Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology > Micro Exam 2 > Flashcards

Micro Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Glycolysis?

A

the process of breaking down sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the site of glycolysis?

A

the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the starting material of glycolysis?

A

glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How many reactions are used in glycolysis?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the main product of glycolysis?

A

pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the two byproducts of pyruvate

A

ATP

NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During glycolysis ATP is produced via ______ phosphorylation

A

substrate-level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens to the NADH produced during glycolysis

A

it goes on to be processes via the electron transport chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

1 NADH = ___ ATP

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ATP produced via the electron transport chain are produced at _______ phosphorylation

A

oxidative level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Does glycolysis require oxygen?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the fate of pyruvate after glycolysis?

A

If oxygen is present than pyruvate goes on to be further processed by the krebs cycle and then the ETC to produce ATP

if there is no oxygen present than it goes to fermentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where is the site of the krebs cycle in eukaryotes?

A

the mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where is the site of the krebs cycle in prokaryites?

A

the cytoplasm of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In order for pyruvate to be processed via the krebs cycle what has to happen?

A

it needs to be converted into Acetyl CoA via a preparatory convertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The krebs cycle is also know as what other two names?

A

the ticarboxylic acid cycle

citric acid cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the byproducts of pyruvate becoming Acetyl CoA?

A

CO2 and NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Once Acetyl CoA enters the krebs cycle, what does it produce to contine the cycle over again?

A

Oxaloacetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the products of krebs? qualitative

A

ATP, NADH, FADH2, CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the goal of the electron transport chain?

A

to produce ATP from NADH and FADH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the site of the Electron transport chain?

A

euk- inner membrane of the mitochondria

pro- cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In aerobic respiration, oxygen is used as what?

A

the final electron acceptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

if oxygen is limited or absent can the electron transport chain still run? if so how?

A

yes. some bacteria are faculative anaerobes and can use other substances as final electron accepters. such as nitrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

does anaerobic respiration yield the same as aerobic?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

summarize the process of the electron transport chain

A

NADH and FADH2 act as electron carriers

the electrons are passed from NADH and FADH2 also releasing hydrogen protons

the hydrogen protons are pumped from the membrane and create a concentration gradient

the charged Hydrogen diffuses back through the membrane creating energy

this energy is used to combind ADP and Pi into ADP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the process of electron chain transport called?

A

the CHEMIOSMOTIC theory of ATP production where oxygen is used as the final electron acceptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the pentose phosphate pathway? PPP

A

an alternative pathway for the breakdown of glucose and pentose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is pentose?

A

5 carbon sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

does PPP create ATP? what does it produce?

A

no it produces NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the NADH from PPP used for?

A

anabolic reactions that require electron donors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the goal of the PPP

A

to produce metaboites for the synthesis of nucleotides and nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is fermentation?

A

Fermentation is a metabolic process that consumes sugar in the absence of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fermentation occurs when ____ is absent

A

oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Almost all fermentation processes are done by what?

A

microrganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the three main uses of fermentation?

A

food/alcohol productuon
Identification
diagnosing of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

2 ____ are always a product of fermentation

A

2 ADP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the only type of fermentation that humans can use?

A

the fermentation of pyruvate to lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the only fermentation process that doesn’t peoduce CO2

A

lactic acid fermentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is lactic acid fermentation used for?

A

the production of yogurt, cheese, and vinegar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What bacteria is used in lactic acid fermentation?

A

Streptococcus Lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the fermentation pathway for alcohol?

A 
Pyruvate
V
Acetaldhyde
V
Ethyl alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What microbes produce alcohol?

A

Bacteria and yeasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is alcohol fermentation used to produce?

A

bread, beer, wine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is propionic acid fermentation used to produce?

A

swiss cheese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What bacteria is used in propionic acid fermentation?

A

propionobacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is butanediol fermentation used for?

A

it is used to diagnose pneumonia and to identify unknown bacteria

this is called the vogues-proskauer test and is used to detect acetoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the fermentation pathway for butanediol fermentation?

