microbio Flashcards
(156 cards)
1
Q
The initial step in the process of many bacterial infections is adherence of the organism to mucous membranes. The basic component that mediates adherence is the:
A) Lipid A
B) Peptidoglycan
C) Fimbria
A
C) Fimbria
2
Q
The volutin granules of C. Diphtheria are visualized by:
A) Gram stain
B) Neisser stain
C) Acid-fast stain
A
B) Neisser stain
3
Q
The chromosomal DNA is concentrated in:
A) The cytoplasm as a nucleoid
B) The plasmids
C) ‘’a’’ and ‘’b’’
A
A) The cytoplasm as a nucleoid
4
Q
The cytoplasm contains (more than one answer)
A) Ribosomes
B) Storage granules
C) Capsules
A
A) Ribosomes
B) Storage granules
5
Q
Which of the following is not true about the bacterial cell?
A) It is bilayer of phospholids arranged into associated proteins
B) Regulates the transport of nutrient and the cell
C) Do not carry-on electron transport
A
C) Do not carry-on electron transport
6
Q
The cytoplasm contains (two answers)
A) Nucleoid
B) Plasmids
C) Cell wall
A
A) Nucleoid
B) Plasmids
7
Q
Which of the following is the most accurate describes the structural differences between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?
A) Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan whereas Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan
B) Gram-positive bacteria have an outer lipid layer whereas Gram-negative bacteria do not
C) Gram-positive bacteria appear red whereas Gram-negative appear purple
A
A) Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan whereas Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan
8
Q
The identification of bacteria can be made on the basis of ability to utilize a range of substrates for growth:
A) True
B) False
C) It is not possible in vitro
A
A) True
9
Q
The (+) indole reaction following Kovac’s reagent drops tryptic broth is demonstrated with:
A) A yellow ring
B) A red ring
C) None of the above
A
B) A red ring
10
Q
Kligler agar is a differential media:
A) Based on sugar fermentation of 2 sugars glucose
B) Based on sugar fermentation of 2 sugar maltose
C) Based on oxidase production
A
A) Based on sugar fermentation of 2 sugars glucose
11
Q
The complete killing of all micro-organisms from a material is called:
A) Sterilization
B) Disinfection
C) Antisepsis
A
A) Sterilization
12
Q
Microaerophiles (capnophiles) need:
A) Ambient atmosphere
B) High levels of oxygen
C) 5-10% of CO2 in atmosphere
A
C) 5-10% of CO2 in atmosphere
13
Q
Enriched media are:
A) Sheep blood agar
B) MacConkey agar
C) Chocolate agar
A
A) Sheep blood agar
C) Chocolate agar
14
Q
Bacteria with anaerobic respiration need:
A) Oxygen
B) Inorganic compounds (nitrates, sulphates, etc)
C) Pyruvate
A
B) Inorganic compounds (nitrates, sulphates, etc)
15
Q
Tests for fermentation of sugars:
A) Contain pH indicator and substrate
B) Are spot tests
C) They are accounted by the presence of turbidity
A
A) Contain pH indicator and substrate
16
Q
Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin) inhibits:
A) Bacterial ribosomes
B) Bacterial enzymes – gyrases
C) Synthesis of peptidoglyca
A
B) Bacterial enzymes – gyrases
17
Q
Selective media:
A) Deoxycholate citrate agar
B) Trypticase soy agar
C) Blood agar
A
A) Deoxycholate citrate agar
18
Q
Methyl Red test:
A) Is a differential test based on the few multiple acids
B) Yellow colour indicates a positive result
C) Is a differential test based on Ultraviolet
A
A) Is a differential test based on the few multiple acids
19
Q
Sulbactam & clavulanic acid:
A) Inhibitors of beta-lactamases
B) Macrolides
C) Glycopeptides
A
A) Inhibitors of beta-lactamases
20
Q
Ampicillin and amoxicillin are:
A) Carbapenems
B) Aminoglycosides
C) Amonopenicillins
A
C) Amonopenicillins
21
Q
Aminoglycosides are:
A) Are bactericidal agents
B) Are toxic to the kidneys
C) Not used for anaerobes
A
A) Are bactericidal agents
22
Q
Glycopeptides are:
A) With bacterial effect
B) Inhibit synthesis of proteins
C) Vancomycin & teicoplanin
A
C) Vancomycin & teicoplanin
23
Q
Inhibitors of synthesis of proteins are:
A) Tetracyclines
B) Amphenicols
C) Beta-lactamases
A
A) Tetracyclines
B) Amphenicols
24
Q
Bactericidal agents are:
A) Cephalosporins
B) Tetracyclines
C) Chloramphenicol
A
A) Cephalosporins
25
Rifampin:
A) Inhibits protein synthesis
B) Inactivates DNA-dependent RNA
C) Is anti-Mycobacterium tubercle
B) Inactivates DNA-dependent RNA
C) Is anti-Mycobacterium tubercle
26
Streptococcus pyogenes are causative agents:
A) Pharyngitis & tonsillitis
B) Scarlet fever
C) Urinary tract infections
A) Pharyngitis & tonsillitis
B) Scarlet fever
27
Haemophilus influenza type b is:
A) Catalase & oxidase positive
B) Sensitive to Penicillin G
C) Causative agent of epiglottitis and meningitis
A) Catalase & oxidase positive
C) Causative agent of epiglottitis and meningitis
28
Neisseria gonorrhoea are:
A) Causative agents of opthalmia neonatorum
B) Gram positive (+) cocci
C) Possess pili and IgA protease
A) Causative agents of opthalmia neonatorum
C) Possess pili and IgA protease
29
Neisseria meningitidis:
A) Are motile Gram-positive cocci
B) Need growth factors V & X
C) Possess polysaccharides capsule
C) Possess polysaccharides capsule
30
Listeria monocytogenes is:
A) Oxidase positive Gram-positive rod
B) Causative agent of sepsis and meningitis in newborns
C) Sensitive to ampicillin & amoxicillin
B) Causative agent of sepsis and meningitis in newborns
C) Sensitive to ampicillin & amoxicillin
