectomy are techniques of what?
Endoscopic sinus surgery
42
The 0 degree endoscope is used for
Sinus explorationand evaluation in all procedures.
43
A caldwell-luc procedure is a technique used to
drain an abscess in the maxillary sinus and to removal granulation tissue that has accumulated as a result of chronic sinus infections.
44
The caldwell luc procedures uses what type of incision.
Gingival-buccal sulcus (junction of gum and upper lip.)
45
The caldwell luc operation is also called
Antrostomy
46
A turbinectomy is removal of
The bony turbinate to increase airflow through the nose.
47
Congenital malformation of the middle turbinate is called
Concha bullosa
48
A turbinectomy requries what type of incision?
Intranasal
49
A septoplasty is the surgical manipulation of the
Septum to return it to the correct anatomical position or to gain access to the sphenoid sinus for removal of a pituitary tumor.
50
The incision for a septoplasty is where
Intranasal or submucosa.
51
Ecchymosis
Black eye
52
An Ethmoidectomy is
A drainage procedure for diseased tissue of the middle turbinate or other part of the ethmoid bone
53
What type of incision is used for an ethmoidectomy?
Intranasal, sinuscope or external incision from the eyebrow along side the nose
54
A tonsillectomy is performed to
Eradicated infection and improve airway
55
The tonsil is separated from the fossa leaving the
Pillar
56
Tonsillectomy is removal of what tonsils?
Palatine
57
When a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy are performed together, which is done first?
Adenoidectomy
58
What is important to remember about the emergence on a patient who has had throat surgery?
The patient can experience gagging and bucking, which can become emergent. The set up should remain sterile.
59
An adenoidectomy is the surgical removal of what
Adenoids or pharyngeal tonsils.
60
What type of laser can be used for the removal of adneoids?
CO2
61
The soft palate can be retracted with what?
A red robinson catheter.
62
A uvulopalatopharyngoplasty is reconstruction of what
Uvula and oropharynx UPP.
63
Why is a UPP performed?
To reduce and tighten oropharyngeal tissue. Sleep apena.
64
What type of set-up should be available during a UPP for a difficult airway?
Tracheotomy.
65
A benign proliferative overgrowth of epithelium is called
Papilloma
66
A benign lesion of the laryngeal epithelium is
Leuloplakia.
67
Phonation
Speak
68
Neoplasms, foreign bodies, papilloma, laryngeal polyps, leukoplakia, and laryngeal web are examples of what
Laryngeal lesions
69
A laryngoscopy is examination of what
Larynx.
70
An indirect laryngoscopy is use of what? A Direct?
Scope | Microscope.
71
What is used to collect specimens during a bronchoscopy>
Lukens trap.
72
Rigid bronchoscopes are commonly used for what?
Removal of foreign object.
73
Esophagoscopy
Direct visualization of the. Esophagus inserted through the mouth into esophagus, removal of foreign body or polyp, or dilation of strictures.
74
Tracheotomy or tracheostomy is performed to provide
A patent airway or provision or creation of a patent airway.
75
A tracheal hook is placed in the ________ to elevate the trachea.
Cricoid cartilage
76
A tracheal incision is usually made between the
Third and fourth tracheal rings.
77
What must be kept with the patient after a tracheostomy?
The obturator.
78
What is the largest salivary gland?
The parotid
79
Where is the parotid gland found?
Over the mandible, anterior to the ear
80
The submandibular duct is also called
Wharton duct
81
The sublingual ducts are also called
Ducts of rivinus
82
The thryoid gland is located where
In midneck overlies the trachea below the larynx.
83
The trachea is also called the
Windpipe.
84
The two lobes of the thryoid gland is divided by what?
The isthmus.
85
The thyroid gland secretes what three hormones?
Thyroxin t4, triiodothyronine t3 and calcitonin.
86
Thyroid hormones are necessary for what?
Cell metabolism and growth.
87
Calcitonin is necessary for
Calcium regulation
88
The parathyroid hormones influence what
Calcium and phosphate levels in the blood
89
What is Sellick's maneuver?
Pressure on the cricoid cartilage of the larynx, first tracheal ring, to close off the esophagus to prevent aspiration in an unconscious person.
90
Parotid ducts are also called
Stensen's duct
91
What is the major blood supply to the thyroid gland?
Superior lobe: external carotid branches | inferior lobe: subclavian branches.
92
Hyperthyroidism is also called
Graves
93
Hypothyroidism in adults is called? In childeren?
Myxedema | Cretinism
94
Goiters are a defiency in what
Iodine
95
Hyperparathryoidism is associated with
Hypercalcemia
96
Parotidectomy is the removal of
The parotid gland
97
What is required during a parotidectomy to ensure the facial nerve is not damaged?
Facial nerve stimulator.
98
What is the incision of a parotidectomy?
Y shape on either side of ear
99
Removal of approximately five-sixths of the thyroid glamd to treat hyperthyroidism is
Subtotal thyroidectomy.
