MICRO FINAL EXAM Flashcards
(284 cards)
1
Q
Microbiology is the study of ____ organisms and ___biological entities too small to be seen without the aid of a microscope
A
Living, acellular
2
Q
you have a single bacterial cell in fresh nutrient broth. This species has a genetration time of 20 minutes. After 100 minutes, how many cells will be present?
A
32
3
Q
which genus of bacteria lacks a cell wall and has a pleomorphic shape?
A
mycoplasma
4
Q
who was credited for disproving the “Theory of spontaneous generation” and demonstrated fermentation by microorganisms?
A
Louis Pasteur
5
Q
all are differential stains except for the
a. gram stain
b. acid fast stain
c. endospore stain
d. capsile stain
e. simple stain
A
simple stain
6
Q
which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane?
a. selectively allows passage of molecules into and out of the cell
b. protects against changes in osmotic pressure
c. contains enzymes for cell wall synthesis
d. is the location for enzymes used in energy production
e.serves as the DNA anchor during binary fission
A
protects against changes in osmotic pressure
7
Q
In a hypertonic solution, cells with a cell wall will lose water causing shrinkage. This condition is called ____. Although the whole cell does not collapse, this event can still damage and even kill many kinds of cells.
A
plasmolysis
8
Q
which statement is false as it pertains to microorganisms in our world and their impact?
a.majority of microbes are pathogenic
b. they are medically important in the production of antibitotics and drugs
c.microbes provide oxygen and are the foundation of several food webs
d.they are used to produce bread, wine, and cheese
e. all statements are true
A
majority of microbes are pathogenic
9
Q
this statistical procedure utilizes lactose broth to estimate the number of viable microorganisms in a sample of water which may be contaiminated with feces.
A
most probable number
10
Q
the study of organizing, classifying, and naming living organisms is
A
taxonomy
11
Q
intracellular storage bodies that vary in size, number, content, and used when environmental nutrient sources are depleted are called
A
inclusions
12
Q
who used a handheld microscope to view the first microorganism which he referred to as “animalcules”?
A
Antione van Leeuwenhoek
13
Q
Streptococcus pyogenes is the causitive agent of strep throat. What is the arrangement of this bacterial species?
A
round cells in chains
14
Q
the 5 kingdoms (animalia, plantae, protista, monera, and fungi) were introduced by
A
robert whittaker
15
Q
most human pathogens are ___ based on their temperatue needs
A
mesophiles
16
Q
_____ media contain one or more agents that inhibit the growth of some microbes and encourage the growth of desired microbes
A
selective
17
Q
the domain bacteria
a. are unicellular prokaryotes with smaller rRNA
B. have peptidoglycan in their cell walls
c. are true bacteria, and some are human pathogens
d. only A and B are correct
e. A, B, and C, are correct
A
A, B, and C are correct
18
Q
_____ is the movement of water through a semipermeable membrane from low to high solute concentration.
A
osmosis
19
Q
_____ determined the causative agents for tuberculosis and anthrax
A
Robert Koch
20
Q
all living things are made up of one or multiple cells that share common characteristics except for:
a. basic shape
b. cytoplasm surrounded by a membrane
c. chromosome (s)
d. ribosomes
e. membrane-bound organelles
A
membrane-bound organelles
21
Q
living microbes consist of ____
A
bacteria, archaea, protoza, fungi and helminths
22
Q
the ability to enlarge the image of an object when compared to the real object size is called
A
magnification
23
Q
the site of protein synthesis
A
ribosomes
24
Q
which microbiological field of study is incorrectly paired
a. bacteriology; bacteria
b. mycology; fungi
c. protozoology; protozoa
d. phycology; algae
e.none of the above
A
none of the above
25
you have 4 bacterial cells in a fresh medium. This species generation time is 15 minutes. after 90 minutes how many cells will be present?
256
26
when using a microscope, the ability to tell two points or objects are separate is referred to as the
resolving power
27
which of the 6 "I's" involves macroscopically evaluating bacterial growth and microscopically obtaining results from staining?
inspection
28
a cell lacking a wall in a solution with a lower solute concentration will ___ water and this solution is referred to as ___.
gain; hypotonic
29
during this phase of growth, bacterial cells adjust to their new environment and synthesize new molecules without an increase in the number of living cells.
lag
30
the testing of microbial cultures for biochemical and enzymatic characteristics along with drug sensitivity, immunologic reactions, and genetic makeup is referred to as
information gathering
31
____ performed the first environment to refute sponatneous generation demonstrating maggots could only form when flies were allowed to lay eggs on meat.