31
Streptococcus pneumonia may be isolated from:
A) Cerebrospinal fluid
B) Feces
C) Sputum
A) Cerebrospinal fluid
C) Sputum
32
Toxins of Staphylococcus aureus are:
A) Lipase
B) Leukocidin
C) Hemolysins
B) Leukocidin
C) Hemolysins
33
S. Pyrogenes:
A) Can grow on trypticase soy agar
B) Are commensals in the upper respiratory tract
C) Are catalase and oxidase negative
B) Are commensals in the upper respiratory tract
C) Are catalase and oxidase negative
34
Staphylococci are:
A) Catalase positive
B) Coagulase positive
C) Nonmotile cocci
A) Catalase positive
C) Nonmotile cocci
35
Viridans streptococci are:
A) Alpha haemolytic on blood agar
B) Commensals in the upper respiratory tract
C) Optochin sensitive
A) Alpha haemolytic on blood agar
B) Commensals in the upper respiratory tract
36
streptococcus pyrogenes are:
A) Sensitive to Penicillin G
B) Gram negative (-) cocci
C) Possess polysaccharide C and M protein
A) Sensitive to Penicillin G
C) Possess polysaccharide C and M protein
37
Neisseria meningitidis are:
A) Gram negative (-) diplococci
B) Oxidase negative
C) Causative agents of sepsis & meningitis
A) Gram negative (-) diplococci
C) Causative agents of sepsis & meningitis
38
Haemophilus influenza type b is:
A) Causative agent of bacterial meningitis
B) Gram negative (-) coccobacillus
C) All strains are sensitive to ampicillin & amoxicillin
A) Causative agent of bacterial meningitis
B) Gram negative (-) coccobacillus
39
Listeria monocytogenes is:
A) Pathogenic only for newborns & immunocompromised patients
B) Gram positive Rod
C) Sensitive to cephalosporin’s
A) Pathogenic only for newborns & immunocompromised patients
B) Gram positive Rod
40
Enterococci are:
A) Commensals in colon
B) Sensitive to cephalosporin’s
C) Causative agents of wound infections & urinary tract
A) Commensals in colon
C) Causative agents of wound infections & urinary tract
41
Streptococcus penumoniae:
A) Causes CAP (community acquired pneumonia)
B) Is optochin sensitive
C) Is non-fastidious microorganism
A) Causes CAP (community acquired pneumonia)
B) Is optochin sensitive
42
The treatment of MRSA infections includes:
A) Vancomycin
B) Fifth generation cephalosporin’s
C) Ampicillin
A) Vancomycin
B) Fifth generation cephalosporin’s
43
Neisseria gonorrhoea:
A) Is oxidase and catalase positive
B) Grows on Thryer-Martin media
C) Can cause pneumonia in immunosuppressed adults
A) Is oxidase and catalase positive
B) Grows on Thryer-Martin media
44
L. Monocytogenes:
A) Can be spread by ingesting of rough milk and vegetables
B) Is an obligate pathogen
C) Can cause purulent meningitis in primarily healthy people
A) Can be spread by ingesting of rough milk and vegetables
C) Can cause purulent meningitis in primarily healthy people
45
H. Influenza:
A) Can survive in the environment
B) Grows well on sheep blood agar only around colonies
C) Can cause epiglottitis, otitis media and pneumonia
B) Grows well on sheep blood agar only around colonies
C) Can cause epiglottitis, otitis media and pneumonia
46
KES/Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia/ group are:
A) Opportunistic bacteria and/or commensals in GIT(gastro intestinal tract)
B) MR(methyl red) positive/VP (Voges Proskaeur) negative
C) Cause nosocomial infections
A) Opportunistic bacteria and/or commensals in GIT(gastro intestinal tract)
C) Cause nosocomial infections
47
Proteus spp:
A) Can cause pneumonia
B) Are phenylalanine deaminase positive
C) Can cause urinary tract and wound infections
B) Are phenylalanine deaminase positive
C) Can cause urinary tract and wound infections
48
Y. Enterocolitica:
A) Can cause plague
B) Optimal temperature of growth is 28°C
C) Can cause mesadenitis and reactive arthritis
B) Optimal temperature of growth is 28°C
C) Can cause mesadenitis and reactive arthritis
49
Shigellae:
A) Are non-motile
B) Usually do not ferment lactose
C) Ferment glucose, producing acid and gas
A) Are non-motile
B) Usually do not ferment lactose
50
Members if the family Enterobacteriaccae have the following characteristics:
A) They are gram-negative rods
B) They are either motile with peritrichous flagella or non-motile
C) They are catalase and oxidase negative
A) They are gram-negative rods
B) They are either motile with peritrichous flagella or non-motile
51
serratia marcescens:
A) Can cause infections associated with intravenous line contamination
B) Are DNA-se positive
C) Are obligatory pathogens
A) Can cause infections associated with intravenous line contamination
B) Are DNA-se positive
52
Typhoid fever:
A) Is caused by Salmonella Enteritidis
B) Is zoonotic infection
C) For diagnosis bone marrow, blood, stool and urine are investigated
B) Is zoonotic infection
C) For diagnosis bone marrow, blood, stool and urine are investigated
53
Bacillary dysentery is caused by:
A) Shigella spp
B) Salmonella spp
C) EIEC (enteroinvasive E.coli)
A) Shigella spp
54
Non-typhoidal Salmonella spp:
A) Are lactose fermenters
B) Produce H2S
C) Are causative agents of gastroenteritis
B) Produce H2S
C) Are causative agents of gastroenteritis
55
Enterohemorrhagic E.coli (EHEC O157:H7) are causative agents of:
A) Urinary tract infections
B) Bloody diarrhea
C) Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)
B) Bloody diarrhea
C) Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)
56
Which of the following is not true about the Proteus-Morgonella-Providencia group?