100
Excision of an entire lobe for benign malignancy or toxic diffuse goiter is
Thyroid lobectomy
101
Removal of the thyroid gland for malignancy or to relieve compression on the trachea or esophagus is
Thyroidectomy
102
The incision for a thyroidectomy is
Transverse incision collar, in crease of neck 1 inch above suprasternal notch. Silk suture may be pressed to mark line of incision.
103
What is the postoperative position for thyroidectomy patients?
Fowlers.
104
Scalene node biopsy
Incision is made just below clavicle, and biopsy is take to determine the spread of tuberculosis or cancer from the lungs.
105
Removal of the pretracheal cystic pouch
Thyroglossal duct cystectomy
106
Removal of all lymph tissue from the midline to the trapezius muscle and clavicle, deep cervical fascia, and platysma mucsle, jugular vein, spinal accessory nerve, sternocleidomastoid muscle, and submandibular gland is
Mmodified radical neck dissection
107
Removal of the tongue to treat cancer
Glossectomy
108
What type of flap is used after a total glossectomy?
Pectoralix majr myocutaneous.
109
Removal of the larynx usually with wide excision and tissue grafting.
Laryngectomy
110
A laryngectomy is performed for four reasons: name them
1. Cancer 2. Diversion for total separation fo the respiratory and diverstibe tracts 3. Chondroradionecrosis 4. Major trauma that precludes open reduction and internal fixation.
111
What provides better outcomes during oral and maxillofacial surgery?
Early repair
112
What are the bones of the upper face?
The frontal bone.
113
What are the bones of the midface?
Ethmoid nasal bone, zygoma, and maxillary bone
114
The zygomatic arch is the
Cheek bones
115
The lower face contains what bones?
Mandilbe
116
What is the only movable bone of the face?
Mandible
117
Describe a le fort 1 fracture.
This is a horizontal fracture of the maxilla that causes the hard palate and alveolar process to become separated from the rest of the maxilla. The demarcation extends into the lower nasal septum, lateral maxillary sinus, and palatine bones.
118
Describe a le fort 2 fracture.
pyramidal shape. Extends from the nasal bone to the frontal preocesses of the maxilla, lacrimal bones, and inferior orbital floor and may extend into the orbital foramen. Inferiorly it extends into the anterior maxillary sinus and the pterygoid plates.
119
Describe a le fort 3 fracture.
The fracture involves separation of all the facial bones from their cranial bases. It includes fracture of the zygoma, maxilla, and nasal bones. The demarcation line extends through the ethmoid bone and bony orbit with severe facial flattening and swelling.
120
What type of fracture is associated with cerebral spinal fluid leakage into the sinuses/
Le fort II
121
Facial bones are fixed with what?
Mini-plates and cortical and lag screws.
122
Open reduction and internal fixation of an orbital floor fracture is performed to prevent entrapment of ___________ and support _______.
Extracoular muscles and support orbital contents.
123
Zygomatic fractures are also called
Malar fractures
124
When applying arch bars, the wire is twisted in what direction?
Clockwise
125
____ or _____ gauge stainless steel suture wires are used to apply arch bars.
24 or 26
126
What type of needle holder is used with stainless steel suture wires?
Rubio
127
What type of arch bars are there?
Erich
128
What type of intubation is used for patients with facial fractures?
Nasal
129
What are the three main concerns for a patient with severe facial injuries?
Airway, cervical spine injury, and hemorrhage.
130
What is kept with the patient who has had arch bars applied?
Wire cutters.
131
For midface fractures, what size plates are typically used?
1.7 or 2mm
132
For mandibular fractures, what size plates are typically used?
2.4 or 2.7 mm
133
A tooth extraction is also called
Odontectomy.
134
What incision is used for a tooth extraction?
Periodontal
135
Reshaping or repositioning of the jaws to correct a malocclusion or for cosmetic purposes is called:
Orthognathic surgery.
136
Jaw projecting forward:
Prognathism
137
Receding chin:
Retrognathism
138
Open bite created by the back teeth coming together first, thus preventing closure of the front teeth:
Apertognathia
139
Dental arch is too small to accommodate the teeth, causing them to be pushed out of alignment or crowed together:
Micrognathia
140
Imbalance between the right and left side of the face due to a discrepancy in the size, shape, or position of the jaw
Asymmetry.
141
Grinding of the teeth
Bruxism
142
An arthroscopy of the temporomandibular joint is performed with what size scope?
1.7 or 1.9 mm
143
Surgical contouring of alveolar processes and repair of the tooth sockets in preparation for dentures
Alveoloplasty
144
Open bite
Apertognathia
145
Without teeth
Edentulous
146
Surgical excision of a portion of the gums to remove deep pockets of inflamed tissue or plaque
Gingivectomy
147
Misfit of upper and lower teeth
Malocclusion
148
One who treats disease of the gums and alveoli surrounding the teeth
Periodontist
149
One who restores intraoral and external facial structures with prostheses.
Prosthodontist
150
A tracheotomy would procede what procedure?
Laryngectomy
151
The drill used in ear surgery is called
Ototome
152
Tonsillar fossa bleeders encountered during tonsillectomy are ligated with
Surgical gut