Francesco Redi
32
___ is the lowest temperatue that permits a microbe's growth and metabolism.
minimum temperature
33
free small circular extrachromosomal pieces of DNA that are not essential to bacterial growth and metabolism.
plasmid
34
the ___ states that mitochondria and chloroplasts found in eukaryotic cells each derived from an ancestral cell engulfing bacteria.
endosymbiotic theory
35
the ____ determines cell shape and prevents lysis due to changes in osmotic pressure
cell wall
36
are found only in gram-negative bacteria and are used for attachment to other bacteria to exchange DNA during conjugation.
Pili
37
counting the number of bacterial cells in a specific volume of liquid culture using a Petroff-Hausser chamber is referred to as
direct microscope cell count
38
____ is a process by which chemical substances are acquired from the environment and used in cellular activities such as metabolism and growth
nutrition
39
____ are produced when some bacteria are exposed to adverse environmental conditions. They are highly resistance and have long-term survival.
endospores
40
based on their oxygen requirement, these microbes will grow throughout a tube of thioglycolate media with more growth in the tube correlating to where the oxygen concentration is the greatest.
faculative anaerobes
41
___ is the coating of molecules external to the cell wall made of sugars and/or protein. They aid in cell attachment and protect the cell against phagocytosis by white blood cells.
capsule
42
these organisms use organic molecules for energy and as a carbon source.
chemoheterotrophs
43
__ are threadlike locomotor appendages extending outward from the plasma membrane and cell wall.
flagella
44
plants and bacteria that use sunlight from their energy source and carbon dioxide for their carbon source are
photoautotrophs
45
the ___ is a dense gelatinous solution which serves as a solvent for materials used in cell functions and most chemical reactions occur here.
cytoplasm
46
an unknown bacterial species is placed in a tube of thioglycolate medium. After incubating for 24 hours, the growth forms a single ring a few millimeters below the surface. This unknown is likely a (an)
microaerophile
47
____ is a complex polysaccharide isolated from red algae used to solidify media first used in Robert Koch's lab
Agar
48
this type of media allows the growth of several types of microbes and displays visible differences among those microbes
differential
49
microorganisms communicate and cooperate in the formation and function of biofilms by
quorum sensing
50
which of the following have internal flagella called endoflagella?
a. Spirilli
b. Spirochetes
c. Vibrios
d. Cocci
e. Bacilli
spirochetes
51
for a straight run the flagella spins clockwise and counterclockwise for a tumble. true or false
false
52
wet mounts and hanging drop mounts allow the examination of living cells. true or false
true
53
halophiles live in a high salt concentration. T or F
true
54
the suffix "phile" means nourishment.
True or False
false
55
true or false
placing immersion oil directly on the slide before using the oil immersion lens reduces the resolving power
false
56
true or false
the prefix "hetero" means other
true
57
true or false
the 8 taxa for classifying organisms arranged from teh broadest to the most specific rank is represented as : species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, and domain
false
58
true or false
Dr. Ignaz Semmelweis correlated infections with physicians coming directly from the autopsy room to the maternity ward.
true
59
true or false
commensalism is a symbiotic relationship in which both members benefit
false
60
true or false
the flagellar arrangement that consists of 2 flagella on opposite ends of the cell is called amphitrichous
true
61
true or false
to maintain a viable culture, bacteria should be transferred to new media during the log and stationary phases of growth
true
62
true or false
a slime layer is a glycocalyx that is firmly attached to the cell
false
63
true or false
a protein is an example of a macronutrient
false
64
true or false
nomenclature is assigning names to living organisms
true
65
true or false
viruses are acellular biological entities composed of protein and nucleic acid
true
66
true or false
viroids are infectious proteins
false
67
true or false
Diplococci are a pair of rod shaped bacterial cells
false
68
true or false
catalase is an example of an enzyme produced by microbes to neutralize a reactive oxygen species
true
69
true or false
during binary fission, septation begins when proteins constrict the cell in the center to promote cytokinesis
true
70
true or false
microbial antagonism is when some microbes are inhibited or destroyed by other microbes by competition.
true
71
identify the temperature classifications in order from lowest temp to highest temp
psychotrophs, mesophiles, thermophiles, hyperthermophiles
72
what is the temperature range for mesophiles
15c - 45c
73
____ nutrients contain carbon and hydrogen atoms and are usually the products of living things
organic
74
_____ proposed postulates to show specific disease is contributed to a specific microbe, "one microbe, one disease"
Robert Koch
75
_____ like a pH range from 5.5 to 8.5
neutrophils
76
____ cultures have more than one microbe growing in sample or culture media
mixed
77
when staining in the laboratory, you need to use a _____ charged dye to color the bacterial cells which are normally transperant or colorless.