A) The members of this group deaminate phenylalanine
B) They are non-motile microorganisms
C) Proteus species have ‘’swarming’’growth on solid media
D) They usually cause urinary tract infections
B) They are non-motile microorganisms
57
Which of the following is correct for Escherichia coli?
A) E.coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infection
B) E.coli K1 causes meningitis in infants
C) Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC) cause ‘traveler’s diarrhea’ and diarrhea in children less than 5 years of age in developing countries
D) The strains of Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC) produce a heat-labile enterotoxins
A) E.coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infection
B) E.coli K1 causes meningitis in infants
C) Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC) cause ‘traveler’s diarrhea’ and diarrhea in children less than 5 years of age in developing countries
D) The strains of Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC) produce a heat-labile enterotoxins
58
Which of the following is not correct?
A) Enteropathogenic E.coli (EPEC) are an important cause of diarrhea in infants, especially in developing countries
B) Shiga toxin-producing E.coli (STEC) has been associated with hemorrhagic colitis and with haemolytic uremic syndrome
C) Serratia marcescens is a common opportunistic pathogen in hospitalized patients
D) The bloodstream invasion is frequent in Shigella infections
D) The bloodstream invasion is frequent in Shigella infections
59
Shigella dysenteriae:
A) May produce Shiga toxin
B) Are commensals in the bowel
C) May produce bloody diarrhea
A) May produce Shiga toxin
C) May produce bloody diarrhea
60
Members of the family Enterobacteriaccae have the following characteristics:
A) They are gram-negative rods
B) They are either motile with peritrichous flagella or non-motile
C) They are oxidase positive
A) They are gram-negative rods
B) They are either motile with peritrichous flagella or non-motile
61
Non-typhoidal Salmonella spp:
A) Cause infections only in animals
B) Produce H2S
C) Are causative agents of gastroenteritis
B) Produce H2S
C) Are causative agents of gastroenteritis
62
E.coli are:
A) Most common causative agents of UTI(Urinary tract infections)
B) Some strains are causative agent of diarrhea
C) E.coli K1 possess capsule and may cause newborn meningitis
A) Most common causative agents of UTI(Urinary tract infections)
B) Some strains are causative agent of diarrhea
C) E.coli K1 possess capsule and may cause newborn meningitis
63
The causative agent of typhoid fever is:
A) Salmonella Typhi
B) Shigella sonnei
C) E.coli enteropathogenic (EPEC)
A) Salmonella Typhi
64
Shigella spp:
A) Are non-motile
B) Do not ferment glucose
C) Are catalase
A) Are non-motile
C) Are catalase
65
KES/Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia/ group are:
A) Non-motile except Klebsiella
B) MR (methyl red) negative/VP (Voges Proskauer) positive
C) Cause nosocomial infections
A) Non-motile except Klebsiella
B) MR (methyl red) negative/VP (Voges Proskauer) positive
C) Cause nosocomial infections
66
Y.Pestis:
A) Are causative agent of plaque
B) Optimal temperature of growth is 28 °C
C) Are motile at room temperature
A) Are causative agent of plaque
B) Optimal temperature of growth is 28 °C
67
Proteus spp:
A) Can cause sepsis
B) Are phenylalanine deaminase negative
C) Can cause urinary tract and wound infections
A) Can cause sepsis
C) Can cause urinary tract and wound infections
68
Which of the following is not correct?
A) The influenza viruses have the single-stranded, negative-sense RNA genomes
B) Isolation of Influenza virus is done using newborn mice
C) The type-specific antigen (A,B or C) of influenza viruses is found on the nucleocapsid
D) The main antigen in the vaccine that induces protective antibody is the hem
B) Isolation of Influenza virus is done using newborn mice
69
Which of the following is not correct?