A

Pyruvate
v> acetoin
butanediol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What bacterium is used in butanediol fermentation?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is burtic acid fermentation used for?

A

Diagnosis of tetanus and botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What bacteria are used in burtic acid fermentation?

A

colstridium tetani and clostridium butilicum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is mixed acid fermentation used for?

A

identification of bacteria in the enterobacteriaceae family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the net ATP gain from glycolysis?

A

2 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How many NADH does glycolysis produce?

A

2 NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How many ATP come from one NADH?

A

3 STP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When one pyruvate is processed into acetyl-CoA, how many NADH are produced?

A

1 NADH this happend twice per glycolysis process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How many kreb cycles per glycolysis process?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

how many NADH are produced per Krebs cycle?

A

3 NADH 2 cycles per glucose molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How many FADH2 produced per one krebs cycle?

A

1 fADH2 2 cycles per glucose molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How many substrate level ATP are produced per krebs cycle?

A

1 ATP * 2 cycles per glucose molecule*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the max amount of ATP per glucose molecule?

A

38 ATP max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is a nucleotide

A

a compound consisting of a nucleoside linked to a phosphate group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is a nucleic acid?

A

a long chain of nucleotide’s held together by hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the two different types of nucleic acids?

A 
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the the 3 main components of DNA and RNA?

A

a 5-c sugar
a phosphate group
nucleotide base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the 5-c sugar in DNA?

A

Deoxyribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the 5-c sugar in RNA?

A

Ribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the difference between ribose and deoxyribose?

A

Deoxy has one less oxygen atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Where does the phosphate group attach in nucleic acids?

A

the 5th carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Where do nucleotide based attach in nucleic acids

A

the first carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the 4 bases of DNA

A 
ATCG
Adenine
Thymine
Cytosine
Guanine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What bases of DNA pair with one another?

A

A-T

C-G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

the shape of DNA is described as a ____ double helix

A

antiparallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the orientation of a strand of dna?

5’->3’
or
3’->5’

A

5’—->3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the 4 bases of RNA?

A

AUCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the U base in RNA?

A

uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How many strands does RNA have?

A

one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

RNA is considered DNA’s molecular _____

A

Slave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Describe the central dogma.

A

DNA can replicate itself
DNA can Transcribe to RNA
Transcribed RNA can Translate into proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is reverse transcription?

A

When a petovirus converts its RNA into DNA and insert it into the host chromosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the site of DNA replication in Eukaryotes and the site in prokaryotes

A

Euk- Nucleus

Pro-Cytoplasm near the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the direction of synthesis in DNA replication

A

from 5’ to 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the difference between the leading strand and the lagging strand in DNA replication?

A

the leading strand is continuously replicated where as the lagging strand is replicated in fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the function of helicase in DNA replication?

A

helicase dissolves the H bonds between nucleotide bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the function of toposomerase in DNA replication?

A

Toposomerase acts as a detangler, it removes super coils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Together, helicase and toposomerase perform what function that is the initial step of replication?

A

they open the double helix and create the replication fork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the function of DNA polymerase?

A

DNA polymerase assembles new dna stands by producing matching nucleotide bases to the ones present on the leading strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Why is DNA polymerase considered a smart enzyme?

A

because it proof reads its work and removes errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the function of ligase in DNA replication?

A

it glues okazaki fragments together forming a continuous strand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what are okazaki fragments?

A

the fragments of nuecleotides that form the lagging strand during replication piece by piece

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is semi-conservative replication?

A

when the two end product strands of DNA both have one daughter strand and one new strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the rate of replication in Eukaryotes?

A

50 bases a second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is the replication rate in prokaryotes?

A

500 bases a second

93
Q

What is the general error rate in replication?

A

1:1billion

94
Q

What is DNA transcription?

A

The passage of instruction from DNA to RNA

95
Q

What are helicase and troposomerase’s jobs in DNA transcription?

A

the open the helix and form a transcription bubble

96
Q

How is RNA formed from the DNA strand?