positive
78
the ____ is the time from initial contact with an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptoms.
incubation period
79
what toxin is responsible for scalded skin syndrome?
exfoliative toxin
80
____ is the type of horizontal gene transfer that happens when a bacterial cell takes up naked DNA from the environment released from a lysed cell.
transformation
81
which term best describes the chemical reactions that release energy while the bonds of larger molecules are broken to form smaller molecules?
catabolism
82
according to the central dogma in biology, which of the following represents the flow of genetic information in cells?
DNA to RNA to protein
83
the degree of pathogenicity of an infectious agent is referred to as
virulence
84
a localized Staphylococcal infection most common in newborns and is characterized by bubble-like swellings that can break and peel away.
impetigo
85
which inhibitor reduces enzyme activity by binding to an allosteric site located outside of the active site?
a. competitive inhibitor
b. noncompetitive inhibitor
c. allosteric inhibitor
d. allosteric activator
e. two of the above
two of the above
noncompetitive inhibitor
allosteric inhibitor
86
all the following organs should remain sterile except for the
a. brain
b. heart
c. skin
d. lungs
e. bladder
skin
87
ATP is formed by all except
a. substrate level phosphorylation
b. oxidative phosphorylation
c. photophosphorylation
d. dephosphorylation
e. all the above are mechanisms used to form ATP
dephosphorylation
88
the full collection of genes a cell contains within its genome is called the
genotype
89
which of the following is likely the cause of endocarditis after an intensive dental procedure?
a. staphylococcus agalactiae
b. streptococcus pneumoniae
c. streptococcus pyogenes
d. streptococcus mutans
e. all the above
streptococcus mutans
90
___ are virulence factors that chemically break down or dissolve host's barriers and promote the spread of microbes to deeper tissues.
exoenzymes
91
which enzyme adds nucleotides to make the new complementary strand of DNA alongside the parental strand?
DNA polymerase III
92
A large deep lesion created by the aggregation and interconnection of furuncles is a
carbuncle
93
what is the most common organic molecule utilized by human pathogens to produce cellular energy?
glucose
94
__ are subjective and are felt or experienced by the patient and cannot be objectively measured.
symptoms
95
which of the following pathogens produces the most virulence factors and antibiotic resistance?
a. streptococcus pyogenes
b.enterococcus faecalis
c. neisseria menigitidis
d.staphylococcus aureus
e. streptococcus pneumoniae
staphylococcus aureus
96
the science of genetics explores:
a. the transmission of biological properties (traits) from parent to offspring
b. the expression and variation of those traits
c. the structure and function of genetic material
d. evolution
e. all of the above
all of the above
97
ATP is the energy currency of the cell and is a three-part molecule. which is not a part of this molecule?
a.adenine
b. ribose
c. phosphate groups
d. deoxyribose
e. two of the above
deoxyribose
98
when an infectious agent is passed along by water, air, or food, this type of transmission is referred to as
vehicle transmission
99
which of the following refers to the mechanism of horizontal gene transfer naturally responsible for the spread of antibiotic resistance genes of a R plasmid through a pilus?
conjugation
100
___ can infect an infant when passing though the birth canal and can cause pneumonia, sepsis, meningitis?
streptococcus agalactiae
101
The physical, chemical, and mechanical methods to destroy reduce undesirable microbes in a given area
Decontamination
102
Antibiotics are common metabolic products of aerobic bacteria such as
Streptomyces
103
A cystic fibrosis patient was admitted to the hospital due to a respiratory infection. The suspected pathogen was a Gram-negative bacillus that produced a greenish-blue pigment on Mueller Hinton agar. the likely suspect is
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
104
Gas gangrene is caused by
Clostridium perfringens
105
Identify a mechanism by which microbes acquire drug resistance by the acquisition of new genes or sets of genes via transfer from another species (horizontal gene transfer)
a.spontanueous mutation
b. transformation
c. induced mutation
d. transduction
e. two of the above
two of the above
transduction/transformation
106
Which term best describes an agent that will kill microbes
Microbicidal
107
Major side effects in 5% of all persons taking antimicrobials will include (name 4 things)
Tissue damage, allergic reactions, superinfections, tissue toxicity
108
Which of the following microbes would you expect to be at the most difficult to kill with routine methods of disinfection?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Escherichia coli
d. Vibrio cholera
e. Proteus vulgaris
Clostridium tetani
109
Which antiviral drug inhibits the enzyme reverse transcriptase?
