patho Flashcards
(136 cards)
1
Q
- What are the earliest manifestations of cellular damage:
a. Functional disorders
b. Biochemical lesion
c. Light microscopic changes
d. Ultrastructural changes
A
b. Biochemical lesion
2
Q
The main factors in the pathogenesis of water cellular content disturbances are:
a. Increased permeability of the cell membrane
b. Disorders in the oxidation processes
c. Disturbances in the colloid-osmotic pressure in the cell
d. Formation of free radicals in the cell
lotting
A
a. Increased permeability of the cell membrane
c. Disturbances in the colloid-osmotic pressure in the cell
3
Q
Which pathological condition Is least likely to lead to formation of a thrombus:
a. Damage to the endothelium
b. Blood stasis
c. Anticoagulant therapy
d. Increased blood clotting
A
c. Anticoagulant therapy
4
Q
In which of the listed pathological processes does a myocardial infarction develop:
a. Acute relative ischemia
b. Chronic venous hyperemia in the coronary circulation
c. Chronic relative ischemia in the myocardium
d. Acute absolute ischemia in the myocardium
A
d. Acute absolute ischemia in the myocardium
5
Q
The following cell types may be present in the exudate of serous inflammation without
one:
a. Lymphocytes
b. Neutrophilic leukocytes
c. Macrophages
d. Epithelial cells from mucous membranes
A
d. Epithelial cells from mucous membranes
6
Q
Choose what are the main cytological signs for cellular atypism:
a. Polymorphism
b. Polychromasia
c. Atypical mitosis
d. Nuclear polymorphism
A
a. Polymorphism
7
Q
Peritoneum metastases are particular characteristic of which of the following malignant
epithelial tumours:
a. The large intestine
b. The kidneys
c. The ovaries
d. The liver
A
c. The ovaries
8
Q
Tumors of the APUD system are typical for:
a. The thyroid gland
b. The pancreas
c. The appendix
d. The pituitary gland
A
b. The pancreas
9
Q
Which stains are used to demonstrate mucus production by the cells of gelatinous and other adenocarcinomas?
A. PAS
B.Alcian blue
C.Van geosin
D.Mucicarmine.
A
A. PAS
B.Alcian blue
10
Q
Asbestos plays a role in the etiopathogenesis of which of the following tumors?
a.Carcinoma of the lungs
b.pleural mesothelioma
c.mesothelioma of the peritoneum
d.carcinoma of the larynx.
A
b.pleural mesothelioma
11
Q
Which of the listed histological types of neoplasms develop in the digestive system?
a.Adenocarcinoma
b.undifferentiated carcinoma
c.papillary cystadenocarcinoma
d.non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
A
a.Adenocarcinoma
12
Q
Reactions mediated by T cells (type IV) are carried out:
a. By circulating immune complexes
b. By side of toxic antibodies binding and activating the compliment system.
c. By cytotoxic T lymphocytes which specifically lyse target cells through direct contact with them.
d. From activated macrophages acquired cytotoxic properties
A
c)By cytotoxic T lymphocytes which specifically lyse target cells through direct contact with them.
13
Q
Children affected by agammaglobulinemia (Bruton’s syndrome) develop the following diseases:
a. Recurrent infections from pyogenic microorganisms (pyoderma, pharyngitis, inflammation of the middle ear and accessory cavities of the nose).
b. Brain tumours and meningitis.
c. Pneumonia with emphysema.
d. Purulent meningitis.
A
Recurrent infections from pyogenic microorganisms (pyoderma, pharyngitis, inflammation of the middle ear and accessory cavities of the nose).
14
Q
What are the types of hypertrophy?
a. Physiological
b. Pathological
c. Primary
d. Pseudo
A
a. Physiological
b. Pathological
d. Pseudo
15
Q
What is the process in which keratinization occurs on a section of the stratified epithelium of the buccal mucosa?
a. Necrosis
b. Inflammation
c. Metaplasia
d. Hemodynamic disorder
A
c. Metaplasia
16
Q
What is histological accommodation?
a. Transformation of one cell type into another;
b. Inflammatory process;
c. A state in which the physical parameters of the cells change;
d. Pathological metaplasia
A
c. A state in which the physical parameters of the cells change;
17
Q
What is contained in the cytoplasm of renal carcinoma cells, which appear optically empty when stained with hematoxylin-eosin?