A) The hemagglutinin protein of Influenza virus is the major antigen against which neutralizing (protective) antibodies are directed
B) The Infuenza A virus is most likely to cause a pandemic
C) The antigenic drift in Influenza virus results in major antigenic changes
D) Rash is not typical symptom of influenza
C) The antigenic drift in Influenza virus results in major antigenic changes
70
Which of the following is not correct?
A) The influenza viruses attack mainly the upper respiratory tract
B) Nasopharyngeal swabs and nasal aspirate or lavage fluid are the best specimens for diagnostic testing for influenza
C) Immunity to Influenza is long lived and subtype specific
C) Immunity to Influenza is long lived and subtype specific
71
Which of the following statements reflects the pathogenesis of influenza?
A) The virus enters the host in airborne droplets
B) Viremia is common
C) The virus frequently establishes persistent infections in the lung
D) Pneumonia is not associated with secondary bacterial infection
A) The virus enters the host in airborne droplets
72
Which of the following statements regarding the prevention and treatment of influenza is correct?
A) Drugs that inhibit neuraminidase are active only against influenza A
B) As with some other live vaccines, the attenuated influenza vaccine should not be given to pregnant women
C) The influenza vaccine contains several serotypes of virus
D) The virus strains in the influenza vaccine do not vary from year to year
B) As with some other live vaccines, the attenuated influenza vaccine should not be given to pregnant women
73
Which of the following is correct for Genus Streptococcus?
A) Gram-positive spherical cells arranged in chains
B) Gram-positive spherical cells arranged in irregular grape-like clusters
C) Catalase-producing
D) Catalase-negative
A) Gram-positive spherical cells arranged in chains
D) Catalase-negative
74
Each of the following statements about Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A streptococci) is correct except?
A) S.pyogenes causes disease through the production of toxin or through direct invasion and destruction of tissue
B) S. Pyogenes typically produces alpha-hemolysis around colonies
C) S.pyogenes usually are susceptible to Bacitracin
D) S.pyogenes causes Scarlet fever
B) S. Pyogenes typically produces alpha-hemolysis around colonies
75
Which of the following is correct for Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B streptococci)?
A) S. Agalactiae is a leading cause of meningitis and septicaemia in newborns
B) S. Agalactiae typically produces Beta-hemolysis around colonies
C) S. Agalactiae is resistant to Bacitracin
D) S. Agalactiae is CAMP-test negative
A) S. Agalactiae is a leading cause of meningitis and septicaemia in newborns
B) S. Agalactiae typically produces Beta-hemolysis around colonies
C) S. Agalactiae is resistant to Bacitracin
76
Which of the following is not true about the Streptococcus pneumonia?
A) S.pneumoniae are gram-positive lancet-shaped diplococcic
B) S.pneumoniae is the most common cause of pneumonia and otitis media, sinusitis and an important cause of meningitis and bacteremia/sepsiss
C) S.pneumoniae possessing a capsule of polysaccharide
D) S.pneumoniae is Optochin disk test resistant
D) S.pneumoniae is Optochin disk test resistant
77
Which of the following is correct for Genus Enterococcus?
A) Enterococci are part of the normal enteric microbiota
B) Enterococci cause urinary tract infections, especially in hospitalized patients
C) Enterococci are catalyse-negative
D) Enterococci are bile esculin positive
A) Enterococci are part of the normal enteric microbiota
B) Enterococci cause urinary tract infections, especially in hospitalized patients
D) Enterococci are bile esculin positive
78
Which of the following is not correct about Streptococcus pyogenes?
A) Gram-negative cocci
B) Possess polysaccharides C and protein
C) Sensitive to Penicillin G
A) Gram-negative cocci
79
Which of the following is not correct about Bacillary dysentery caused by:
A) Salmonella spp
B) EIEC (enteroinvasive E.coli)
C) Shigella spp
A) Salmonella spp
80
Each of the following statements concerning the VDRL test for syphilis is correct EXCEPT:
A) The test is usually positive in secondary syphilis
B) The antigen is composed of inactivated Treponema pallidum
C) False-positive results are more frequent than with the fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorbed (FTA-ABS) test
B) The antigen is composed of inactivated Treponema pallidum
81
Which of the following is not correct about Haemophilus influenza type b:
A) Gram-negative coccobacilli
B) Causative agents of bacterial meningitis
C) All strains are sensitive to Ampicillin and Amoxicillin
C) All strains are sensitive to Ampicillin and Amoxicillin
82
Which of the following is correct about the causative agent of typhoid fever:
A) E.coli- enteropathogenic (EPEC)
B) Salmonella Thyphi
C) Shigella sonnei
B) Salmonella Thyphi
83
Bordetella pertussis are:
A) Causative agents of bacterial meningitis
B) Gram neg (-) coccobacili oxidase positive Catalase positive
C) A cellular pertussis vaccine is used for prevention of the disease
B) Gram neg (-) coccobacili oxidase positive Catalase positive
84
Which of the following is correct about Pseudomonas aeruginosa:
A) Ferments carbohydrates
B) Gives beta haemolysis on blood agar and produces pigments
C) Is nosocomial pathogen
B) Gives beta haemolysis on blood agar and produces pigments
85
Which of the following is not correct about Streptococcus pyogenes:
A) Senitive to Penicillin G
B) Gram neg (-) cocci
C) Posssess polysaccharide C and M protein
B) Gram neg (-) cocci
86
Which of the following is not correct about Bacilary dysentery caused by:
A) Shigella spp
B) Salmonella spp
C) EIEC (enteroinvasive E.coli)
B) Salmonella spp
87
Which of the following is not correct?