AZT
110
A non-coliform member of the large group of enteric bacteria referred to as Enterobacteriaceae
Proteus
111
This method for controlling microbial growth on fomites will eliminate all vegetative cells, endospores, and viruses
Sterilization
112
A 4-year-old boy from Central America recently arrived in the US with his parents. After a few week, he experiences a sore throat, fever, swollen glands and weakness. Upon physical examination, the doctor notices a gray layer covering the back of his throat resembling a pseudomembrane. What pathogen is the likely culprit of this boy's illness?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
113
The amount of medication given during a certain time interval
Dosage
114
Which toxin causes inflammation and loss of the ciliary mechanism in the respiratory tract leading to mucus buildup and blockage of the airways resulting in a distinctive whooping cough?
Pertussis
115
What is the action of tetanospasmin
causes a rigid paralysis by blocking a neurotransmitter for muscular contraction inhibition
116
Antimicrobial drugs target (name 4 things)
cell wall, protein synthesis, metabolic pathways, nucleic acid synthesis
117
A fastidious Gram-negative bacillus species that causes acute meningitis, pneumonia, and conjunctivitis
Haemophilus influenzae
118
Pathogenic types of this enteric bacillus can cause infantile, traveler's and bloody diarrheal diseases
Escherichia
119
Hand washing is an example of ___ decontamination
mechanical
120
What are 3 facts of Leprosy
-it likes to grow at 30 degrees C
-the major forms are tuberculoid and lepromatous leprosy
-it is a chronic progressive disease of skin and nerves
121
All are factors that influence the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent
-Exposure time
-concentration the agent
-number of organisms
-pH of the environment
122
Which clinical stage of tuberculosis is characterized by the dissemination of bacilli to regional lymph nodes, kidneys, long bones, genital tract, brain, and meninges?
Extrapulmonary
123
Microbes use several different strategies to develop drug resistance. The possession of genes which code for enzymes that chemically modify an antimicrobial agent is called
drug modification or inactivation
124
The genera of human pathogens that produce endospores include
Bacillus and Clostridium
125
Which term best describes the application of an antimicrobial chemical to reduce the microbes on skin or tissue
Antiseptic
126
What bacteria's are classified as an unevenly staining non-spore forming Gram-positive bacilli
Coynebacterium, Propionibacterium, Mycobacterium, Nocardia
127
This pathogen lives inside of amoebas in natural waters and inside of white blood cells in the human body. It is acquired when susceptible individuals inhales contaminated moist droplets from natural water reservoirs
Legionella pneumophila
128
A non-coliform cause of dysentery and HUS which is acquired by ingesting contaminated food or water
Shigella
129
____ discovered the first antibiotic, penicillin, in 1948
Alexander Fleming
130
The gradual removal of water from cells which leads to metabolic inhibition is referred to as
desiccation
131
Pregnant women are 10X more likely to be infected with this pathogen when consuming contaminated dairy products, poultry, and meat which can have detrimental effects on a fetus
Listeria monocytogenes
132
The antibacterial drug is used to treat active Salmonella typhi infections and asymptomatic carriers
Fluoroquinolones
133
This antibiotic can be used to treat UTIs and is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim
Bactrim
134
Detergents are
Surfactants
135
The standard temperature-pressure combination for an autoclave is
121 degrees C and 15 psi
136
All members of the penicillin family consist of the following
Thiazolidine ring
beta-lactam ring
variable side chain
137
The antibiotic targets the bacterial cell membrane and is historically used for bowel decontamination before a gastric procedure
Colistin
138
This pathogen is usually responsible for foodborne illness associated with consumption of home canned vegetables contaminated with endospores
Clostridium botulinum
139
Examples of moist heat methods of decontamination
boiling, autoclaving, pasteurization, UHT
140
Asymptomatic carriers of Salmonella typhi shed the bacilli from their
gall bladder
141
This pathogen is often the culprit of antibiotic-associated colitis
Clostridium difficile
142
This physical method of decontamination is used to sterilize materials sensitive to heat and chemicals and is often referred to as cold sterilization
Ionizing radiation
143
This product is used for a "lunch hour face lift"
Botox
144
The causative agent of the bubonic, pneumonic, and septicemic plague
Yersinia pestis
145
Which antibiotics target the 30S ribosomal subunit except for
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Streptomycin
c. Tobramycin
d. Doxycycline
e. Tetracycline
Chloramphenicol
146
At a high concentration, this chemical agent is an effective sterilant
hydrogen peroxide
147