a. Mucopolysaccharides;
b. Glycogen;
c. Mucins;
d. Lipids
A
b. Glycogen;
18
Q
Abscess is not observed in which of the listed granulomas?
a. Tularemia;
b. Rheumatism;
c. Actinomycosis;
d. Tuberculosis
A
b. Rheumatism
19
Q
The following granulomas are allergic except one:
a. Periarteritis nodosa;
b. Lipogranuloma;
c. Temporal arteritis;
d. Crohn’s disease
A
b. Lipogranuloma;
20
Q
Which is not a characteristic of tuberculous granuloma?
a. Caseous necrosis;
b. Infiltration with lymphocytes;
c. Epithelioid cells;
d. Lack of vessels
A
d. Lack of vessels
21
Q
Under what conditions are free radicals formed in the cell?
a) under the influence of radiant energy;
b) in enzymatic degradation of exogenous chemical substances;
c) in reduction-oxidation reactions;
d) in all the listed mechanisms
A
d) in all the listed mechanisms
22
Q
In which pathological conditions does fatty degeneration of cardiomyocytes develop?
a) hyperlipidemia;
b) bacterial infections;
c) hypoxia;
d) hyperglycemia.
A
c) hypoxia
23
Q
In which of the following pathological processes is an accumulation of lipofuscin observed in hepatocytes?
a) liver cirrhosis;
b) chronic hepatitis;
c) chronic hepatitis;
d) liver atrophy.
A
d) liver atrophy.
24
Q
Which pathological condition is least likely to lead to thrombus formation?
a) damage of the endothelium;
b) blood stasis;
c) anticoagulant therapy;
d) increased blood clotting
A
c) anticoagulant therapy
25
In which of the listed pathological processes does a myocardial infarction develop?
a) acute relative ischemia;
b) chronic venous hyperemia in the coronary circulation;
c) chronic relative ischemia in the myocardium;
d) acute absolute ischemia.
d) acute absolute ischemia
26
How can air embolism be proven at autopsy?
a) presence of air in the left heart chamber;
b) presence of air in the right heart chamber;
c) histological examination of the lungs;
d) presence of air in the cerebral vessels.
b) presence of air in the right heart chamber
27
Which cells are not included in the exudate?
a) eosinophilic leukocytes;
b) neutrophilic leukocytes;
c) erythrocytes;
d) epithelioid cells
d) epithelioid cells
28
Which of the following cells are not characteristic of proliferative inflammation?
a. macrophages
b. lymphocytes
c. neutrophilic leukocytes
d. fibroblasts
c. neutrophilic leukocytes
29
The following cells can be involved in the exudate of serous inflammation without one:
a. lymphocytes
b. neutrophilic leukocytes
c. fibroblasts
d. macrophages
c. fibroblasts
30
Indicate in which of the following organs squamous cell carcinoma can develop:
a) esophague;
b) bronchi;
c) stomach
d) skin
a) esophague;
b) bronchi;
d) skin
31
A 65-year-old man has a unilateral pleural effusion rich in atypical cells. For which of the following tumors is this finding common?
a. carcinoma of the stomach
b. mammary gland carcinoma
c. lymphoma
d. carcinoma of the lung
d) carcinoma of the lung.
32
Asbestos plays a role in the etiopathogenesis of which of the following tumors:
a. pleural carcinoma
b. pleural mesothelioma
c. mesothelioma of the peritoneum
d. carcinoma of the larynx
b. pleural mesothelioma
33
Which of the listed neoplasms of the nervous system (NS) are included in the group of undifferentiated and embryonic tumors:
a) neuroblastoma;
b) glioblastoma
c) medulloblastoma
d) neurofibroma
c) medulloblastoma
34
The second group of autoimmune diseases (generalized, non-organ specific) include:
a) multiple sclerosis
b) systemic scleroderma
c) aspermatogeny
d)dermatomytcosis
b) systemic scleroderma
35
Myocardial hypertrophy in the left heart chamber is observed in:
a) hypertensive disease;
b) aortic stenosis;
c) chronic glomerulonephritis;
d) acromegaly
a) hypertensive disease;
b) aortic stenosis;
c) chronic glomerulonephritis;
36
What is the process in which keratinization is established on a section of the stratified epithelium of the buccal mucosa:
a) necrosis;
b) inflammation;
c) metaplasia;
d) hemodynamic disorder.
