Micro Exam 2 Flashcards
(228 cards)
1
Q
What is Glycolysis?
A
the process of breaking down sugars
2
Q
what is the site of glycolysis?
A
the cytoplasm
3
Q
what is the starting material of glycolysis?
A
glucose
4
Q
How many reactions are used in glycolysis?
A
10
5
Q
what is the main product of glycolysis?
A
pyruvate
6
Q
What are the two byproducts of pyruvate
A
ATP
NADH
7
Q
During glycolysis ATP is produced via ______ phosphorylation
A
substrate-level
8
Q
What happens to the NADH produced during glycolysis
A
it goes on to be processes via the electron transport chain.
9
Q
1 NADH = ___ ATP
A
3
10
Q
ATP produced via the electron transport chain are produced at _______ phosphorylation
A
oxidative level
11
Q
Does glycolysis require oxygen?
A
no
12
Q
What is the fate of pyruvate after glycolysis?
A
If oxygen is present than pyruvate goes on to be further processed by the krebs cycle and then the ETC to produce ATP
if there is no oxygen present than it goes to fermentation
13
Q
Where is the site of the krebs cycle in eukaryotes?
A
the mitochondria
14
Q
where is the site of the krebs cycle in prokaryites?
A
the cytoplasm of the cell
15
Q
In order for pyruvate to be processed via the krebs cycle what has to happen?
A
it needs to be converted into Acetyl CoA via a preparatory convertion
16
Q
The krebs cycle is also know as what other two names?
A
the ticarboxylic acid cycle
citric acid cycle
17
Q
What are the byproducts of pyruvate becoming Acetyl CoA?
A
CO2 and NADH
18
Q
Once Acetyl CoA enters the krebs cycle, what does it produce to contine the cycle over again?
A
Oxaloacetate
19
Q
What are the products of krebs? qualitative
A
ATP, NADH, FADH2, CO2
20
Q
What is the goal of the electron transport chain?
A
to produce ATP from NADH and FADH2
21
Q
What is the site of the Electron transport chain?
A
euk- inner membrane of the mitochondria
pro- cell membrane
22
Q
In aerobic respiration, oxygen is used as what?
A
the final electron acceptor
23
Q
if oxygen is limited or absent can the electron transport chain still run? if so how?
A
yes. some bacteria are faculative anaerobes and can use other substances as final electron accepters. such as nitrates
24
Q
does anaerobic respiration yield the same as aerobic?
A
no
25
summarize the process of the electron transport chain
NADH and FADH2 act as electron carriers
the electrons are passed from NADH and FADH2 also releasing hydrogen protons
the hydrogen protons are pumped from the membrane and create a concentration gradient
the charged Hydrogen diffuses back through the membrane creating energy
this energy is used to combind ADP and Pi into ADP
26
What is the process of electron chain transport called?
the CHEMIOSMOTIC theory of ATP production where oxygen is used as the final electron acceptor
27
What is the pentose phosphate pathway? PPP
an alternative pathway for the breakdown of glucose and pentose
28
what is pentose?
5 carbon sugar
29
does PPP create ATP? what does it produce?
no it produces NADH
30
What is the NADH from PPP used for?
anabolic reactions that require electron donors
31
What is the goal of the PPP
to produce metaboites for the synthesis of nucleotides and nucleic acids
32
What is fermentation?
Fermentation is a metabolic process that consumes sugar in the absence of oxygen
33
Fermentation occurs when ____ is absent
oxygen
34
Almost all fermentation processes are done by what?
microrganisms
35
what are the three main uses of fermentation?
food/alcohol productuon
Identification
diagnosing of disease
36
2 ____ are always a product of fermentation
2 ADP
37
What is the only type of fermentation that humans can use?
the fermentation of pyruvate to lactic acid
38
what is the only fermentation process that doesn't peoduce CO2
lactic acid fermentation
39
What is lactic acid fermentation used for?
the production of yogurt, cheese, and vinegar
40
What bacteria is used in lactic acid fermentation?
Streptococcus Lactobacillus
41
What is the fermentation pathway for alcohol?
```
Pyruvate
V
Acetaldhyde
V
Ethyl alcohol
```
42
What microbes produce alcohol?
Bacteria and yeasts
43
What is alcohol fermentation used to produce?
bread, beer, wine
44
What is propionic acid fermentation used to produce?
swiss cheese
45
What bacteria is used in propionic acid fermentation?
propionobacterium
46
What is butanediol fermentation used for?
it is used to diagnose pneumonia and to identify unknown bacteria
this is called the vogues-proskauer test and is used to detect acetoin
47
What is the fermentation pathway for butanediol fermentation?