Most antifungal drugs target this cellular structure to prevent toxicity to human cells
cell membrane
148
This gas is an approved chemical sterilizing agent
Ethylene oxide
149
What is the action of the botulin toxin
causes a flaccid paralysis by inhibiting acetylcholine release in the neuromuscular junction
150
This Gram-negative bacillus causes a sexually transmitted infection (STI) characterized by a chance in hot tropical climates such as African and Asian countries and is recognized as a major cause of non-sexually transmitted cutaneous ulcers among children in these regions
Haemophilus ducreyi
151
Penicillins and cephalosporins interfere with
cell wall synthesis
152
Cutaneous anthrax is characterized by a small papule called
black eschar
153
Pigs are often vaccinated to prevent the spread of this pathogen which causes a specific type of cellulitis
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
154
This vector-borne pathogen causes rabbit fever and is endemic to the northern hemisphere
Francisella tularensis
155
True of False
The major virulence factor for Corynebacterium diphtheriae is an exotoxin that destroys healthy respiratory tissue (epithelial cells)
True
156
True of False
Heavy metals dissolved in alcohol and used as antiseptics are referred to as tinctures
True
157
True of False
The paroxysmal stage of whooping cough is characterized by the recurrent coughing fits of 10-20 coughs that produces the characteristic "whoop" sound
True
158
True of False
The E-test diffusion test determines both susceptibility and minimum inhibitory concentration
True
159
True of False
All members of the Enterobacteriaceae family ferment both glucose and lactose
False
160
True of False
All chemotherapeutic agents that kill or inhibit the growth of microorganism are antibiotics
False
161
True of False
During primary tuberculosis, it is common for patients to experience violent coughing episodes accompanied with bloody sputum
False
162
True of False
Leprosy is a communicable disease, however approximately 95% of the human population have natural immunity
True
163
True of False
The use of broad-spectrum antibiotics has contributed to the increased number of drug resistant pathogens
True
164
True of False
There are 4 generations of cephalosporin type drugs with each group being more effective against Gram-negative bacteria and has an improved dosing schedule with fever side effects
True
165
The therapeutic index for a chemotherapeutic drug with a toxic dose of 30ug/mL and a minimum inhibitory concentration of 2ug/mL is ____
15ug/mL
166
_____ is the "new" vaccine recommended by the CDC, contains Pertussis toxoid instead of the attenuated whole cell, and children are required to have 5 doses
DTaP
167
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli acquired the Shiga toxin by
Transduction
168
Halogens such as iodine and _____ are the active ingredients in nearly 1/3 of all antimicrobial chemicals currently being marketed
Chlorine
169
List 2 of the 4 drugs commonly used in the treatment and management of Tuberculosis
Rifampin & Isoniazid
170
The innate immune system is considered the 1st and 2nd lines of defense against pathogenic organism. What is part of the 2nd line of defense?
Phagocytosis, Complement, Inflammation, Neutrophils
171
What are the secondary lymphoid organ or tissue
lymph nodes, tonsil, peyer's patches, spleen
172
What is the correct order of steps for the viral lytic replication cycle (phase) are:
Attachment, penetration, synthesis, assembly, and release
173
T lymphocyte maturation occurs by 3 steps in the following order?
T cells receive a T cell receptor that will recognize antigen,
Test whether the T cell receptor will react appropriately with MHC molecules,
Removal of T cells that react to self-molecules
174
What is used to classify viruses
Naked or Enveloped
DNA or RNA
Double/Single stranded genomes
Segmented/non-segmented genomes
175
This signaling molecule is secreted to reduce protein synthesis in neighboring cells during a viral infection (the most specific answer)
Interferons
176
Theses vaccines expose an individual to a weakened strain of the pathogen with the goal of establishing a subclinical infection that will activate the adaptive immune response
Live attenuated
177
Mast cells and basophils release this molecule to promote vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, contraction of smooth muscles, and to increase mucus secretion
Histamine
178
When influenza pandemic occur, it is most likely to involve which combination below
Flu A; antigenic shift
179
This cancer in children is of B-cell original and is associated with a prior infection with the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis
Burkitt's lymphoma
180
This leukocyte is the most numerous in the blood and is highly important in the response against bacterial pathogens
Neutrophils
181
Harvoni, 1 pill a days for 12-24 weeks, is a treatment for
Hepatitis C
182
The causative agent of chickenpox
Varicella
183
Which is referred to as infectious hepatitis and is acquired through contaminated food and water?