c) metaplasia
37
Which of the listed histological types of neoplasms develop in the digestive system:
a) adenocarcinoma;
b) undifferentiated carcinoma;
c) papillary cyst adenocarcinoma;
d) Non-Hodgkins lymphoma.
a) adenocarcinoma
38
Which of the following factors are important in the initiation stage of carcinogenesis:
a) tobacco smoke fractions;
b) oncogenic viruses;
c) various chemical substances;
d) bile acids.
a) tobacco smoke fractions
b) oncogenic viruses
c) various chemical substances;
39
Catarrhal inflammation develops in the indicated pathological processes without one:
a) acute rhinitis
b) uremic gastroenterocolitis
c) acute endocarditis
d) acute bronchitis
c) acute endocarditis
40
What are the three main actions of mediators in the formation of the exudate:
a) vasodilatation
b) vasoconstriction
c) chemotaxis
d) increased vascular permeability
a) vasodilatation
c) chemotaxis
d) increased vascular permeability
41
Vesicular stomatitis most often localized on the mucous membrane of:
a. the lips
b. the cheeks
c. the gums
d. the tip of the tongue
a. the lips
b. the cheeks
c. the gums
d. the tip of the tongue
42
Which inflammatory processes of the esophagus are considered independent?
a. Monolyase esophagitis
b. esophagitis in uremia
c. viral esophagitis
d. corrosive
c. viral esophagitis
d. corrosive.
43
What macroscopic observations are seen in Crohn's disease?
a. Linear fissures on the mucous membranes
b. laceration of mucous membranes
c. thickening of the intestinal wall
d. miliary nodules of the serosa.
a. Linear fissures on the mucous membranes
b. laceration of mucous membranes
c. thickening of the intestinal wall
d. miliary nodules of the serosa.
44
Which histological form of carcinoma occurs most often in the anus?
a. Adenocarcinoma
b. squamous cell carcinoma
c. undifferentiated carcinoma
d. gelatinous carcinoma.
b. squamous cell carcinoma
45
What histological characteristics are associated with acute viral hepatitis?
a. Fibrinoid necrosis
b. cell swelling of hepatocytes
c. hemosiderin deposition
d. hydropic degeneration of hepatocytes.
b. cell swelling of hepatocytes
d. hydropic degeneration of hepatocytes.
46
What are the most common damages that develop with liver cirrhosis?
a. Acute left-sided heart failure
b. chronic left heart failure
c. liver failure
d. rupture of esophageal varices.
c. liver failure
d. rupture of esophageal varices.
47
Which morphological sign for right-sided heart failure is incorrect;
a. Muschat (nutmeg) liver
b. congestive splenomegaly
c. congestive edema in the subcutaneous tissue of the low-lying parts of the body.
d. pulmonary edema
d. pulmonary edema
48
Which of the following histological signs are characteristic of malignant hypertension?
a) plasmatic vasculosis;
b) hyperplastic arteriolar sclerosis;
c) fibrinoid vasculosis;
d) perivascular hemorrhages.
b) hyperplastic arteriolar sclerosis;
d) perivascular hemorrhages
49
Which of the following features is not responsible for Goodpasture syndrome?
a) represents an immune process;
b) a picture similar to those of idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis is found in the lungs;
c) is characterized by rapidly progressive renal failure;
d) a picture of chronic glomerulonephritis is found in the kidneys.
d) a picture of chronic glomerulonephritis is found in the kidneys.
50
What are the so-called heart disease cells by their origin?
a) histiocytes;
b) tissue macrophages;
c) fibroblasts;
d) alveolocytes type I.
b) tissue macrophages;
51
Select the characteristic of pulmonary edema.
a) refers to transudate;
b) refers to exudate;
c) the lung increases its mass;
d) the parenchyma has the consistency of a sponge
c) the lung increases its mass;
52
What is the histological equivalent of acute catarrhal bronchitis?
a) hyperemia;
b) metaplasia of the covering epithelium;
c) dysplasia of the covering epithelium of the bronchi;
d) swelling.
a) hyperemia;
d) swelling.