A) The bacteria of Genus Bacillus are anaerobic spore-forming Gram-positive rods
B) The capsule of B.anthracis is a polysaccharide
C) Anthrax bacilli are non-motile
A) The bacteria of Genus Bacillus are anaerobic spore-forming Gram-positive rods
88
Which of the following is correct for Genus Staphylococcus:
A) Gram-positive spherical cells arranged in chains
B) Gram positive spherical cells arranged in irregular grape-like clusters
C) Catalase-producing
D) Obligate anaerobes
B) Gram positive spherical cells arranged in irregular grape-like clusters
89
Each of the following statements about Staphylococcus aureus is correct EXCEPT:
A) S.aureus is a coagulase positive microorganism
B) S. Aureus colonies on solid media are golden yellow with beta-haemolysis
C) The nose is the main site of colonization of S.aureus
D) Staphylococcus aureus doesn’t produce the enzyme DNAase
D) Staphylococcus aureus doesn’t produce the enzyme DNAase
90
Which of the following is not true about the ‘scalded skin’ syndrome:
A) Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 causes it
B) Symptoms: fever, large bullae, an erythematous mascular rash
C) There is a separation of the epidermis at the granular cell layer
D) It is more frequent in young children than in adults
A) Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 causes it
91
Which of the following is correct for S.epidermidis:
A) S. Epidermidis a coagulase positive microorganism
B) S. Epidermidis has predilection for plastic material – intravenous catheters, prosthetic heart valves, prosthetic valves, cerebrospinal fluid shunts
C) S. Epidermidis causes urinary tract infections in catheterized patients
D) S. Epidermidis causes urinary tract infections in young, sexually active females
B) S. Epidermidis has predilection for plastic material – intravenous catheters, prosthetic heart valves, prosthetic valves, cerebrospinal fluid shunts
92
Which of the following is correct for MRSA:
A) It is Methicillin-resistant S.aureus
B) It is usually multiply-resistant
C) Panton valentine leukocidin (PVL) is an important virulence factor in MRSA infections
D) The most common clinical manifestations of community-acquired S.aureus are skin and soft tissue infections such as abscesses or cellutiis
A) It is Methicillin-resistant S.aureus
93
Which of the following is correct for Genus Neisseria:
A) Gram-positive diplococci
B) Gram-negative diplococci
C) Oxidase-negative
D) Oxidase-positive
B) Gram-negative diplococci
D) Oxidase-positive
94
Each of the following statements about Neisseria meningitidis is correct except:
A) N. Meningitidis are gram-negative intracellular kidney-shaped diplococci
B) N. Meningitidis ferment glucose but not maltose in carbohydrate utilization tract
C) N. Meningitidis grow best on complex media under aerobic conditions containing 5% CO2
D) N. Meningitidis is rapidly killed by drying, sunlight, heat and disinfectants
B) N. Meningitidis ferment glucose but not maltose in carbohydrate utilization tract
95
Which of the following is not true about the Moraxella catarrhalis:
A) M. Catarrhalis is a member of the normal microflora in some of healthy school children
B) M. Catarrhalis causes bronchitis, pneumonia, sinusitis, otitis media, and conjunctivitis
C) M. Catarrhalis is DNAase negative
D) M. Catarrhalis doesn’t ferment carbohydrates
C) M. Catarrhalis is DNAase negative
96
Which of the following is correct for Neisseria gonorrhoea:
A) N. Gonorrhoea ferment only glucose in carbohydrates and utilization test
B) N. Gonorrhoea grows best in Co2 enriched aerobic atmosphere
C) N. Gonorrhoea requires an enriched media like chocolate agar or Thayer-Martin agar
D) Culture of urethral exudates from men are not necessary when gram stain is positive for N. Gonorrhoea
A) N. Gonorrhoea ferment only glucose in carbohydrates and utilization test
97
Which of the following is correct:
A) N. Meningitides has capsular polysaccharides, outer membrane proteins and lipopolysaccharides
B) The most important serogroups N. Meningitides associated with disease in humans are A, B, C, Y and W135
C) Drug of choice in the treatment of N. Meningitides and N. Gonorrhoea are third generation cefalosporins
D) Azithromycin is used like a prophylactic drug and is given to house hold and other close contacts with N. Meningitides
B) The most important serogroups N. Meningitides associated with disease in humans are A, B, C, Y and W135
98
Which of the following is not correct for Neisseria gonorrhoeae:
A) Gram neg (-) diplococcic
B) Oxidase negative
C) Causative agents of endocervicitis & opthahlmia neonatorum
B) Oxidase negative
99
Which of the following is correct for Bacillus anthracis:
A) Are spore forming Gram negative rods
B) Anthrax toxins are made up of three proteins, protective antigen (PA), edema factor (EF), and lethal factor (LF)