Hepatitis A
184
This antibody is the most prevalent in body fluids, the second antibody produced by plasma cells, and is produced by memory B cells providing long term immunity
IgG
185
What are all the mechanical defenses designed to remove pathogens from the body to prevent them from taking up residence?
Phagocytosis
186
What are the benefits associated with fever during inflammation?
Prevents the nutrition of bacteria by reducing the availability of iron
Enhances the innate immune defenses by stimulating leukocytes to kill pathogens
Inhibits multiplication of heat sensitive microbes
187
The adaptive line of defense can quickly respond to pathogens previously encountered because of __
memory
188
Ocular herpes causes inflammation of eye which results in a gritty feeling in the eye, conjunctivitis, sharp pain, and sensitivity to light. This infection is called __?
herpetic keratitis
189
Which of the following is a single stranded DNA virus family?
Parvoviruses
190
These cells kill by secreting perforins to create pores in infected cells and granzymes which enter these pores and cause the cells to die by apoptosis
T cytotoxic & Natural killer cells
191
What are true statements concerning viruses
The capsid together with the nucleic acid is the nucleocapsid
Not all viruses posses an envelope
Most viruses have a limited host range
The viral envelope is derived for the host cell membrane
192
The antigen presenting cells include?
B lymphocyte, Macrophage, Dendritic cell
193
This vaccine only exposes the individual to key antigens of a pathogen produced either by chemically degrading a pathogen and isolating key antigens or producing antigens via genetic engineering
subunit
194
A severely immunocompromised patient is no longer able to produce an appropriate cell-mediated or humoral immune response. Being both branches of adaptive immunity are impacted, which cell type is likely dysfunctional?
T helper cells
195
If an individual had an autoimmune disease that destroyed or blocked several complement proteins, which protective mechanism of the immune response would not likely change?
Iron restriction
196
The viral agent associated with Kaposi sarcoma is
herpesvirus 8
197
Leukocytes in the blood or tissues are formed elements classified as granulocytes or agranulocytes. Which are granulocytes?
Neutrophils, Basophils, Eosinophils, Mast cells
198
The poxvirus responsible for smallpox is
variola
199
During her annual pap smear, Sarah's physician noticed a large cauliflower like growth on the genitalia. Sarah is most likely infected with __?
HPV
200
What are the 5 common red rashes in children
roseola
201
electrons are lost in ___ reactions and gained in ___ reactions.
oxidation; reduction
202
bacterial DNA is transferred to a recipient cell by a bacteriophage during
transduction
203
which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?
streptococcus pneumoniae
204
____ contact trainsmission occurs when an infectious agent passes to a new host from an inanimate object called a fomite.
indirect
205
which of the following is incorrect concerning enzyme structure and function?
a. is a biological catalyst
b. is permenantly altered in a chemical reaction
c. binds to specific substrates
d. is sensitive to changes in temperature
e. all the above are incorrect
is permanently altered in a chemical reaction
206
which part of the lipopolysaccharide endotoxin is responsible for its toxic properties?
lipid A
207
which of the following is not a stage of pathogenesis?
a. systemic
b. exposure
c. adhesion
d. invasion
e. infection
systemic
208
in the elderly, this microorganism is a major cause of nosocomial infections such as blood, wound, endocarditis, and UTIs
Enterococcus faecalis
209
which of the following is not a characteristic of a coenzyme?
a. large and organic
b.usually part of a vitamin
c. participates directly in the chemical reaction
d. removes functional groups from a substrate and acts as a carrier
e. all are characteristics of a coenzyme
participates directly in the chemical reaction
210
an exotoxin that lyses red blood cells is a
hemotoxin
211
these organisms use organic molecules for energy and as a carbon source
chemoheterotrophs
212
there are many circumstances under which aerobic respiration is not possible, including any one or more the following
a. the cell lacks genes encoding an appropriate cytochrome oxidase for transferring electrons to oxygen at the end of the electron transport system
b. the cell lacks genes encoding enzymes to minimize the severely damaging effects of dangerous oxygen radicals produced during aerobic respiration
c. the cell acks enough oxygen to carry out aerobic respiration
d. A and C
e. A, B, and C
A, B, and C
213
the __ of a disease is the accumulated total of existing cases with respect to the entire population.
prevalence
214
which one of the following does not aid in bacterial adhesion during phagogenesis?