53
Which signs characterize IgA glomerulonephritis?
a) diffuse involvement of the glomeruli;
b) focal and segmental involvement of the glomeruli
c) deposition of all complement fraction
d) deposition of immunoglobulin A.
b) focal and segmental involvement of the glomeruli
d) deposition of immunoglobulin A.
54
Choose the correct kidney changes in Balkan endemic nephropathy.
a) endolateral involvement;
b) damage to both kidneys;
c) severely reduced kidneys;
d) hyalinized glomeruli.
b) damage to both kidneys;
c) severely reduced kidneys;
d) hyalinized glomeruli.
55
What is the state of bone marrow in agranulocytosis?
a. hyperplastic with impaired mutation (to myeblast)
b. hyperplastic with a predominance of adipose tissue
c. a combination of A and B
d. pyogenic
b. hyperplastic with a predominance of adipose tissue
56
In which conditions can iron deficiency anemia develop?
a) stomach or colon cancer;
b) meno- or metrorrhagia;
c) pregnancy;
d) infectious diseases;
a) stomach or colon cancer;
## Footnote
None
57
What causes the obliteration of lymph node structure in Hodgkin's disease?
a) lymphocytes and lymphoblasts;
b) macrophages
c) eosinophilie leukocytes
d) epitheliod cells
a) lymphocytes and lymphoblasts;
58
What occurs in the pituitary gland in Sheehan's disease?
a) craniopharyngioma
b) chromophobe adenoma
c) hyperplasia of eosinophilic cells
d) necrosis and hamorrhage in the anterior lobe
d) necrosis and hamorrhage in the anterior lobe
59
choose the correct answer for carcinoma in situ
a) observed only in the cervix
b) can metastasize
c) it can also develop in places where the epithelium is normally cylindrical;
d)represents a true carcinoma
c) it can also develop in places where the epithelium is normally cylindrical;
d)represents a true carcinoma
60
What type of tumor is a seminoma of the testicle?
a) mesenchymal tumor
b) epithelial tumor
c) germ cell tumor
d) mixed tumor
c) germ cell tumor
61
Where are morphological changes in fibrinous esophagitis localized?
a) the mucous membrane;
b) the submucosal layer;
c) the musculature of the esophagus;
d) the serosa.
a) the mucous membrane;
62
Where are esophageal varices highly dilated veins located?
a) the musculature of the esophagus;
b) the subserosa of the esophagus;
c) under the lining of the esophagus;
d) none of the above.
c) under the lining of the esophagus
63
Where is carcinoma of the esophagus most often located?
a) its upper third
b) in its physiological constrictions
c) in its anatomical constrictions
d) there is no correct answer.
b) in its physiological constrictions
64
What are the most common benign tumors of the colon?
a) adenocarcinomas
b) tubular adenoma
c) villous adenomas
d) Abrikosov's rhabdomyoma.
b) tubular adenoma
65
Which viruses are important for the occurrence of acute viral hepatitis?
a) type A
b) type B
c) type C
d) type D
a) type A
b) type B
c) type C
d) type D
66
What is the constitution of the liver in cirrhosis?
a) soft
b) porridge-like
c) stringy-dense
d) does not differ from normal
c) stringy-dense
67
What is the most severe form of acute cholecystitis?
