micro lab 3 7-9 Flashcards by Ashley Jones

Ehrlich

Developed a drug called salvarsan to treat

syphilis. Salvarsan was the first successful

antimicrobial drug.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Fleming

Accidentally discovered penicillin.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Florey

Led a team that completely separated

penicillin from the mold that makes it.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The first year they ever used antibiotics widespread:

1941

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Four classes of antibiotics:

1) Cell wall synthesis

    -how these drugs kill

    - 4 examples

These drugs kill bacteria by preventing or blocking

cell wall synthesis.

Examples: A P A V

 Ampicillin, Penicillin, Amoxicillin, Vancomycin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Four classes of antibiotics:

2) Protein synthesis

   -how these drugs kill bacteria

   -  3 examples

These drugs kill bacteria by preventing or blocking

 protein synthesis.

Examples: T E A

  Tetracycline,  Erythromycin, Azithromycin (Z pak)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Four classes of antibiotics:

3) Plasma membrane

       -how these drugs kill bacteria

       -  3 examples

These drugs kill bacteria by disrupting their

  plasma membrane.

Examples: P N Z

Polymyxin,  Nystatin,   Zyvox

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Four classes of antibiotics:

4) Nucleic acid synthesis

     -how these drugs kill bacteria

     -  2 examples

These drugs kill bacteria by preventing or blocking

 nucleic acid synthesis.

Examples: DNA/ RNA

  Actinomycin     Rifampin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Kirby-Bauer results chart: conclusion for

categories Resistant, Indeterminate,

Moderately Susceptible, Susceptible

Resistant: do not use that drug; it does not work

Indeterminate: we need more testing

Moderately Susceptible: the drug will work for the

patient if we can either: 1) use higher doses than

normal of the antibiotic safely, or 2) concentrate

the antibiotic in the body region of the infection.

Susceptible: use that drug; it works great

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

MIC: purpose of tubes 1-7

Test one antibiotic at seven different concentrations.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

MIC test: contents of tubes 1-7

nutrient broth, patient bacteria,

 antibiotic solution

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

MIC test: purpose of test tube 8

Make sure the patient bacteria were alive

to begin with.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

MIC test: contents of test tube 8:

nutrient broth, patient bacteria

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

MIC test: purpose of test tube 9

Make sure the antibiotic solution was

sterile and not contaminated.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

MIC test: contents of test tube 9

nutrient broth, antibiotic solution

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

MIC test: dose vs. MIC

Dose = MIC X 3

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is your conclusion for this MIC test? 1-9 tube number label 4 2 1 gc filed up

The results are valid and the MIC is 8 ug/mL.

The dose to give the patient would be 24 ug/mL.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is your conclusion for this MIC test? 1-9 tube number 4 2 1 label filled

Start over, the patient bacteria were dead to begin with.

(Test tube 8 is clear)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is your conclusion for this MIC test? tube 1-9 64, 32,16,8,4,2,1,gc label filled

The results are valid but the bacterium

must be resistant.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is your conclusion for this MIC test? tube 1-9 label ALL filled up

Start over, the antibiotic solution was contaminated.

(Test tube 9 is cloudy)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What percentage of our blood is plasma?

55%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What percentage of our blood is

formed elements (RBC, WBC, platelets)?

45%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What percentage of our plasma is water?

90%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What percentage of our plasma is dissolved substances?

10%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the main function of platelets?

blood clotting

Erythrocytes vs. Leukocytes: size

In most cases, a WBC (leukocyte) is 2 to 3 times larger than a RBC (erythrocyte).

RBC: primary function, relates to

The primary function of a RBC is to transport oxygen from our lungs out to our cells. This relates to the Electron transport step, which requires oxygen.

RBC: secondary function, relates to

The secondary function of a RBC is to transport carbon dioxide from our cells to our lungs to get rid of it. This relates to a step called the Krebs cycle, which produces a lot of carbon dioxide

WBC: general function

The general function of WBCs is to fight infection.

Does a RBC have a nucleus and DNA?

Does a WBC have a nucleus and DNA?

Yes

Hemoglobin: function

Hemoglobin is what oxygen molecules bind to in order to stay in a RBC and be transported around the body.

Arteries

Arteries always take blood away from the heart. The blood in arteries is almost always oxygen rich

Veins

Veins always take blood towards the heart. The blood in veins is almost always oxygen poor.

How many molecules of oxygen can each hemoglobin molecule carry?

How many molecules of hemoglobin does each RBC have?

about 200,000,000

How many molecules of oxygen can each RBC carry at the same time?

about 800,000,000

Total white count: 6,700/mm3 Conclusion?

within normal range

Total white count: 20,200/mm3 Conclusion?

best guess: infection

Total white count: 101,400/mm3

best guess: leukemia

Total white count: 2,300/mm3 Conclusion?

best guesses: 1) medications, 2) the patient needs blood thinners, 3) the patient has full-blown AIDS

WBC chart: Neutrophils %, function, if elevated

Neutrophils: %: 60-70 function: engulf bacteria only if elevated: best guess-bacterial infection

WBC chart: Lymphocytes %, function, if elevated

Lymphocytes: %: 20-30 function: take part in the immune system if elevated: best guess-viral infection

WBC chart: Monocytes %, function, if elevated

%: 4-10 function: become a macrophage and engulf bacteria and viruses if elevated: best guess- listeriosis

WBC chart: Eosinophils %, function, if elevated

%: 1-5 function: attack parasites; engulf antigen/antibody complexes if elevated: best guesses- allergic reaction or a parasite infection

WBC chart: Basophils %, function, if elevated

%: .5 - 1 function: release histamine if elevated: best guess- leukemia

Diagram: differential white count WBC % Neutrophils 51 Lymphocytes 18 Monocytes 5 Eosinophils 2 Basophils 24

Basophils are elevated (24%) Best guess: leukemia

Diagram: differential white count WBC % Neutrophils 86 Lymphocytes 6 Monocytes 4 Eosinophils 3 Basophils 1

Neutrophils are elevated (86%) Best guess: bacterial infection

Diagram: differential white count WBC % Neutrophils 62 Lymphocytes 25 Monocytes 8 Eosinophils 4 Basophils 1

They are all within normal range.