C) Approximately 95% of cases are cutaneous anthrax
B) Anthrax toxins are made up of three proteins, protective antigen (PA), edema factor (EF), and lethal factor (LF)
100
Which of the following is correct:
A) Closrtidium difficile causes gas gangrene
B) Closrtidium perfringens causes antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis
C) There are crepitations and foul-smelling discharge in gas gangrene disease
C) There are crepitations and foul-smelling discharge in gas gangrene disease
101
Which of the following is not correct? Identification of M.tuberculosis includes:
A) The Ziehl-Neelsen stain for acid-fast bacilli
B) Culturing of the organism on Lowenstein-Jensen medium
C) Gram stain of sputum
C) Gram stain of sputum
102
Which of the following is correct for V. Cholerae:
A) Is oxidase positive for Gram negative rod
B) Produces enterotoxin
C) Is multidrug resistant microorganism
A) Is oxidase positive for Gram negative rod
B) Produces enterotoxin
103
Bordetella pertussis are:
A) Causative agents of bacterial meningitis
B) Gram neg (-) coccobacilli, oxidase pos. Catalase pos
C) A cellular pertussis vaccine is used for prevention of the disease
B) Gram neg (-) coccobacilli, oxidase pos. Catalase pos
104
Which of the following is correct for Pseudomonas aeruginosa:
A) Ferments carbohydrates
B) Gives beta haemolysis on blood agar an produces pigments
C) Is nosocomial pathogen
B) Gives beta haemolysis on blood agar an produces pigments
105
Which of the following is not correct for Streptococcus pyogenes:
A) Sensitive to Penicillin G
B) Gram neg (-) cocci
C) Possess polysaccharide C and M protein
B) Gram neg (-) cocci
106
Which of the following is not correct for Bacillary dysentery caused by:
A) Shigella spp
B) Salmonella spp
C) EIEC (enteroinvaive E.coli)
B) Salmonella spp
107
Which of the following is correct:
A) The bacteria of Genus Bacillus are anaerobic spore-forming Gram-positive
B) The capsule of B. Anthracis is a polysaccharides
C) Anthrax bacilli are non-motile
C) Anthrax bacilli are non-motile
108
Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis are: * 1 point
A) Aminoglycosides
B) Vancomycin & Teicoplanin
C) Tetracyclines
B) Vancomycin & Teicoplanin
109
Nitroimidazoles are: *1 point
A) Beta lactam antibacterial agents
B) inhibitors of 30 S ribosomal unit
C) Metronidazole and Tinidazole
C) Metronidazole and Tinidazole
110
Antiseptics are : * 1 point
A) Used as Physical methods of sterilization
B) Used as Chemical methods of sterilization
C) Disinfectants applied directly to the skin of the patient
C) Disinfectants applied directly to the skin of the patient
111
The cytoplasm contains : * 1 point
A) Lipid A
B) Storage granules
C) Capsules
B) Storage granules
112
Which of the following is correct for the differential staining methods: *
1 point
A) use a combination of dyes
B) use only one dye
C) Gram stain is not a differential method
A) use a combination of dyes
113
hich of the following is true about the cell wall of the bacterial cell? *
1 point
A) It is not an essential structure for viability
B) Provides shape to the bacterium
C) Mycoplasmas have cell walls
B) Provides shape to the bacterium
114
Which of the following is true about the capsule of the bacteria? *
1 point
A) Viscous substance forming a covering layer around the cell
B) Is required for growth and reproduction in laboratory cultures
C) Do not protect pathogenic bacteria from phagocytosis by the cell of the host
A) Viscous substance forming a covering layer around the cell
115
the antigens of bacteria are: *
1 point
A) K-antigens of the cell wall
B) H-antigens of the fimbria
C) O-antigens of the outer membrane
C) O-antigens of the outer membrane
116
Bacillus anthracis
A) Are spore forming Gram positive rods
B) Anthrax toxins are made up of three proteins, protective antigen (PA), edema factor(EF), and lethal factor (LF)
C) Approximately 95% of cases are cutaneous anthrax
A) Are spore forming Gram positive rods
B) Anthrax toxins are made up of three proteins, protective antigen (PA), edema factor (EF), and lethal factor (LF)
C) Approximately 95% of cases are cutaneous anthrax
117
Pseudomonas aeruginosa: * 1 point
A) does not ferment carbohydrates
B) gives beta haemolysis on blood agar and produces pigments
C) is a typical nosocomial pathogen
A) does not ferment carbohydrates
B) gives beta haemolysis on blood agar and produces pigments
C) is a typical nosocomial pathogen
118
V.cholerae *
1 point
A) is oxidase positive Gram positive rod
B) produces enterotoxin
C) is an invasive microorganism
B) produces enterotoxin
119
S.pyogenes can cause:
A) angina
B) erisipelas
C) immunologic diseases such as rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis
A) angina
B) erisipelas
C) immunologic diseases such as rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis
120
Plague * 1 point
A) is caused by J.enterocolotica
B) can be transmitted from rodents to humans by the bites of fleas
C) can not be transmitted by aerosols
B) can be transmitted from rodents to humans by the bites of fleas
121
E.coli * 1 point
A) some strains can cause diarrhea, while others are commensals in the bowels
B) E.coli K1 possesses capsule and can cause meningitides in newborns
C) are typical urinary tract pathogens
A) some strains can cause diarrhea, while others are commensals in the bowels
B) E.coli K1 possesses capsule and can cause meningitides in newborns
C) are typical urinary tract pathogens
122
KES group 1 point
A) are opportunistic bacteria
B) are MR positive/ VP negative
C) cause nosocomial infections
A) are opportunistic bacteria
C) cause nosocomial infections
123
16. Nontyphoidal Salmonella spp.
* 1 point
A) can cause gastroenteritidis
B) ferment lactose
C) can cause bacillary dysentery
A) can cause gastroenteritidis
124
All members of Familly Enterobacteriaceae *
1 point
A) ferment glucose
B) are oxidase positive
C) are Gram negative rods
A) ferment glucose
C) are Gram negative rods
125
Y. enterocolitica *
1 point
A) is motile at 37 C
B) optimal temperature of growth is 28 C
C) can cause bacillary dysentery
B) optimal temperature of growth is 28 C
126
Klebsiella pneumoniae * 1 point
A) can cause bacteriaemia and sepsis in hospitalized patients
B) causes pneumonia in outpatients
C) is obligatory pathogen
A) can cause bacteriaemia and sepsis in hospitalized patients
127
Typhoid fever *
1 point
A) is caused by S.Enteritidis and S.Typhimurium
B) in case of typhoid fever bone marrow, blood, stool and urine are investigated
C) is caused by S.dysenteriae
B) in case of typhoid fever bone marrow, blood, stool and urine are investigated
128
The outer membrane of Gram negative microorganisms: * 1 point
A) consists of peptidoglycan
B) contains lipopolysaccharides
C) is the K-antigen
B) contains lipopolysaccharides
129
The bacterial nucleoid: * 1 point
A) lacks a nuclear membrane
B) contains diploid set of chromosomes
C) can be seen with Gram stain
A) lacks a nuclear membrane
130
Inhibitors of beta-lactamases are: * 1 point
A) Sulbactam & clavulanic acid
B) Vancomycin & Teicoplanin
C) Monobactams and Carbapenems
A) Sulbactam & clavulanic acid
131
S.aureus * 1 point
A) is coagulase positive
B) possesses flagelle
C) forms gray colonies on blood agar with alpha hemolysis around them
A) is coagulase positive
132
Shigella spp.
* 1 point
A) can cause urinary tract infections UTI
B) are motile
C) are invasive microorganisms
C) are invasive microorganisms
133
Providencia spp.and Morganella spp.
* 1 point
A) are FAD (phenylalanine deaminase) negative
B) cause mainly diarrhoea
C) cause nosocomial infections
C) cause nosocomial infections
134
Salmonella spp.
*
1 point
A) can cause bacillary dysentery
B) can grow on Vibrio-media
C) can cause gastroenteritidis
C) can cause gastroenteritidis
135
Chlamydia spp: * 1 point
A) are obligate intracellular pathogens
B) cause diphtheria
C) reaction agglutination is used for their identification
A) are obligate intracellular pathogens
136
Influenza viruses: * 1 point
A) Do not possess the surface proteins hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA)
B) are highly antigen variable
C) are DNA viruses
B) are highly antigen variable
137
Which of the following is not correct?
a. The influenza viruses have the single-stranded negative sense RNA gnomes.
b. The isolation of influenza virus is done by newborn mice.
c. the type specific antigen AB or C of influenza viruses is found on the nucleocapsid
d. The main antigen in the vaccine that induces protective antibody is the hemagglutinin
b. The isolation of influenza virus is done by newborn mice.
138
Which of the following is not correct?a.
a. the hemaglutinin protein of influenza viruses is the major antigen against which neutralising antibodies are directed
b. The influenza A virus is most likely to cause a pandemic.
c. The antigen drift in influenza virus result in major antigen changes.
d. Rash is not typical symptoms of influenza.
c. The antigen drift in influenza virus result in major antigen changes.
139
Which of the following is not correct?
a. The influence of viruses attack mainly the upper respiratory tract.
b. The nasopharyngeal swab and nasal aspirate or lavage fluid are the best specimens for diagnostic testing of influenza.
c. Immunity to influenza and sub type specific.
d. The influenza viruses cannot be inoculate into cell culture.
d. The influenza viruses cannot be inoculate into cell culture.
140
Which of the following statements reflects the pathogenesis of influenza?
a. The virus enters the house in airborne droplets.
b. Viremia is common.
c. The virus frequently establishes persistent infection in the lungs.
d. Pneumonia is not associated with secondary bacterial infections.
a. The virus enters the house in airborne droplets.
141
Which of the following statements regarding the prevention and treatment of influenza is correct?
a. Drugs that inhibit neuraminidase are active against influenza A
b. With some other live vaccines, the attenuated influenza vaccine should not be given to pregnant women.
c. The influenza vaccine contains several stereotypes of virus.
d. The virus strains the influenza vaccine do not vary from year to year
a. Drugs that inhibit neuraminidase are active against influenza A
b. With some other live vaccines, the attenuated influenza vaccine should not be given to pregnant women.
c. The influenza vaccine contains several stereotypes of virus.