A

It is read and assembled by RNA polymerase

97
Q

What is the RNA strand created by RNA polymerase called?

A

MRNA -Messenger RNA

98
Q

What does MRNA do after it is created?

A

it detaches from the parent strand and exits the nucleus if eukaryotic then heads for the ribosome to be translated

99
Q

What is the function of MRNA

A

it carries the copied recipe for a specific protein

it contains the codon information

100
Q

What is a codon?

A

a three base pair sequence that corresponds to an amino acid

101
Q

What is TRNA?

A

Translation RNA

it reads the MRNA and assembles the amino acid sequence. it contains the anti codons to match with the codons

102
Q

what is the rRNA?

A

the rinosomal RNA. this is the site of translation

103
Q

What type of bond forms between amino acids in protein systhesis?

A

peptide bonds

104
Q

What codon is always the start codon?

A

Methionine

AUG

105
Q

Why is it beneficial to have redundant codons?

what are redundant codons?

A

Redundant codons are condons of different sequences that produce the same amino acid. this is good because it prevents mutations

106
Q

How many stop codons are there?

A

three
UAA
UAG
UGA

107
Q

what is a mutation?

A

any change in DNAs nucleotide sequence that can be passed onto the next generation.

108
Q

in bacteria, most mutations lead to ____

A

evolutionary progress

109
Q

A type of mutation where nothing is added or deleted but is instead deleted.

A

point mutation

110
Q

What are the three types of point mutations?

A

Missense mutation
Silent mutation
non-sense mutation

111
Q

What is a missense mutation?

example?

A

When altered base codes for a different amino acid.
normal sequence UUU - phenylalnine
Mutated seqence. UUA - leucine
sickle cell anemia

112
Q

What is a silent mutation?

A

when the changed codon produces the same amino acid as the original

113
Q

What is a non-sense mutation

A

when the changed codon codes for a terminator codon aka a stop codon. this leads to a pre mature end of protein synthesis

114
Q

What is a frameshift mutation?

A

when when a base is deleted or inserted into the sequence

115
Q

what are the 3 consequences of frame-shift mutations

A
  1. abnormal proteins are produced
  2. its almost impossible for FS mutations to result in slient mutations
  3. Very high risk of nonsense mutations
116
Q

What are the two major causes of mutations?

A

Spontaneous mutations via error in replication

induced mutations caused by mutagenic agents

117
Q

what are the three types of mutagenic agents?

A

Radiation
Chemicals
Viruses

118
Q

What are the two types of radiation that cause mutations?

A

ultraviolet

ionizing radiation

119
Q

How does ultraviolet radiation cause mutation?

A

It creates T-T dimers
in the presence of UV radiation. adjacent thymines bond together creating a dimer. this dimer produces a gap during replication creating a frame shift

120
Q

How do ionizing raditations cause harm to dna

A

it breaks down the sugar phosphate backbone causing the DNA to comme apart.

121
Q

How is ionizing radiation used to our benefit

A

it is used to preserve foods, kill bugs, and increase shelf life of foods.

122
Q

What are the two common types of ionizing radiations?

A

gamma and x-ray

123
Q

What is a base analogue and how does it cause mutations

example?

A

Base analogues have similar structures to n-bases and can be taken up and used as substitutes for the normal bases causing mutations during replication

caffeine (A&G)

124
Q

What is an alkylating agent and how does it cause mutations

example?

A

they can add methyl or alkyl groups to based of dna and produce errors in base pairing.
BAP linked to breast cancer. biproduct of incomplete combustion of fuel

125
Q

What is a acridine derivative and how does it cause mutations

A

they can insert into the dna and cause frameshift

quinacrine

126
Q

What is a Deaminating agent and how does it cause mutations

A

they can remove n-groups of nucleotide bases

leads to base substitution

127
Q

What are utilized to repair DNA damage?

A

Enzymes

128
Q

What is the main repair enzyme for DNA

*Smart Enzyme *

A

DNA polymerase

129
Q

How does the DNA Glycosylase enzyme repair DNA damage ?