a. flagella
b. fimbriae
c. glycocalyx
d. cilia
e. two of the above
cilia
215
which of the following statements about complementary base pairing in DNA is incorrect?
a.purines pair with pyrimidines
b.adenine binds to guanine
c.base pairs are stabalized by hydrogen bonds
d. base pairing occurs at the interior of the double helix
e. cytosine binds to guanine
adenine binds to guanine
216
when a disease occasionally occurs and is reported at irregular intervals, it is described as a
sporadic occurrence
217
impetigo can be caused by
staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus pyogenes
218
the replicon model of bacterial chromosome replicatoin consists of the following in correct order
a. initiation, termination, and elongation
b. initiation, replication, and termination
c. replication, initation, and elongation
d. initiation, elongation, and termination
e. none of the above
initation, elongation, and termination
219
all are true concerning Staphylococcus aureus except
a. carriage rate for healthy adults is 20-60%
b.withstands high salt, extreme pH, and high temperatures
c. can produce enterotoxins
d. have small and non-pigmented colonies
e.is a faculative anaerobe
have small and nonpigmented colonies
220
A (n)___ pathogen is one that invades the tissues when the body defenses are supressed.
opportunistic
221
whoch stage (period) of an infectious disease is described by the patient's immune system overcoming a microbe, the fading of symptoms, and the returing of normal body fucntions?
convalescent
222
which of the following is not a common cause of bacterial meningitis?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Neisseria influenzae
d. Haemophilus influenzae
e. Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pyogenes
223
a small punture wound on a woman's arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and intenely painful. there is tissue necrosis, but it is not gassy. Under the microscope Gram-positive cocci in chains are observed. which of the following microbes is likey to be responsible?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Clostridium perfringens
e. Staphylococcus epidermidis
Streptococcus pyogenes
224
which of the following is not a virulence factor for Neiserria meningitidis?
a. capsule
b. adhesive fimbriae
c. IgA protease
d. endotoxin
e. Exotoxin B
Exotixin B
225
a localized infection of the skin caused by Streptococcus pyogenes that is more common in the elderly:
erysipelas
226
all are true concering glycolysis except for:
a. occurs in the cytoplasm for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
b. begins with a single glucose molecule and ends with two molecules pyruvate
c.involves an energy investment phase and an energy payoff pahse
d. requires oxygen
e.all the above are true
requires oxygen
227
Sequelae such as rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis which occur after a strep throat infection are due to
autoimmune response
228
when a new complementary strand of DNA is constructed alongside the parental strand of DNA, this is refered to as __ replication
semiconservative
229
all are tue concerning the Krebs cycle excpet for
a. occurs in the cytoplasma of the prokaryotic cell
b. a bridge reaction muct occur first to convert the pyrivuc acid from glycolysis into Acetyl CoA
c. two Acetyl CoA enter the krebs cycle
d. one acetyl CoA is needed for each turn of the wheel
e. all are true
all are true
230
which of the following is not an example of a microorganism that commonly makes up the normal flora of the large intestine
a. Bacteroids
b. Bifidobacterium
c.Clostridium
d. Haemophilus
e. Escherichia coli
haemophilus
231
which enzyme separates the two parental strands in the double helix at the origin of replication?
helicase
232
true or false
Uracil is a nitrogen base in DNA
False
233
true or false
A chromosome is subdivided into genes which are the fundamental units of heredity
true
234
true or false
Group A Streptococcus or (GAS) refers to Streptococcus pneumoniae
flase
235
true or false
a disease is a condition in which pathogenic microorganisms penetrate the host defenses, enters tissues and multiply
false
236
true or false
carbohydrates carry out most cellular functions and are built using the information in DNA and RNA
false
237
true or false
constitutive genes are expressed due to environmental signals
false
238
Serum hepatitis is acquired through blood transfusions, sex, and contaminated needles. Which virus causes this type of hepatitis?
Hepatitis B
239
During the acute inflammatory response, these cells clean up dead cells and tissue debris
Macrophages
239
This leukocyte is effective against protozoa and helminth infections
Eosinophils
240
This leukocyte matures in the bone marrow and is responsible for the production of antibodies that destroy extracellular pathogens and toxins.
B lymphocytes
241
Cells that have a CD8 molecule on their surface and are the primary effector cells of cellular immunity are called
T cytotoxic
242
All the following are true concerning B cell receptors (BCR)
BCR are antibodies of class IgD or IgM
The variable region binds to a specific antigen on a pathogen
BCR are involved in the first step of B-cell activation
243
This antibody is uncommon in blood unless one has an allergic reaction or parasitic worm infection stimulating the release of histamine.