Pyruvate
v> acetoin
butanediol
48
What bacterium is used in butanediol fermentation?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
49
What is burtic acid fermentation used for?
Diagnosis of tetanus and botulism
50
What bacteria are used in burtic acid fermentation?
colstridium tetani and clostridium butilicum
51
What is mixed acid fermentation used for?
identification of bacteria in the enterobacteriaceae family
52
What is the net ATP gain from glycolysis?
2 ATP
53
How many NADH does glycolysis produce?
2 NADH
54
How many ATP come from one NADH?
3 STP
55
When one pyruvate is processed into acetyl-CoA, how many NADH are produced?
1 NADH this happend twice per glycolysis process
56
How many kreb cycles per glycolysis process?
2
57
how many NADH are produced per Krebs cycle?
3 NADH *2 cycles per glucose molecule*
58
How many FADH2 produced per one krebs cycle?
1 fADH2 *2 cycles per glucose molecule*
59
How many substrate level ATP are produced per krebs cycle?
1 ATP * 2 cycles per glucose molecule*
60
What is the max amount of ATP per glucose molecule?
38 ATP max
61
What is a nucleotide
a compound consisting of a nucleoside linked to a phosphate group
62
what is a nucleic acid?
a long chain of nucleotide's held together by hydrogen bonds
63
What are the two different types of nucleic acids?
```
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
```
64
What are the the 3 main components of DNA and RNA?
a 5-c sugar
a phosphate group
nucleotide base
65
What is the 5-c sugar in DNA?
Deoxyribose
66
What is the 5-c sugar in RNA?
Ribose
67
What is the difference between ribose and deoxyribose?
Deoxy has one less oxygen atom
68
Where does the phosphate group attach in nucleic acids?
the 5th carbon
69
Where do nucleotide based attach in nucleic acids
the first carbon
70
What are the 4 bases of DNA
```
ATCG
Adenine
Thymine
Cytosine
Guanine
```
71
What bases of DNA pair with one another?
A-T
| C-G
72
the shape of DNA is described as a ____ double helix
antiparallel
73
What is the orientation of a strand of dna?
5'->3'
or
3'->5'
5'---->3'
74
What are the 4 bases of RNA?
AUCG
75
What is the U base in RNA?
uracil
76
How many strands does RNA have?
one
77
RNA is considered DNA's molecular _____
Slave
78
Describe the central dogma.
DNA can replicate itself
DNA can Transcribe to RNA
Transcribed RNA can Translate into proteins
79
What is reverse transcription?
When a petovirus converts its RNA into DNA and insert it into the host chromosome.
80
What is the site of DNA replication in Eukaryotes and the site in prokaryotes
Euk- Nucleus
| Pro-Cytoplasm near the cell membrane
81
What is the direction of synthesis in DNA replication
from 5' to 3'
82
What is the difference between the leading strand and the lagging strand in DNA replication?
the leading strand is continuously replicated where as the lagging strand is replicated in fragments
83
What is the function of helicase in DNA replication?
helicase dissolves the H bonds between nucleotide bases
84
What is the function of toposomerase in DNA replication?
Toposomerase acts as a detangler, it removes super coils
85
Together, helicase and toposomerase perform what function that is the initial step of replication?
they open the double helix and create the replication fork
86
What is the function of DNA polymerase?
DNA polymerase assembles new dna stands by producing matching nucleotide bases to the ones present on the leading strand
87
Why is DNA polymerase considered a smart enzyme?
because it proof reads its work and removes errors
88
What is the function of ligase in DNA replication?
it glues okazaki fragments together forming a continuous strand.
89
what are okazaki fragments?
the fragments of nuecleotides that form the lagging strand during replication piece by piece
90
What is semi-conservative replication?
when the two end product strands of DNA both have one daughter strand and one new strand
91
What is the rate of replication in Eukaryotes?
50 bases a second
92
what is the replication rate in prokaryotes?
500 bases a second
93
What is the general error rate in replication?
1:1billion
94
What is DNA transcription?
The passage of instruction from DNA to RNA
95
What are helicase and troposomerase's jobs in DNA transcription?
the open the helix and form a transcription bubble
96
How is RNA formed from the DNA strand?
It is read and assembled by RNA polymerase
97
What is the RNA strand created by RNA polymerase called?
MRNA -Messenger RNA
98
What does MRNA do after it is created?
it detaches from the parent strand and exits the nucleus *if eukaryotic* then heads for the ribosome to be translated
99
What is the function of MRNA
it carries the copied recipe for a specific protein
| it contains the codon information
100
What is a codon?
a three base pair sequence that corresponds to an amino acid
101
What is TRNA?