A

Cleaves and removes altered bases

Specifically oxidized Guanine

130
Q

What enzyme is used to repair ultraviolet radiation damage?

A

UVR endonucleases

131
Q

How do UVR endonucleases repair damage

A

They cleave t dimers which allows polymerase to replace the gap with correct bases.

132
Q

What is a Excision repair? What environment does it happen in?

A

The type of repair used by UVR endonucleases

Happens in th dark

133
Q

What are the two enzymes used to repair uv damage

Which one is used by prokaryotes?

A

UVR endonucleases
And Photolyase
Photolyase is used the most by prokaryotes

134
Q

How does Photolyase repair damage?

A

It breaks the double binds of the t dimers which allows polymerase to fix the gap.
This repair is light dependent

135
Q

What is the Ames test used for?

A

To determine if a substance is mutagenic/carcinogenic

136
Q

How does the Ames test work

Briefly describe

A

It uses a bacteria dependent on an amino acid found in a medium. If the bacteria survives in a medium of the material in question that is absent from the amino acid it shows that mutation occurred to allow the bacteria to once again produce the amino acid.

137
Q

What does the Ames test assume?

A

That substances that can cause mutations are also carcinogenic

138
Q

What bacteria is used for the Ames test and why?

A

Salmonella his- is used because it can not produce histidine .

139
Q

What type of medium is used for the Ames test?

A

A chemically defined medium

Glucose salts medium

140
Q

Explain the Ames test process.

A

Salmonella his- is inoculated into the medium. A well is cut in the medium and the substance being tested is added to the well. This is them incubated.
If there is growth than the substance is potentially mutagenic and if there is no growth the substance is most likely not mutagenic

141
Q

What is genetic engineering?

A

Deliberate manipulation of the genetic material of a cell to alter the characteristics of the organism in some way

142
Q

How is the haemophilus bacteria used in genetic engineering?

A

It recognizes CCGG in the genetic code and cuts it in the middle

143
Q

Explain the process used to make the slow ripening tomato.

*gene fusion *

A

The gene for ripening is removed from the code using restriction enzymes. Then it is reversed and placed back into the chromosome. The tomato no longer has the ripening gene but does produce a new protein instead

144
Q

Why is it important to place the DNA fragment back into the chromosome during gene fusion?

A

Because you can only remove so much DNA before the chromosome begins to decay. So you need to place the genes back into the chromosome to maintain stability

145
Q

What is interstitial deletion?

A

When a portion of the genetic code is removed completely

146
Q

How is protoplasmic fusion different than gene fusion?

A

It doesn’t use restriction enzymes

147
Q

Explain protoplasmic fusion

A

Enzymes are used to breakdown cell walls of two bacteria that you want to combine and you hope that the DNA fragments combine into a super strand

148
Q

What is recombant DNA tech. *type of genetic eng.

A

It is the physical joining of dna segments from two diff. species.
Bacteria-plant
plant-animal
human-bacteria

149
Q

Explain the process of recumbent DNA engineering

A

A bacteria species with a plasmid is isolated.
the plasmid is removed and the desired gene is cut using restriction enzymes and then ligated into the plasmid
the plasmid is integrated back into the bacteria via transformation

150
Q

What bacteria species is used to produce human insulin?

A

e.coli

151
Q

Why is the ability to produce factor VIII from bacteria important?

A

because is eliminates the need to blood transfusions and the potental spread of BBPs.

152
Q

What is PCR ?

A

Polymerace chain reaction
it is used to amplify gene segments of DNA
It is a copy machine for genetic information. It uses nucleotides, enzymes, and other nutrients to replicate dna fragments to detectable levels.

153
Q

How is PCR used?

A

Early detection of disease

Amplification of DNA in forensic samples

154
Q

Explain the process of PCR

A

The genetic information is amplified, isolated and then tested via Electrophoresis against a control.

155
Q

What is DNA hybridization test?