IgE
244
A type of viral infection which is persistent, generally undetectable during its dormant phase, and reactivates to cause recurrent infections throughout the host's lifetime
Latent infection
245
Antibodies agglutinate bacteria by binding to epitopes on two or more bacteria simultaneously to prevent host cell binding. Which antibody class is typically responsible for this type of antibody antigen interaction?
IgM
246
The most prevalent cause of respiratory infections in children 6 months or younger and symptoms include croup, fever, rhinitis, pharyngitis, and otitis media.
Respiratory syncytial virus
247
The MMR vaccine is effective in protecting against this viruses
Mumps
Measles
Rubella
248
Epidemic parotitis is inflammation of one or both parotid salivary glands resulting in severally swollen face and/or neck. The causative agent is the __ virus.
Mumps
249
Oral lesions called Koplik spots are associated with
Measles
250
The __ virus is a progressive zoonotic disease characterized by a fatal meningoencephalitis.
Rabies
251
True of False
The immune system exists and functions as a single, well-defined site.
False
252
True of False
Lysozyme breaks down on peptidoglycan
True
253
True of False
Resident microbiota serve as an important first-line defense against invading pathogens
True
254
True of False
If a congenital rubella infection occurs during the first trimester of pregnancy, infants can be born with multiple defects such as cardiac abnormalities, ocular lesions, deafness, and retardation
True
255
True of False
T lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow
False
256
True of False
Oncogenic viruses can cause cancer
True
257
True of False
Lipids and nucleic acids are the most effective antigens
False
258
True of False
T cytotoxic cells only recognize antigen presented within the MHC I of antigen presenting cells
False
259
True of False
T helper 2 cells are important for B cell activation toward protein antigens
True
260
True of False
Opsonization is an antigen-antibody interaction that involves the binding of antibodies to the surface of pathogens or toxins thereby preventing their attachment to cells
False
261
True of False
Breastfeeding is an example of natural passive immunity by IgA in breast milk
True
262
True of False
Natural active immunity involves deliberately exposing a person to material that is antigenic but not pathogenic and is the foundation for vaccination
False
263
True of False
All viruses have capsids which are composed of capsomers
True
264
True of False
HHV-6 causes cervical and penile cancer
False
265
True of False
All cells in the blood are formed in the bone marrow
True
266
Phagocytes recognize pathogen molecular structures that are called
Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns
267
Natural killer cells are a type of ___ lymphocyte
T-cell
268
An __ that can stimulate a response by T and B cells is an immunogen
antigen
269
true or false
a pathogen can be transmitted during any of the periods or stages of an infectious disease
true
270
true or false
resident microbes only occupy the body for a short period of time
false
271
true or false
the more virulent a pathogen is the higher its infectous dose
false
272
true or false
Noscomial diseases or healthcare-associated infections are those acquired or developed during a hospital stay
true
273
true or false
vertical gene transmission is the transfer of genetic information from parent to daughter cells
true
274
true or false
The electron carrier nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) is identified as NADH in its oxidized form and NAD+ in its reduced form
false
275
true or false
A mechanical vector actively participates in a pathogen's life cycle when infected with the pathogen
false
276
true or false
Bacteremia is when a small number of bacteria is found in the blood
true
277
true or false
removal of the terminal phospate from ATP releases energy
true
278
name two of the most important molecules in genetics or gene expression
DNA, protein
279
fill in the blank
1. Glycolysis___ ATP
2. Krebs _______ATP
Electron Transport Chain
3. 2NADH (from gylosysis)=______ ATP
4. 8NADH (from krebs)=__________ATP
5. 2FADH2 (from krebs)=__________ATP
TOTAL ENERGY=________ATP
1. Glycolysis 2 ATP
2. Krebs 2 ATP
Electron Transport Chain
3. 2NADH (from gylosysis)=6 ATP
4. 8NADH (from krebs)=24 ATP
5. 2FADH2 (from krebs)=4 ATP
TOTAL ENERGY=38 ATP
280
what Streptococcal species is referred to as a Group B Streptococcus
Streptococcus agalactiae
281
name one bacterial genus or species that commnly causes bacteremia and septicemis
Staphylococcus aureus
282
Self-reacting lymphocytes that escape primary lymphoid organs are eliminated by __ T cells
regulatory
283
The influenza __ glycoprotein is the most important virulence factor permits host cell binding
hemagglutinin