Translation RNA
| it reads the MRNA and assembles the amino acid sequence. it contains the anti codons to match with the codons
102
what is the rRNA?
the rinosomal RNA. this is the site of translation
103
What type of bond forms between amino acids in protein systhesis?
peptide bonds
104
What codon is always the start codon?
Methionine
| AUG
105
Why is it beneficial to have redundant codons?
| what are redundant codons?
Redundant codons are condons of different sequences that produce the same amino acid. this is good because it prevents mutations
106
How many stop codons are there?
three
UAA
UAG
UGA
107
what is a mutation?
any change in DNAs nucleotide sequence that can be passed onto the next generation.
108
in bacteria, most mutations lead to ____
evolutionary progress
109
A type of mutation where nothing is added or deleted but is instead deleted.
point mutation
110
What are the three types of point mutations?
Missense mutation
Silent mutation
non-sense mutation
111
What is a missense mutation?
| example?
When altered base codes for a different amino acid.
normal sequence UUU - phenylalnine
Mutated seqence. UUA - leucine
sickle cell anemia
112
What is a silent mutation?
when the changed codon produces the same amino acid as the original
113
What is a non-sense mutation
when the changed codon codes for a terminator codon aka a stop codon. this leads to a pre mature end of protein synthesis
114
What is a frameshift mutation?
when when a base is deleted or inserted into the sequence
115
what are the 3 consequences of frame-shift mutations
1. abnormal proteins are produced
2. its almost impossible for FS mutations to result in slient mutations
3. Very high risk of nonsense mutations
116
What are the two major causes of mutations?
Spontaneous mutations via error in replication
| induced mutations caused by mutagenic agents
117
what are the three types of mutagenic agents?
Radiation
Chemicals
Viruses
118
What are the two types of radiation that cause mutations?
ultraviolet
| ionizing radiation
119
How does ultraviolet radiation cause mutation?
It creates T-T dimers
in the presence of UV radiation. adjacent thymines bond together creating a dimer. this dimer produces a gap during replication creating a frame shift
120
How do ionizing raditations cause harm to dna
it breaks down the sugar phosphate backbone causing the DNA to comme apart.
121
How is ionizing radiation used to our benefit
it is used to preserve foods, kill bugs, and increase shelf life of foods.
122
What are the two common types of ionizing radiations?
gamma and x-ray
123
What is a base analogue and how does it cause mutations
| example?
Base analogues have similar structures to n-bases and can be taken up and used as substitutes for the normal bases causing mutations during replication
caffeine (A&G)
124
What is an alkylating agent and how does it cause mutations
| example?
they can add methyl or alkyl groups to based of dna and produce errors in base pairing.
BAP linked to breast cancer. biproduct of incomplete combustion of fuel
125
What is a acridine derivative and how does it cause mutations
they can insert into the dna and cause frameshift
| quinacrine
126
What is a Deaminating agent and how does it cause mutations
they can remove n-groups of nucleotide bases
| leads to base substitution
127
What are utilized to repair DNA damage?
Enzymes
128
What is the main repair enzyme for DNA
| *Smart Enzyme *
DNA polymerase
129
How does the DNA Glycosylase enzyme repair DNA damage ?
Cleaves and removes altered bases
| Specifically oxidized Guanine
130
What enzyme is used to repair ultraviolet radiation damage?
UVR endonucleases
131
How do UVR endonucleases repair damage
They cleave t dimers which allows polymerase to replace the gap with correct bases.
132
What is a Excision repair? What environment does it happen in?
The type of repair used by UVR endonucleases
Happens in th dark
133
What are the two enzymes used to repair uv damage
| Which one is used by prokaryotes?
UVR endonucleases
And Photolyase
Photolyase is used the most by prokaryotes
134
How does Photolyase repair damage?
It breaks the double binds of the t dimers which allows polymerase to fix the gap.
This repair is light dependent
135
What is the Ames test used for?
To determine if a substance is mutagenic/carcinogenic
136
How does the Ames test work
| Briefly describe
It uses a bacteria dependent on an amino acid found in a medium. If the bacteria survives in a medium of the material in question that is absent from the amino acid it shows that mutation occurred to allow the bacteria to once again produce the amino acid.
137
What does the Ames test assume?
That substances that can cause mutations are also carcinogenic
138
What bacteria is used for the Ames test and why?
Salmonella his- is used because it can not produce histidine .
139
What type of medium is used for the Ames test?
A chemically defined medium
| Glucose salts medium
140
Explain the Ames test process.
Salmonella his- is inoculated into the medium. A well is cut in the medium and the substance being tested is added to the well. This is them incubated.