A

Uses a known segment as a contol.
the know segment is tagged with a radioactive label.
the know segment is combined with the unknow segment.
the combination is then tested via xray. the radioactive segments will show up dark on the xray.
If the two segments combined then the xray will be completely dark. if they didn’t combined then the xray will be spotted

156
Q

Explain restriction fragment length polymorphism

A

DNA fingerprinting
used to identify unknown microbe, forensics, and paternity tests.

Tests the number of segments after restriction enzymes are used to cut the DNA segments

157
Q

What does DNA fingerprinting assume?

A

That each individual has a unique sequence of nucleotide’s in dna

158
Q

what are the steps in restriction fragment length polymorphism

A

DNA is isolated
Denatured
Cut
and electro gelled

159
Q

Define a disease

A

an abnormal physiological process brought by a continuous irritation of a primary

160
Q

How are diseased expressed.

A

via symptoms

161
Q

What are symptoms?

A

outward manifestation of disease

162
Q

what are “signs”

A

evidence of the presence of a pathogen

163
Q

What is a syndrome?

A

combonation of signs and symptoms

164
Q

what is a pathogen?

A

any microbe that can cause disease

165
Q

what is contamination?

A

the mere presence of microbes on tissues ot objects

166
Q

What is infection?

A

growth and multiplication of microbes or pathogens on the body with or without disease production

167
Q

What is a non-innfectious dissease?

A

A disease caused by abiotic factors. aka. pollution, genetics, hormones, dificiencies

168
Q

what is an infectious disease.

A

a disease caused by pathogensnic microbes

can either be communicable or non comminocable

169
Q

What are the steps in pathenogenesis?

A

Penetration (adherence)
Colonization
Invasion
productions of toxins

170
Q

What part of the microbes are involved in adhernce

A

it adheres via finmriae and pili

171
Q

What are the four main portals of entry for pathogenic

A

Intact skin
wound
mucous membranes
Natural openings

172
Q

what is colonization?

A

the growth of microbes on epi tissue

173
Q

what is invasion?

A

When microbes establish residence in the host

174
Q

severity of disease depends on a degree of what?

A

invasion

175
Q

How do bacteria cause disease?

4 ways

A

Direct action
Production of toxins
production of enzymes
Production of acids

176
Q

What is direct action in bacteria disease

A

they can leach nutrients from host cells and block off circulation

177
Q

What are the two types of toxins that bacteria can produce.

A

endotoxins
and
exotoxins

178
Q

What organisms produce endo toxins

A

all gram negative via the lipid A endotoxins

179
Q

What organisms produce exotoxins

A

mostly gam + and a few gram -

180
Q

where is exotoxin produced?

A

extracellular, secreted outside of cells

181
Q

Where is endotoxin produced?

A

within cells. its bound inside the cell walls and are released during lysis

182
Q

What are the main types of enzymes produced by bacteria.

HLHCK

A 
Hemolysins
leukocidins
Hyaluronidease
Coagulases
Kinases
183
Q

What are the two types of hemolysins?

A

Alpha- partial hemolysis
and
Beta- Complete hemolysis

184
Q

What are leukocindins.

A

damage to white blood cells called neutrophils

185
Q

What are hyalurondase’s

A

they digest hyaluronic acid which is responsible for holding cells together

186
Q

what are coagulases?

A

they cause accelerated blood clotting and can create walls of clotted blood to protct themselves

187
Q

What are kinases?

A

the opposite of coagulases.

they digest fibrin and disolve clots

188
Q

What is endotoxic shock?

A

An allergic reaction caued by the lycing of gram - bacteria . when the gram negative bacteria die, they release their endotoxin.

189
Q

What is the chemical composition of exotoxins?

A

polypeptides/proteins

190
Q

What is the chemical composition of endotoxin?

A

lipopolysaccharides

191
Q

What are the two ways fingoi can harm you?

A

Direct tissue damage
production of toxins
production of enzymes

192
Q

How can fungi cause direct tissue damage?