a) catarrhal
b) fibrinous
c) purulent
d) the gangrenous
d) the gangrenous
68
Choose the correct answers for the causes that can lead to heart failure:
a) myocarditis;
b) systemic hypertension;
c) cardiomyopathies;
d) chronic lung diseases
a) myocarditis;
b) systemic hypertension;
c) cardiomyopathies;
d) chronic lung diseases
69
Mark in which disease diffuse interstitial fibrosis cannot develop in the lungs:
a) scleroderma;
b) pneumoconiosis;
c) systemic lupus erythematosus;
d) bacterial pneumonia
d) bacterial pneumonia
70
Which of the following signs are characteristic of bronchus cancer:
a) the one with a peripheral location is the most common;
b) central cancer is the most common;
c) most often the central carcinoma is squamous cell type;
d) peripheral carcinoma more often has an adenomatous structure;
b) central cancer is the most common;
c) most often the central carcinoma is squamous cell type;
d) peripheral carcinoma more often has an adenomatous structure;
71
11. What are the complications of acute bronchiolitis
a) atelectasis
b) local pneumonia
c) death
d) chronic obstructive bronchiolitis;
a) atelectasis
b) local pneumonia
c) death
d) chronic obstructive bronchiolitis;
72
For which type of glomerulonephritis is the macroscopic picture of a "large
white kidney "
a) renal amyloidosis;
b) lupus nephropathy:
c) diffuse mesangiocapillary GN;
d) diffuse endocapillary proliferative GN:
a) renal amyloidosis;
73
State the changes in analgesic nephropathy regardless of the stage of its development
a) papillary necrosis:
b) affects both kidneys;
c) shrivelling of the kidneys;
d) abscesses in the parenchyma:
a) papillary necrosis:
b) affects both kidneys;
c) shrivelling of the kidneys;
d) abscesses in the parenchyma:
74
Which cells are not involved in the exudate in serous meningitis;
a) lymphocytes;
b) plasma cells;
c) fibroblasts:
d) macrophages
c) fibroblasts:
75
Hemolytic anemia develops in:
a) congenital reduced resistance of erythrocytes;
b) traumatic damage to erythrocytes in patients with heart valvular processes
c) hypoxia associated with severe respiratory failure.
d) dietary iron deficiency:
a) congenital reduced resistance of erythrocytes;
b) traumatic damage to erythrocytes in patients with heart valvular processes
76
In cat-scratch disease, lymph nodes are enlarged in the listed areas except:
a) cervical
b) inguinal!
c) generalized peripheral
d) femoral
c) generalized peripheral
77
Acromegaly is a disease that is due to.
a) adrenal gland adenoma:
b) somatotropinoma;
c) microcarcinoma of the thyroid gland;
d) seminoma
b) somatotropinoma;
78
Myxedema is an expression of;
a) hyperthyroidism
b) immune deficiency:
c) hypothyroidism;
d) fibrinoid necrosis
c) hypothyroidism;
79
Carcinoma of the prostate gland develops in
a) early childhood:
b) adolescence:
c) adulthood
d) old age
d) old age
80
Which pericarditis rarely becomes chronic:
a) purulent
b) fibrinous:
c) tuberculous;
d) serous
d) serous
81
What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?
C. Calor, ruber, tumor, dolor, functio laesa
C. Calor, ruber, tumor, dolor, functio laesa
82
True or false? A localized collection of pus within an organ or tissues is called an Abscess
A. True
B. False
A. True
83
During the inflammatory response, what do mast cells release?
A. Chemicals
B. Histamine
C. Toxins
D. None of the above
B. Histamine
84
Causes of necrosis includes
A. Injury
B. Cancer
C. Infection
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
85
What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?
A. Adenoma
B. Lipoma
C. Fibrosarcoma
D. Adenocarcinoma
B. Lipoma
86
What does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
A. The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumour cells
B. Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer
C. The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumours
D. The effects of multiple metastatic tumours
A. The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumour cells
B. Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer
C. The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumours
87
The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with:
A. Exposure to promotors causing dysplasia
B. Development of defective genes
C. An irreversible change in the cell DNA
D. A single exposure to a known risk factor causing temporary cell damage
C. An irreversible change in the cell DNA
88
Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include
A. Albumin and fibrinogen
B. Pyrogens and cell enzymes
C. Macrophages and neutrophils
D. Histamine and prostaglandins
D. Histamine and prostaglandins
89
Edema or tissue swelling associated with inflammation results directly from
A. Increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment
B. Increased phagocytes in the affected area
C. Decreased capillary permeability
D. General vasoconstriction
A. Increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment
90
During an inflammatory response erythema is caused by
A. Vasodilation in the area
B. Increased capillary permeability
C. Irritation of sensory nerve endings by histamine
D. Increased leukocytes in the area
A. Vasodilation in the area
91
Which is the best description of granulation tissue
A. Multiple layers of collagen fibres and epithelial cells
B. Several layers of new epithelial cells
C. White fibrous tissue
D. Fibroblast and vascular endothelial cells
D. Fibroblast and vascular endothelial cells
92
In the process of necrosis, a reduction in the size of the nucleus and a condensation of
nuclear material is known as:
A. Pyknosis
B. Karyolysis
C. Karyorrhexis
D. Metachromasia
E. Hypochromasia
A. Pyknosis
93
The most common underlying cause of fat emboli syndrome is:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Enzymatic fat necrosis
C. Fractures of long bones
D. Trauma of subcutaneous soft tissue E. Steatosis
C. Fractures of long bones
94
Psammoma bodies are seen in which neoplasm?