Diagram: differential white count WBC % Neutrophils 44 Lymphocytes 46 Monocytes 5 Eosinophils 4 Basophils 1

Lymphocytes are elevated (46%) Best guess: viral infection

Diagram: differential white count WBC % Neutrophils 38 Lymphocytes 20 Monocytes 37 Eosinophils 4 Basophils 1

Monocytes are elevated (37%) Best guess: listeriosis

Diagram: differential white count WBC % Neutrophils 41 Lymphocytes 17 Monocytes 5 Eosinophils 36 Basophils 1

Eosinophils are elevated (36%) Best guesses: allergic reaction or a parasite infection

Identify: Neutrophil (smiley face) Normal %: 60-70 Function: engulf bacteria only If elevated: best guess- bacterial infection

Identify, Normal %, function, if elevated

Identify: Lymphocyte (all blue dot) Normal %: 20-30 Function: take part in the immune system If elevated: best guess- viral infection

Identify, Normal %, function, if elevated

Identify: Monocyte (pac man) Normal % 4-10 Function: become a macrophage and engulf bacteria and viruses If elevated: best guess- listeriosis

Identify, Normal %, function, if elevated

Identify: Eosinophil (2 dots) Normal %: 1-5 Function: attack parasites; engulf antigen/antibody complexes If elevated: best guesses: allergic reaction, parasite infection

Identify, Normal %, function, if elevated

Identify: Basophil (big blue dot) Normal %: .5 - 1 Function: release histamine If elevated: best guess: leukemia

What percentage of our blood is plasma?

55%

What percentage of our blood is formed elements (RBC, WBC, platelets)?

45%

What percentage of our plasma is water?

90%

What percentage of our plasma is dissolved substances?

10%

What is the main function of platelets?

blood clotting

Erythrocytes vs. Leukocytes: size

In most cases, a WBC (leukocyte) is 2 to 3 times larger than a RBC (erythrocyte).

Blood type O: alloantigens

none

Blood type O: alloantibodies

A and B

Blood type A: alloantigens

A only

Blood type A: alloantibodies

B only

Blood type B: alloantigens

B only

Blood type B: alloantibodies

A only

Blood type AB: alloantigens

A and B

Blood type AB: alloantibodies

none

Recipient: O

Donor: O

Recipient: A

Donor: O, A

Recipient: B

Donor: O, B

Recipient: AB

Donor: O, A, B, AB

Universal donor, why

Type O because on the donor side you worry about the antigens (alloantigens), but type O has no antigens.

Universal recipient, why

Type AB because on the recipient side you worry about the antibodies (alloantibodies), but type AB has no antibodies.

Rh factor: dominant

It is dominant to be Rh+.

Rh factor: percentages of Rh+ vs. Rh-

85% of people: Rh+ 15% of people: Rh-

Rh antibodies: who can form

Only Rh- people can form or make Rh antibodies.

Rh antibodies: when are they formed

Rh- people make Rh antibodies when: 1) a blood transfusion mistake occurs (they gave an Rh- patient Rh+ blood). 2) having a baby (an Rh- mother gives birth to an Rh+ baby and the blood cells mix).

Recipient: Rh+

Donor: Rh+ or Rh-

Recipient: Rh-

Donor: Rh- only

Recipient: O+

Donor: O+, O-

Recipient: O-

Donor: O-

Recipient: A+

Donor: O+, O-, A+, A-

Recipient: A-

Donor: O-, A-

Recipient: B+

Donor: O+, O-, B+, B-

Recipient: B-

Donor: O-, B-

Recipient: AB+

Donor: O+, O-, A+, A-, B+, B-, AB+, AB-

Recipient: AB-

Donor: O-, A-, B-, AB-

AB mistake

Match up in the same patient: - A antigen and A antibody -OR- - B antigen and B antibody

Rh mistake

Give an Rh- patient Rh+ blood

True universal donor, why

Type O- because on the donor side you worry about the antigens, but type O- has no antigens.

True universal recipient, why

Type AB+ because on the recipient side you worry about the antibodies, but type AB+ has no antibodies. Because they are type AB, they have no A and B antibodies. Because they are Rh+, they cannot make Rh antibodies.

Problem with Rh factor and babies: the mother

To have a problem with Rh factor and having babies, the mother must be Rh- so she can make Rh antibodies.

Problem with Rh factor and babies: the father

To have a problem with Rh factor and babies, the father must be Rh+ so the couple can have Rh+ babies.

Problem with Rh factor and babies: the children

To have a problem with Rh factor and having babies, that couple (mother: Rh-, father: Rh+) must have two babies that are both Rh+.

Rh antibodies: which class

Rh antibodies are always in a class called IgG, which means they can cross the placenta.

RhoGAM

RhoGAM is a medication that prevents the mother from making Rh antibodies.

Blood typing: Agglutination

Agglutination means cell clumping and appears on a blood typing test as grainy/clumpy (positive result).

Front type

This is a direct test for blood typing antigens (A, B, Rh).

Back type

This is an indirect test for blood typing antibodies (A and B).