If there is growth than the substance is potentially mutagenic and if there is no growth the substance is most likely not mutagenic
141
What is genetic engineering?
Deliberate manipulation of the genetic material of a cell to alter the characteristics of the organism in some way
142
How is the haemophilus bacteria used in genetic engineering?
It recognizes CCGG in the genetic code and cuts it in the middle
143
Explain the process used to make the slow ripening tomato.
| *gene fusion *
The gene for ripening is removed from the code using restriction enzymes. Then it is reversed and placed back into the chromosome. The tomato no longer has the ripening gene but does produce a new protein instead
144
Why is it important to place the DNA fragment back into the chromosome during gene fusion?
Because you can only remove so much DNA before the chromosome begins to decay. So you need to place the genes back into the chromosome to maintain stability
145
What is interstitial deletion?
When a portion of the genetic code is removed completely
146
How is protoplasmic fusion different than gene fusion?
It doesn't use restriction enzymes
147
Explain protoplasmic fusion
Enzymes are used to breakdown cell walls of two bacteria that you want to combine and you hope that the DNA fragments combine into a super strand
148
What is recombant DNA tech. *type of genetic eng.
It is the physical joining of dna segments from two diff. species.
Bacteria-plant
plant-animal
human-bacteria
149
Explain the process of recumbent DNA engineering
A bacteria species with a plasmid is isolated.
the plasmid is removed and the desired gene is cut using restriction enzymes and then ligated into the plasmid
the plasmid is integrated back into the bacteria via transformation
150
What bacteria species is used to produce human insulin?
e.coli
151
Why is the ability to produce factor VIII from bacteria important?
because is eliminates the need to blood transfusions and the potental spread of BBPs.
152
What is PCR ?
Polymerace chain reaction
it is used to amplify gene segments of DNA
It is a copy machine for genetic information. It uses nucleotides, enzymes, and other nutrients to replicate dna fragments to detectable levels.
153
How is PCR used?
Early detection of disease
| Amplification of DNA in forensic samples
154
Explain the process of PCR
The genetic information is amplified, isolated and then tested via Electrophoresis against a control.
155
What is DNA hybridization test?
Uses a known segment as a contol.
the know segment is tagged with a radioactive label.
the know segment is combined with the unknow segment.
the combination is then tested via xray. the radioactive segments will show up dark on the xray.
If the two segments combined then the xray will be completely dark. if they didn't combined then the xray will be spotted
156
Explain restriction fragment length polymorphism
DNA fingerprinting
used to identify unknown microbe, forensics, and paternity tests.
Tests the number of segments after restriction enzymes are used to cut the DNA segments
157
What does DNA fingerprinting assume?
That each individual has a unique sequence of nucleotide's in dna
158
what are the steps in restriction fragment length polymorphism
DNA is isolated
Denatured
Cut
and electro gelled
159
Define a disease
an abnormal physiological process brought by a continuous irritation of a primary
160
How are diseased expressed.
via symptoms
161
What are symptoms?
outward manifestation of disease
162
what are "signs"
evidence of the presence of a pathogen
163
What is a syndrome?
combonation of signs and symptoms
164
what is a pathogen?
any microbe that can cause disease
165
what is contamination?
the mere presence of microbes on tissues ot objects
166
What is infection?
growth and multiplication of microbes or pathogens on the body with or without disease production
167
What is a non-innfectious dissease?
A disease caused by abiotic factors. aka. pollution, genetics, hormones, dificiencies
168
what is an infectious disease.
a disease caused by pathogensnic microbes
| can either be communicable or non comminocable
169
What are the steps in pathenogenesis?
Penetration (adherence)
Colonization
Invasion
productions of toxins
170
What part of the microbes are involved in adhernce
it adheres via finmriae and pili
171
What are the four main portals of entry for pathogenic
Intact skin
wound
mucous membranes
Natural openings
172
what is colonization?
the growth of microbes on epi tissue
173
what is invasion?
When microbes establish residence in the host
174
severity of disease depends on a degree of what?
invasion
175
How do bacteria cause disease?
| 4 ways
Direct action
Production of toxins
production of enzymes
Production of acids
176
What is direct action in bacteria disease
they can leach nutrients from host cells and block off circulation
177
What are the two types of toxins that bacteria can produce.
endotoxins
and
exotoxins
178
What organisms produce endo toxins
all gram negative via the lipid A endotoxins
179
What organisms produce exotoxins
mostly gam + and a few gram -
180
where is exotoxin produced?
extracellular, secreted outside of cells
181
Where is endotoxin produced?
within cells. its bound inside the cell walls and are released during lysis
182
What are the main types of enzymes produced by bacteria.