A. Astrocytoma
B. Meningioma
C. Glioblastoma multiforme
D. Craniopharyngioma
E. Chordoma
B. Meningioma
95
Enzymatic necrosis affecting the pancreas is called:
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Fat necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis
E. Fibrinoid necrosis
C. Fat necrosis
96
Urethral obstruction of long standing due to prostatic enlargement leads to which of the
following changes in the urinary bladder muscularis?
A. Atrophy
B. Dysplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Hypertrophy
E. Metaplasia
D. Hypertrophy
97
Haemorrhagic infarction characteristically occurs in the:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Myocardium
E. Pancreas
C. Lungs
98
A major cause of pain in foci of acute inflammation is
A. Bradykinin
B. Complement
C. Histamine
D. Hydrogen peroxide
E. Superoxide
A. Bradykinin
99
The term cancer refers to
A. Dysplasia
B, Hyperplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. Malignant neoplasm
D. Malignant neoplasm
100
The erythema associated with acute inflammation is the result of:
A. Dilation of blood vessels
B. Edema of interstitial tissue
C. Margination of leukocytes
D. Precipitation of fibrin
E. Thrombosis of blood vessels
A. Dilation of blood vessels
101
Give examples of granulomatous inflammation
A. TB, chronic, cervicitis and colitis
B. Duodenal ulcer and histoplasma
C. Pericarditis, TB and peritonitis
D. TB, histoplasma and coccidodes
E. Tuna noodle casserole and tuberculosis
D. TB, histoplasma and coccidodes
102
True or false? Tuberculoma (TB abscess) is a type of purulent inflammation
A. True
B. False
B. False
103
What is chronic inflammation?
A. Is a slower longer process of acute inflammation
B. Autoimmune response to pathogen in the body
C. The cause of many diseases in the body
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
104
Apoptosis is classified as
A. Programmed cell death
B. Non-programmed cell death
C. Accidental cell death
D. Mitotic cell death
A. Programmed cell death
105
What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?
A. Carcinomas
B. Sarcomas
C. Melanomas
D. Fibromas
B. Sarcomas
106
What is the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites called?
A. Invasiveness
B. Seeding
C. Metastasis
D. Systemic effect
C. Metastasis
107
Malignant brain tumour:
A. Metastasize quickly to all parts of the body
B. Spread first to lungs and bone
C. Spread to other parts of CNS
D. Do not metastasize anywhere at any time
D. Do not metastasize anywhere at any time
108
The inflammatory process is caused by
A. Phagocytosis of foreign material
B. Local vasodilation
C. Any tissue injury
D. Formation of purulent exudate
C. Any tissue injury
109
Scar tissue consists primarily of
A. Granulation tissue
B. Epithelial cells
C. Collagen fibres
D. New capillaries and smooth muscle fibre
C. Collagen fibres
110
The number of neutrophils are increased significantly
A. During allergic reactions
B. During chronic inflammation
C. To produce antibodies
D. In order to increase phagocytosis
D. In order to increase phagocytosis
111
The process of phagocytosis involves the
A. Ingestion of foreign material or cell debris by leukocytes
B. Shift of fluid and protein out of capillaries
C. Formation of a fibrin mesh around the infected area
D. Movement of erythrocytes through the capillary wall
A. Ingestion of foreign material or cell debris by leukocytes
112
Most pulmonary thrombosis originates from:
A. Deep long veins
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Pelvic
D. Portal vein
A. Deep long veins
113
The underlying tissue damage in most cases of haemorrhagic infarction of the lungs is:
A. Caseous necrosis
B. Coagulation necrosis
C. Fibrinoid necrosis
D. Gangrenous necrosis
E. Liquefaction necrosis
B. Coagulation necrosis
114
Of the following, the earliest step in the formation of a thrombus is visually
A. Activation of thrombus
B. Development of fibrin plugs
C. Endothelial injury margination of leukocytes
D. Trapping of red cells
C. Endothelial injury margination of leukocytes
115
Parasitic infestations typically provoke:
A. Leukopenia
B. Neutrophilia
C. Eosinophilia
D. Lymphocytosis
E. Lymphopenia
C. Eosinophilia
116
Urethral obstruction of long standing leads to which of the following pathological
changes in the kidneys?