142
Each of the following statement about neisseria meningitidis is correct except?
a. N. meningitids are gram-negative interstellar kidney shaped diplococci
b.N. Meningitidis ferment glucose but not maltose into carbohydrate utilisation test.
c.N. Meningitidis grow on complex media under Arabic conditions containing 5% CO2
d.N. Meningitidis is rapidly killed by drying, sunlight, heat and disinfectant.
b.N. Meningitidis ferment glucose but not maltose into carbohydrate utilisation test.
143
Which of the following is correct for genus neisseria?
a. Gram-positive diplococci
b. Gram-negative diplococci
c. Oxidase negative.
d. Oxidase positive.
b. Gram-negative diplococci
d. Oxidase positive.
144
Which of the following is not true about the moraxella catarrhalis?
a. M. catarrhalis is a member of the normal microflora in some of healthy school children.
b. M. catarrhalis causes bronchitis, pneumonia, sinusitis, otitis media and conjunctivitis.
c.M.catarrhalis is DNAase negative
d. M. catarrhalis doesn't ferment carbohydrates.
c.M.catarrhalis is DNAase negative
145
Which of the following is correct for neisseria gonorrhoea?
a. N.gonorrhoea furman only glucose in carbohydrates utilisation test.
b.N. gonorrhoea gross best in CO2 enriched aerobic atmosphere
c.N. gonorrhoea requires an enrich media like chocolate agar or Thayer Martin agar
d. Culture of urethral expedite from men are not necessary when the Gram stain is positive for N gonorrhoea
a. N.gonorrhoea furman only glucose in carbohydrates utilisation test.
146
Which of the following is correct?
a.N. Meningitidis has capsular polysaccharides membrane proteins and lipolysaccharide
b. The most important seogroups N. Meningitidis associated with disease in human are A,B,C,Y and W135
c. Drug of choice in the treatment of N. Meningitidis and N. gonorrhoea or third generation cephalosporins
d. Azithromycin is used like a prophylactic drug and is given to household and other close contacts with N. meningitides
b. The most important seogroups N. Meningitidis associated with disease in human are A,B,C,Y and W135
147
Which of the following is not correct?
a. bordet - gengou medium is entered media for primary isolation of B. pertussis
b. oxidise and catalyst tests in B pertussis are negative
c. The patient with pertussis is highest infectious in the first catarrhal stage of disease
d. poly chain reaction (PCR) and other nucleic acid amplification method are the most sensitive method to diagnose pertussis
b. oxidise and catalyst tests in B pertussis are negative
148
Each of the following statements is correct except?
a. the brucellae our characteristically located in cellularly
b. the brucellae are not killed in milk by pasteurisation
c. There is no erythritol in human placenta and abortion is not part of brucella infection of humans
d. All cultures for brucellae should be incubated and observed for three weeks before being discarded as being negative
c. There is no erythritol in human placenta and abortion is not part of brucella infection of humans
149
Which of the following is not true?
a. genus corynebacterium are gram-negative rats arranged in so-called Chinese pattern
b. genus corynebacterium possesses granules near the polls that can be observed with Neisser stain
c. C. diphtheriae grow on agar containing potassium tellurite and the colonies are brown to black with a brown black halo
d. the coryneform bacteria are normal inhabitants of the mucous membranes of the skin, respiratory track, urinary tract and conjunctivitis
a. genus corynebacterium are gram-negative rats arranged in so-called Chinese pattern
150
Which of the following is not correct?
a. Ziehl- Neelsen technique of staining is used for identification of acid fast bacteria.
b. Lowenstein - jensen is a selective media used for isolation of M. tuberculosis.
c. tuberculi bacilli grow much faster than most of the bacteria
d. mycobacteria are rich in lipids
c. tuberculi bacilli grow much faster than most of the bacteria
151
Which of the following is not correct?
a. Test results in characteristic of brucella species
b. C. diphtheriae typically invades deep tissues and enters the bloodstream.
c. treatment of diphtheria is with antitoxin and antimicrobial drugs
d. Virulent strains of tubercle bacilli from microscopic serpentine cords in which acid fast bacilli are arranged in parallel chains. Cord formation is correlated with virulence
b. C. diphtheriae typically invades deep tissues and enters the bloodstream.
152
Which of the following is not correct?
Streptococcus phyrogens are;
a. gram-negative cocci
b. Possesses polysaccharide C and M protein.
c. Sensitive to pencillin G
a. gram-negative cocci
153
Which of the following is not correct?
bacillary dysentery is caused by;
a. salmonella spp
b. EIEC (E.coli)
c. shigella spp
a. salmonella spp
154
Each of the following statements concerning the VDRL test for syphilis is correct except:
a. The test is usually positive in secondary syphilis.
b. The antigen is composed of inactivated treponema palladium
c. false positive results are more frequent than with the fluorescent trial antibody absorbed test (FTA-ABS)
b. The antigen is composed of inactivated treponema palladium
155
Which of the following is not correct?
Haemophilus influenza type B are:
a. Gram negative coccobacilli
b. causative agents of bacterial meningitis.
c. All strains are sensitive to ampicillin and amoxicillin.
c. All strains are sensitive to ampicillin and amoxicillin.
156
Which of the following is correct?
The cost of agent of typhoid fever:
a. E. coli
b. Salmonella Typhi
c. Shigella sonnei
b. Salmonella Typhi