HLHCK
```
Hemolysins
leukocidins
Hyaluronidease
Coagulases
Kinases
```
183
What are the two types of hemolysins?
Alpha- partial hemolysis
and
Beta- Complete hemolysis
184
What are leukocindins.
damage to white blood cells called neutrophils
185
What are hyalurondase's
they digest hyaluronic acid which is responsible for holding cells together
186
what are coagulases?
they cause accelerated blood clotting and can create walls of clotted blood to protct themselves
187
What are kinases?
the opposite of coagulases.
| they digest fibrin and disolve clots
188
What is endotoxic shock?
An allergic reaction caued by the lycing of gram - bacteria . when the gram negative bacteria die, they release their endotoxin.
189
What is the chemical composition of exotoxins?
polypeptides/proteins
190
What is the chemical composition of endotoxin?
lipopolysaccharides
191
What are the two ways fingoi can harm you?
Direct tissue damage
production of toxins
production of enzymes
192
How can fungi cause direct tissue damage?
growth and multiplication on host tissues and leaching nutreants from the host
193
What is dermatomycoses?
fungal skin diseases
194
What are some of the affects of fungi toxins?
loss of muscle coordination, tremors, weight loss, hallucinations
195
Why are disorders caused by fungi toxins not considered a fungal disease? what are they caalled instead?
Because they are similar to a drug overdose and need to be ingested to cause the negative effects
196
what are three types of fungal toxins?
Aflatoxin-liver toxin
ergot-ergotism
and mushroom toxi-inhibit rna polymerase
197
How do fungal enzymes affect host tissue?
they degrade *digest* host tissues
198
What are the three ways protozoa and helminths cause disease?
Direct feeding on tissues
production of toxic metabolic wastes
migration to vital organs
199
What are the 6 steps in the course of infection?
| IPIADC
```
Incubation
Prodromal
Invasive
Acme
Decline
Convalescence
```
200
What are the two main transmission phases in the 6 steps of infection?
incubation
| convalescence
201
What is the incubation period?
The time between infection and the apperance of disease
202
What is the length of the incubation phase?
depends on the path. 2 years to decades
203
What is the prodromal phase?
Short period of non-specific symptoms
| not present in all diseases
204
What is the invasive phase?
the period when specific signs and symptoms occur
205
what is the acme phase?
the critical stage, the time when symptoms are most severe
206
what is the decline phase?
When host defenses overcome the pathogen and symptomms begin to subside
207
WHat is the convalescence phase?
the period of recovery
tissue repair begins
symptoms subside but patient is still contagious
208
What are the three main reservoirs of infections?
Human reservoir
animals reservoir
non-living reservoirs
209
WHat is a disease with a human reservoir?
AIDS STD's
210
How many pathogens can be transmitted from animal reservoirs?
at least 150
211
What is a ZOONOSES?
a term for a disease transmitted to humans via animal reservoir
212
What are the three main non-living reservoirs?
| What is found in each?
Soil-Tetanus, anthrax, botulism
Water-contaminated with coliforms
food-parasites, coliforms
213
What are the three mechanisms of disease transmission?
by Contact
by vehicles
by vectors
214
What are the two types of direct contact transmission?
Horizontal
| Vertical
215
What is horizontal contact transmission?
transmission via contact with a neighoring individual or animal *hand shake, kissing, SEXUAL ACTIVITIES, animal bites*
216
What is vertical contact transmission?
diseases passed from parent to offspring
217
What are fomites?
non living objects contaminated with pathogens
218
What is indirect contact transmission?
transmission via fomites
| clothing, dishes, bar soad, money
219
What is droplet transmission?
transmission via aerosols
ONLY AT A DISTANCES OF 1meter or less from source
*sneezing*
220
What are the four forms of vehicle transmission?
Water-borne
Air-borne
Food-borne
other
221
what is water borne transmission?
transmission via drinking contaminated water
222
What is air-borne transmission?
Occurs at a distance of 1+ meters
Occurs when bacteria/pathogens combind with dust particles and float on the air
*streptococcus and staphylococcus*
223
What is food-borne transmission??
contaminated food via processing and improper storage
224
What are some other vehicles of transmission?
blood, body fluids
225
What are the two types of vectors?
Mechanical
| biological
226
WHat are vectors?
small living things that carry pathogens and transmit diseases
227
What are mechanical vectors
vectors that passivly transmit pathogens via feet and bodies
228
What are biological vectors?
vectors that transmit diseases via bites
paths usually complete parts of their lifecycle inside vectors
example-malaria