A. Atrophy
B. Dysplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Hypertrophy
E. Metaplasia
A. Atrophy
117
When a left ventricular mural thrombus develops, infarction may result in all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Cerebrum
B. Kidneys
C. Lungs
D. Small intestine
E. Spleen
C. Lungs
118
Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumour and its marker:
A. Colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
B. Hepatic cancer: CA125
C. Prostate cancer: human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
D. Testicular cancer: Philadelphia chromosome
A. Colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
119
Hypertrophy of the heart would be related to:
A. An increase in size of the individual cells
B. An increase in the number of cells in the area
C. Replacement of normal cells by a different type of cells
D. A decrease in the size of individual cells
A. An increase in size of the individual cells
120
A tissue in which the cells vary in size and shape and show increase mitotic figures would
be called:
A. Metaplasia
B. Atrophy
C. Dysplasia
D. Hypertrophy
C. Dysplasia
121
Choose a pathology characterized by atypical mitoses and nuclear polymorphism
a) The large intestine
b) The kidneys
c) The ovaries
d) The liver
a) The large intestine
122
Plays a role in the etiopathogenesis of which of the following tumors
a) Carcinoma of the lung
b) Pleural mesothelioma
c) Mesothelioma of the peritoneum
d) Carcinoma of the larynx
b) Pleural mesothelioma
123
Cytological features characteristic of tuberculosis granuloma
a) Epithelium cells
b) Pseudoeosinophils
c) Fibroblasts
d) Plasmocytes
a) Epithelium cells
124
Tuberculosis epithelium cells are typical for which of the following
a) Large intestine
b) Kidneys
c) Ovaries
d) Liver
b) Kidneys
125
The following diseases have all aspects of allergic inflammation except
a) Rhinitis
b) Sinusitis
c) Pharyngitis
d) Laryngitis
c) Pharyngitis
126
Granulomas contain which cells that demonstrate nuclear polymorphism
a) Fibroblasts
b) Macrophages
c) Lymphocytes
d) Giant cells
d) Giant cells
127
Which physical parameter changes in the cells of renal carcinoma
a) Cytoplasm
b) Nucleus
c) Mitochondria
d) Ribosomes
a) Cytoplasm
128
What is present in renal carcinoma cells that appear optically empty when stained
a) Lipid
b) Glycogen
c) Water
d) Protein
a) Lipid
129
Which granulomas appear optically empty when stained with H&E
a) Caseating
b) Non-caseating
c) Foreign body
d) Fibrinous
a) Caseating
130
Which granulomas appear optically empty when stained with H&E
a) Caseating
b) Non-caseating
c) Foreign body
d) Fibrinous
a) Caseating
131
Transitional cells are present in which of the following granulomas
a) Caseating
b) Non-caseating
c) Foreign body
d) Fibrinous
c) Foreign body
132
Which granulomas appear with a distinct fibrous capsule
a) Caseating
b) Non-caseating
c) Foreign body
d) Fibrinous
c) Foreign body
133
Metaplasia is a process in which
a) One type of epithelium changes into another
b) The physical parameters of the cells change
c) Mitosis occurs
d) The number of cells increases
a) One type of epithelium changes into another
134
Which appear optically empty when stained component is typical in the cytoplasm of
renal carcinoma cells, which
a) Lipid
b) Glycogen
c) Water
d) Protein
a) Lipid
135
. The following diseases are allergic except one
a) Rhinitis
b) Laryngitis
c) Rheumatism
d) Tuberculosis
d)Tuberculosis
136
Abscesses are observed in which of the listed granulomas
a) Wegener’s granulomatosis
b) Temporal arteritis
c) Crohn’s disease
d) Tuberculosis
a) Wegener’s granulomatosis