A

growth and multiplication on host tissues and leaching nutreants from the host

193
Q

What is dermatomycoses?

A

fungal skin diseases

194
Q

What are some of the affects of fungi toxins?

A

loss of muscle coordination, tremors, weight loss, hallucinations

195
Q

Why are disorders caused by fungi toxins not considered a fungal disease? what are they caalled instead?

A

Because they are similar to a drug overdose and need to be ingested to cause the negative effects

196
Q

what are three types of fungal toxins?

A

Aflatoxin-liver toxin
ergot-ergotism
and mushroom toxi-inhibit rna polymerase

197
Q

How do fungal enzymes affect host tissue?

A

they degrade digest host tissues

198
Q

What are the three ways protozoa and helminths cause disease?

A

Direct feeding on tissues
production of toxic metabolic wastes
migration to vital organs

199
Q

What are the 6 steps in the course of infection?

IPIADC

A 
Incubation
Prodromal
Invasive
Acme
Decline
Convalescence
200
Q

What are the two main transmission phases in the 6 steps of infection?

A

incubation

convalescence

201
Q

What is the incubation period?

A

The time between infection and the apperance of disease

202
Q

What is the length of the incubation phase?

A

depends on the path. 2 years to decades

203
Q

What is the prodromal phase?

A

Short period of non-specific symptoms

not present in all diseases

204
Q

What is the invasive phase?

A

the period when specific signs and symptoms occur

205
Q

what is the acme phase?

A

the critical stage, the time when symptoms are most severe

206
Q

what is the decline phase?

A

When host defenses overcome the pathogen and symptomms begin to subside

207
Q

WHat is the convalescence phase?

A

the period of recovery
tissue repair begins
symptoms subside but patient is still contagious

208
Q

What are the three main reservoirs of infections?

A

Human reservoir
animals reservoir
non-living reservoirs

209
Q

WHat is a disease with a human reservoir?

A

AIDS STD’s

210
Q

How many pathogens can be transmitted from animal reservoirs?

A

at least 150

211
Q

What is a ZOONOSES?

A

a term for a disease transmitted to humans via animal reservoir

212
Q

What are the three main non-living reservoirs?

What is found in each?

A

Soil-Tetanus, anthrax, botulism
Water-contaminated with coliforms
food-parasites, coliforms

213
Q

What are the three mechanisms of disease transmission?

A

by Contact
by vehicles
by vectors

214
Q

What are the two types of direct contact transmission?

A

Horizontal

Vertical

215
Q

What is horizontal contact transmission?

A

transmission via contact with a neighoring individual or animal hand shake, kissing, SEXUAL ACTIVITIES, animal bites

216
Q

What is vertical contact transmission?

A

diseases passed from parent to offspring

217
Q

What are fomites?

A

non living objects contaminated with pathogens

218
Q

What is indirect contact transmission?

A

transmission via fomites

clothing, dishes, bar soad, money

219
Q

What is droplet transmission?

A

transmission via aerosols
ONLY AT A DISTANCES OF 1meter or less from source
sneezing

220
Q

What are the four forms of vehicle transmission?

A

Water-borne
Air-borne
Food-borne
other

221
Q

what is water borne transmission?

A

transmission via drinking contaminated water

222
Q

What is air-borne transmission?

A

Occurs at a distance of 1+ meters
Occurs when bacteria/pathogens combind with dust particles and float on the air
streptococcus and staphylococcus

223
Q

What is food-borne transmission??

A

contaminated food via processing and improper storage

224
Q

What are some other vehicles of transmission?

A

blood, body fluids

225
Q

What are the two types of vectors?

A

Mechanical

biological

226
Q

WHat are vectors?

A

small living things that carry pathogens and transmit diseases

227
Q

What are mechanical vectors

A

vectors that passivly transmit pathogens via feet and bodies

228
Q

What are biological vectors?

A

vectors that transmit diseases via bites
paths usually complete parts of their lifecycle inside vectors
example-malaria

Microbiology (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions