Microbio Flashcards

1
Q

Inherently resistant antibiotics

A

bacteria lack a pathway or target which a drug interacts with, or the drug is unable to gain access to the target.

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2
Q

Acquired antibiotic resistance

A

where a bacteria which was previously sensitive has gained some genetic material encoding for resistance.

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3
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms of antibiotic resistance?

A

1) Inactivating enzymes that cause alteration/degradation of antibiotic
2) Mutation of target site where antibiotic normally binds
3) Decreasing the permeability of the cell to the drug, meaning that the concentration required for the drug to be effective is not achieved
4) Export the drug from inside the cell (efflux pumps)

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4
Q

How do bacteria acquire genes mediating resistance?

A

1) chromosomal mutations can arise
2) Conjugation - acquisition of a mobile piece of DNA . i.e. Receiving a plasmid bearing a resistance gene from another bacterium directly. (requires cell-cell contact)
3) DNA uptake from the environment through transformation
4) Receiving a resistance gene from another bacterium by viral transfection.

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5
Q

What is the difference between horizontal and vertical gene transfer?

A

VERTICAL
genetic information is transferred from parent cell to progeny via binary fission.

HORIZONTAL
genes are transferred other than through traditional reproduction (can be between different species!)

primary reason for antibiotic resistance.

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6
Q

Plasmids

A

pieces of circular double stranded DNA

Can either exist free within the cell or become integrated into the host chromosome

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7
Q

Fitness cost and selection pressure

A

Because antibiotics attack important biological functions in a cell, mutations to avoid these antibiotics may also result in changes to the normal functioning of the bacterial cell.

These mutations may result in a reduced growth rate - known as a fitness cost

In an environment without a selective pressure, these slower growing mutants will be outgrown by the wild type bacteria and will slowly die away.

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8
Q

How do beta lactams work?

A

hydrolyse the beta lactam ring

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9
Q

What are Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamases?

A

enzymes which are able to hydrolyse the beta-lactam ring of penicillins and cephalosporins

Treat with meropenem (carbapenem)

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10
Q

Which enzymes are able to hydrolyse meropenem?

A

carbapenemases

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11
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa antimicrobial resistance

A

multiple modifying enzymes

porin down regulation

4 efflux pumps

generally more resistant to antibiotics than other Gram negatives

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12
Q

Name 3 Non-genetic mechanisms of resistance

A

1) Protected environment (e.g. abscess. May require lancing)
2) Resting stage - Bacteria which are not dividing are less susceptible to cell wall inhibiting agents e.g. TB
3) Presence of a foreign body - immune system is not as effective in the presence of a foreign body + BIOFILM

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13
Q

How does biofilm lead to resistance?

A

The close proximity of bacteria to each other facilitates gene exchange

The channels for diffusion of nutrients are sometimes too small for antibiotics to penetrate well.

At the bottom of the biofilm, nutrients penetrate in smaller amounts, so the bacteria replicate slower making them less susceptible to cell wall agents.

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14
Q

biofilm

A

highly organised and complex bacterial community with channels for diffusion of water, oxygen and nutrients.

can form on the surface of prostheses and catheters

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15
Q

Debridement

A

removal of dead, damaged, or infected tissue to improve the healing potential of the remaining healthy tissue

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16
Q

Ways to prevent spread of resistance

A

use narrow spectrum drugs where possible

Follow the empirical prescribing guidance

Using short courses of antibiotics where possible

Only use meropenem when absolutely necessary

Limit non-medical uses of antibiotics

infection control measures

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17
Q

What are the 3 main kinds of conditions seen in returning travellers?

A

GI disease

Nonspecific febrile illness

Skin manifestations, including sun damage

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18
Q

What are some causative organisms of travellers diarrhoea?

A
  • Enterotoxigenic E.coli
  • Enteroaggregative E.coli
  • Campylobacter
  • Salmonella
  • Norovirus – one of the most common causes of travelers diarrhea
  • Rotavirus – in children
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19
Q

most common causes of undifferentiated fever (systemic febrile illness) by region

A
  • Subsaharan Africa - Malaria
  • SE Asia - Dengue fever
  • Central Asia – typhoid
  • Caribbean – dengue fever
  • Americas – dengue/malaria
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20
Q

Which illnesses are transmitted by the Aedes (tiger mosquito)

A

chikungunya, yellow fever, dengue fever

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21
Q

Malaria: plasmodium life cycle

A

involves two hosts:

During a blood meal, a malaria-infected female Anopheles mosquito inoculates her saliva (containing sporozoites) under the skin

Sporozoites progress through the blood to the liver . infect liver cells and mature into schizonts

shizonts rupture and release merozoites, which infect red blood cells .

undergo asexual multiplication in the erythrocytes and cause cell lysis
o this is when you get symptoms
o Blood stage parasites are responsible for the clinical manifestations of the disease

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22
Q

Malaria diagnosis

A

Antigen testing (rapid diagnostic test)

Blood films:
o thick films
o thin films – can be used to determine whether the patient has falciparum/nonfalciparum malaria

PCR – can be used to determine whether the patient has falciparum/nonfalciparum malaria
o Not widely used outside of research centres

NB: you need 3 negative antigen tests to rule out malaria

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23
Q

Clinical features of malaria

A

o Fever
o Headache
o myalgia

  • Anaemia
  • Jaundice
  • Renal impairment – particularly in falciparum malaria
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24
Q

How is severe malaria defined?

A

o Parasitaemia >2%

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25
Q

Malaria treatment

A

Riamet (fewer side effects)

Quinine and Doxycycline

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26
Q

Malaria Chemoprophylaxis

A

Mefloquine (Larium)
o Once weekly but psychiatric side effects

Doxycycline
o Antibiotic
o Daily
o Photosensitisation

Malarone
o Atovaquone/proguanil
o Minimal side effects
o Cost

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27
Q

Enteric Fever

A

o Salmonella typhi
o Salmonella paratyphi

(typhoid and paratyphoid)

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28
Q

Typhoid transmission

A
  • Human reservoir only (no animal reservoir)
  • Human to human
  • Faecally-contaminated food/water
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29
Q

typhoid pathogenesis

A
  • Consumption of contaminated water or food
  • Organism is ingested
  • Invades through peyers patches in small intestine
  • Infects the reticuloendothelial system
  • patient eventually become bacteraemic – this is when it becomes clinically symptomatic

NB: this is a blood infection, not a gut infection. It does not necessarily cause diarrhoea

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30
Q

symptoms of typhoid

A
Fever
Headache
myalgia
cough
abdominal pain
constipation
diarrhoea

can resent with neurological manifestations

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31
Q

Treatment of typhoid

A

Quinolones
o Most effective agents

Cephalosporins
o Empiric therapy
o Longer courses required (14 days)

Azithromycin
o Oral option for treatment

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32
Q

What is the most common mosquito-borne virus in the world?

A

dengue fever

Spread by the aedes mosquito
Day biting

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33
Q

symptoms of dengue fever

A

“Breakbone Fever”
o Headache
o Fever
o Arthralgia/myalgia

o	Rash – faint macular rash resembling sunburn
o	Cough
o	Sore throat 
o	Nausea
o	Diarrhoea
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34
Q

Clinical presentation of haemorrhagic fever

A

Initially non-specific febrile illness:
o Fever
o Myalgia
o Headache

then become profoundly thrombocytopaenic and start bleeding from mucous membranes
o Haemoptysis
o PR bleeding
o Bleeding from venflon sites

• Septic shock results, this is what tends to kill people

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35
Q

What would you prescribe for a Severe/life-threatening infection?

A

Urgent blood cultures the antibiotics within one hour

Usually IV combination Rx (Beta lactam + Gentamicin) initially

e.g. amoxicillin + gentamicin

if penicillin allergic: vancomycin + gentamicin

if s. aureus suspected: amoxicillin + gentamicin + flucloxacillin

If streptococcal infection suspected: amoxicillin + gentamicin + clindamycin

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36
Q

What patient groups is staph aureus infection associated with?

A

healthcare-associated infections (e.g. nursing home residents or recent hospitalisation)

IVDU

wound infections/recent ost-op

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37
Q

What is Safety netting?

A

“if symptoms get worse come and see me”

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38
Q

What is IVOST?

A

Adult IV to Oral Antibiotic Switch Therapy

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39
Q
24 year old female
Previously well
Frequency and dysuria for 24 hours
Presents to GP
Urine dip stick +ve for leucocytes and nitrites

What is the diagnosis and what would you do?

A

Uncomplicated UTI

Recommend Fluids and analgesia (NSAID)

If antibiotics are prescribed - Trimethoprim or Nitrofurantoin in lower UTI
3 days (women) 
7 days (men)
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40
Q

sepsis can be underrepresented as older patients. what are reasons for this?

A

may have a blunted inflammatory response

rather than having a high temperature, their fever may be masked by e.g. NSAID use

patient may be on a beta blocker - masks tachycardia

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41
Q

19 year old female
Sore throat, headache, neck pain
Rash
History of Penicillin allergy

BP 85/50
HR 124 bpm
RR 28
Temp 38.5

“Looks well”

What is the differential?

A

patient is septic
young people are able to appear well even when they are very unwell

meningitis

strep pyogenes infection - can often present without sore throat. neck pain is due to glands enlarging

Rash is a blanching erythrodema.
Patient has scarlet fever. She is developing streptococcal toxic shock

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42
Q

Sepsis

A

likely or confirmed infection + organ dysfunction

Life-threatening organ dysfunction which occurs as a result of a dysregulated host response to an infection

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43
Q

Sequential Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) score

A

Predicts ICU mortality in septic patients

Used to quantify the extent of organ failure

score of ≥ 2 = sepsis

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44
Q

“Quick SOFA” score

A

= Confusion or Hypotension or Tachypnoea

Systolic BP < 100mmHg
Altered mental status
Respiratory rate > 22 breaths/min

⅔ quick sofa = mortality ~10%
3/3 quick sofa = mortality ~30%

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45
Q

SIRS

A

HR > 90
Temp >38 or <36
Respiratory rate >20
WCC >12 or <4

Remember: tachy tachy whitey tempy

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46
Q

Sepsis 6 (intervention tool)

A

All to be performed within 1 hour of sepsis recognition
BUFALO

Blood cultures
Urine output
Fluid resuscitation
Antibiotics IV
Lactate measurement
Oxygen to correct hypoxia
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47
Q

Neutropaenia definition

A

WCC <0.5 x 10^9/L or <1.0 x 10^9/L & falling

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48
Q

Name 2 causes of neutropaenia

A

cytotoxic chemotherapy
therapeutic irradiation

both cause reduced proliferation of HSC, which leads to depletion of marrow reserves, causing neutropaenia

can also affect neutrophil function

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49
Q

Name 4 Gram positive cocci

A

Staph aureus
coagulase negative staph
enterococci
strep viridans

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50
Q

Name 2 anaerobes

A

Bacteriodes

Clostridia

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51
Q

Name 4 Gram negative bacilli

A

E. coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Enterobacter

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52
Q

Name 2 fungal species

A

Candida

Aspergillus

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53
Q

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

A

Inherited defect in neutrophil function

Defect in gene coding for NADPH oxidase

  • causes deficient production of oxygen radicals
  • defective intracellular killing

Recurrent bacterial & fungal infections and widespread granulomatous inflammation (neutrophils are recruited to the site of infections but they are not effective, so more neutrophils are recruited)

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54
Q

Give 5 causes of suppressed cellular immunity

A
DiGeorge syndrome
cytotoxic chemotherapy
irradiation
lymphoma
immunosuppressive therapy
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55
Q

Give 3 causes of reduced humoral immunity

A

Bruton agammaglobulinaemia

lymphoproliferative disorders

radiotherapy/chemotherapy

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56
Q

hypogammaglobulinaemia

A

state of deficiency of plasma gamma globulins and impairment of antibody formation

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57
Q

Severe nutritional deficiency

A

<75% ideal body weight or

Rapid weight loss + Hypoalbuminaemia

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58
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

“PCP”
fungus
causes severe lung infections

common in transplant recipients
most common opportunistic infection in persons with HIV infection

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59
Q

Aspergillus

A

fungus

commonly affects patients who have had chemotherapy or febrile neutropaenia

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60
Q

HSV in patients who are immunocompromised

A

can be very out of control in patients who are immunocompromised

can affect many different parts of the body - skin, brain, lungs, etc.

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61
Q

VZV complication in the immunocompromised

A

shingles

can cause pneumonitis (inflammation of the walls of the alveoli)

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62
Q

Most common pathogens in neutropaenic cancer patients

A

gram positive bacteria

e.g. staph aureus, listeria

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63
Q

FEVER definition

A

Pyrexia OR Hypothermia

temperature > 38C or < 36C

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64
Q

SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome)

A

inflammatory state affecting the whole body

2 or more of:

1) body temp <36 or >38
2) HR >90bpm
3) respiratory rate >20
4) white cell count <4x10^9 or >12x10^9

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65
Q

SEPSIS

A

EVIDENCE OF INFECTION (including SIRS) + ORGAN DYSFUNCTION

i.e. ≥ 1 of:
hypotension
confusion
tachypnoea (Resp Rate ≥22/minute)

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66
Q

SEPTIC SHOCK

A

septic shock = sepsis + hypotension despite fluid resuscitation

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67
Q

Which groups are at the highest risk of viral gastroenteritis?

A

Children under age 5
Elderly - especially in nursing home
Immunocompromised

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68
Q

Transmission of norovirus

A

faecal-oral

aerosolised e.g. by toilet flush

fomites - objects or materials which are likely to carry infection, such as clothes, utensils, and furniture.

NB: Contaminated hands are probably the single most common vector for the spread of Norovirus

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69
Q

Is norovirus enveloped or non-enveloped? What is the significance of this?

A

Non-enveloped. This makes it very stable

non-enveloped viruses can survive outside the body on surfaces etc.

may remain viable for long periods of time in the environment

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70
Q

symptoms of norovirus

A
Vomiting
Diarrhoea
Nausea
Abdominal cramps
Viral symptoms - Headache, muscle aches

Dehydration common in young and elderly

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71
Q

Norovirus immunity

A

antibodies are developed to norovirus, but immunity only lasts 6-14 weeks.

some people are more susceptible to norovirus than others

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72
Q

Rotavirus

A

Double stranded, non enveloped RNA virus
Mainly transmitted person to person via faeco-oral or fomites

generally doesn’t affect healthy adults -> children, elderly and immunocompromised

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73
Q

Norovirus structure

A

Non enveloped, single stranded RNA virus

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74
Q

Symptoms of rotavirus:

A

Watery diarrhoea
Abdominal pain
Vomiting
Loss of electrolytes leading to dehydration

NB: 1st infection after age 3 months is usually the most severe, but doesn’d lead to permanent antibodies
this is because a breast fed baby is covered by the mum’s antibidoes for the first three months of life

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75
Q

Rotarix®

A

rotavirus vaccine

live attenuated vaccine

Oral vaccine

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76
Q

Adenovirus

A

Double stranded DNA virus
non-enveloped

Remember: aDenovirus is a DNA virus

77
Q

Adenovirus symptoms

A

fever and watery diarrhoea

78
Q

Astrovirus

A

Single stranded, non enveloped RNA virus

79
Q

Detection of viral infections

A

detected by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

this detects the DNA or RNA

Samples: vomit or stool

80
Q

All of the following cause viral gastroenteritis except:

Rotavirus
Norovirus
Adenovirus 42 &amp; 43 
Astrovirus
Sapovirus
A

Adenovirus 42 & 43

Adenovirus 40 & 41 cause gastroenteritis

81
Q

The most important consideration of the treatment of diarrhoea is:

– Antibiotics
– Antivirals
– Antispasmodics
– Salt and fluid replacement 
– Vaccines
A

Salt and fluid replacement

82
Q

The following are spread via the faeco oral route except:

Norovirus
Rotavirus
Poliovirus 
Hepatitis D
Hepatitis E
A

Hepatitis D - co-infection with Hepatitis B, same forms of transmission

83
Q

How are viral RTIs transmitted?

A

through the respiratory tract and conjunctiva

aerosol particles and indirect transmission via contaminated surfaces

84
Q

Causes of the common cold

A

Rhinovirus

Coronavirus

85
Q

how can you differentiate between viral and bacterial pharyngitis?

A

Nasal symptoms = viral

Without nasal symptoms = bacterial

86
Q

what is the most common cause of viral pharyngitis?

A

Adenovirus

NB: pharyngitis is a common HIV seroconversion illness

87
Q

what is the most common cause of croup?

A

parainfluenza viruses 1-4

88
Q

Bronchiolitis

A

Lower respiratory tract infection of young children

Causes:

  • Wheezing, tachycardia
  • bronchiole narrowing makes it harder for the child to breathe. This causes tachycardia and exceptional fatigue → hospitalisation
89
Q

what is the most common cause of Bronchiolitis?

A

RSV

90
Q

Treatment of RSV

A

Ribivirin (broad spectrum antiviral agent)

91
Q

Complications of influenza infection

A

Otitis media
sinusitis
dehydration (infants)

Causes 2 types of pneumonia:

primary viral influenza pneumonia - very rapid
very high mortality rate -> diffuse haemorrhagic pneumonia

bacterial pneumonia
patient has influenza and appears to recover.
4-14 days later, the patient develops fever, cough productive sputum and basal consolidation on CXR

92
Q

Influenza Treatment

A

1) Neuraminidase Inhibitors
inhibit a protein found on the surface of the influenza virus that allows the progeny virus to leave the cell and infect other cells

2) M2 inhibitors
M2 is a protein present only in influenza A (enables viral uncoating). Inhibition prevent viral uncoating. Not effective against type B

93
Q

What form of influenza is only found in humans?

A

Type B

94
Q

What form of influenza demonstrates Antigenic shift?

A

Reassortment of gene segments involving 2 different influenza viruses → produces new virus subtypes

This occurs from the recombinant of different virus strains when they infect the same cell

Only occurs in influenza A, because it infects different animals

95
Q

What is an influenza pandemic?

A

worldwide epidemics of a newly emerged strain of influenza
Occurs due to antigenic shift

Few, if any, people have any immunity to the new virus
This allows the new virus to spread widely, easily, and to cause more serious illness

96
Q

Why does antigenic shift often occur in pigs?

A

bird flu and human flu have different preferred receptors, but both are found in pigs

therefore both a bird and human flu can infect a pig

when the two viruses are replicating in the pig, some segments from the segmented influenza genome will cross over and come together to form a new virus

97
Q

What are the most common causative organisms of soft tissue and bone infections?

A

Gram positive organisms

  • MSSA or MRSA
  • Streptococci (S. pyogenes, Group G Strep, pneumococcus (commoner in children))
98
Q

duration of treatment for bone infections

A

At least 2 weeks IV antibiotics.

often 3 weeks IV antibiotics followed by 3 weeks oral

99
Q

Resection arthroplasty

A

taking the diseased joint out and putting in an artificial one

100
Q

Arthrodesis

A

Fusing two bones together

101
Q

Risk factors for joint infections

A

Primary Arthroplasty:
Rheumatoid arthritis - abnormal anatomy of joint
Diabetes mellitus - risk factor for all infections
Poor nutritional status
Obesity
Steroids

Revision Arthroplasty:
Prior joint surgery
Prolonged operating room time
Pre-op infection (teeth, skin, UTI)

102
Q

3 most common causative organisms of prosthetic joint infections

A

1) staph aureus
2) CoNS (not seen in native joint infections)
3) streptococci

103
Q

why does a prosthesis requires fewer bacteria to establish sepsis than soft tissue does?

A

1) Biofilm aspect
2) Avascular surface allows survival of bacteria as it protects from circulating immunological defences and most antibiotics
3) Cement can inhibit phagocytosis and lymphocyte/complement function - macrophages get clogged up with cement

104
Q

surgical management of PJI: DAIR

A

DAIR to Leave the Infected Joint In

Debride, Antibiotics, Implant Retained

If prosthesis infection is acute (<30 days since insertion), then it is still mechanically functional and can be kept

infected tissues should be debrided and the joint washed out to reduce the burden of infection then IV antibiotics started for 4-6 weeks.

105
Q

surgical options for management of PJI:

A

DAIR: Debride, Antibiotics, Implant Retained (<30 days)

Joint removal (>30 days) - take out prosthesis and all cement

106
Q

Antibiotic therapy in PJI

A

use anti-biofilm agents:

  • ciprofloxacin
  • rifampicin

Abx need to penetrate bone

107
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Progressive infection of bone characterised by death of bone and the formation of sequestra

108
Q

Vertebral discitis

A

Infection of a disc space and adjacent vertebral end plates.

Can be very destructive with deformity -> spinal instability risking cord compression, paraplegia and disability.

NB: Can be caused by TB

109
Q

Most common cause of pneumonia

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

110
Q

Typical causes of pneumonia

A

streptococcus pneumoniae
haemphilus influenza type b
moraxella

111
Q

Atypical causes of pneumonia

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae
legionella pneumoniae
chlamydophila pneumoniae

112
Q

risk factors for pneumonia

A
alcohol
smoking 
airway disease
Influenza 
Immunocompromise (especially HIV)
113
Q

Typical presentation of pneumonia

A

symptoms:

  • Abrupt Onset Cough
  • Fever
  • Pleuritic chest pain

Classic signs of consolidation on examination

  • Dull percussion
  • Coarse crepitations
  • Increased vocal resonance

consolidation seen on CXR

114
Q

treatment for Streptococcus pneumoniae/Haemophilus influenzae pneumonia

A

amoxicillin

If allergic:
Macrolides (clarithromycin)
Tetracyclines (doxycycline)

115
Q

what is the most common atypical cause of pneumonia?

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

116
Q

mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia presentation

A

Often a non-specific presentation

flu-like symptoms
cough will not be the major symptom

Clinical features outwith the lungs:
Haemolysis
Guillain-Barre syndrome 
Erythema multiforme - target lesions across the body
Reactive Arthritis
117
Q

M. pneumoniae: treatment

A

Beta lactams tend to not be effective → No cell wall

Instead, use antibiotics with an intracellular mechanism:
Macrolides (clarithromycin)
Tetracyclines (doxycycline)
Quinolones (ciprofloxacin)

118
Q

What would be the most common cause of pneumonia in a person exposed to a contaminated water system (hotel/jacuzzi)?

A

Legionella pneumophila

119
Q

Legionella pneumonia presentation

A

headache
fever
malaise

120
Q

Legionella diagnosis

A

most commonly diagnosed by a urine dipstick for urinary antigens

121
Q

Legionella treatment

A

Beta lactams tend to not be effective → No cell wall

Instead, use antibiotics with an intracellular mechanism:
Macrolides (clarithromycin)
Tetracyclines (doxycycline)
Quinolones (ciprofloxacin)

122
Q

Clinical assessment for severe pneumonia

A

CURB65 score

C - Confusion
U- Urea>7
R – Respiratory rate ≥ 30
B – BP hypotension, diastolic <60 or systolic <90 
65 – Age over 65 years

score >2 = Severe pneumonia
Mortality increase with score 2 or more

123
Q

which factors always indicate severe pneumonia (independent of CURB65 score)

A

Multilobar consolidation on CXR and/or Hypoxia on room air

ALWAYS = SEVERE PNEUMONIA

124
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

● obligate aerobe and intracellular pathogen
● usually infects mononuclear phagocytes.
● Forms very slow growing colonies

125
Q

Risk Factors for TB

A
●	Close contact (relative) with TB
●	Immunocompromised e.g. HIV
●	Drug/Alcohol abuse
●	Homelessness
●	overcrowded, poorly ventilated enclosed spaces
126
Q

Stages of TB

A
  • Primary infection (usually asymptomatic)
  • Latent infection (dormant)
  • Active infection
127
Q

Ghon focus

A

Seen in TB

granulomatous tubercle that has undergone caseous necrosis

128
Q

Ghon complex

A

ghon focus + lymph nodes

129
Q

How does TB spread to non-pulmonary sites?

A

infected macrophages migrate to regional lymph nodes
where they access the bloodstream.

Organisms may then spread hematogenously to any part of the body

130
Q

Secondary TB

A

Reactivation of primary infection or reinfection.

o Any organ initially seeded may become a site of reactivation, but occurs most often in the lung apices

Any form of immunocompromisation may allow reactivation.

131
Q

Miliary TB

A

Aggressive form of TB that occurs throughout the whole lung.

Granuloma erodes into blood (bloodborne dissemination) or lymph vessels and the bacilli spread around the lungs

Predominantly seen in immunocompromised (HIV)

132
Q

What is the most common extrapulmonary presentation of TB?

A

TB lymphadenopathy

Also:

  • CNS TB
  • Renal TB
133
Q

TB symptoms

A

Cough - more productive (green/yellow sputum) as the disease progresses.

Low-grade fever

Drenching night sweats

Dyspnoea

Haemoptysis - only with cavitary TB

NB: With HIV coinfection, the clinical presentation is often atypical because DTH is impaired. Patients are more likely to have symptoms of extrapulmonary or disseminated disease.

134
Q

Diagnosis of TB

A

• Sputum testing is the mainstay for diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis

  • Chest x-ray
  • Acid-fast stain and culture
  • Tuberculin skin test (TST) or interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA)
135
Q

Classical CXR findings in TB

A

multinodular infiltrate above or behind the clavicle

136
Q

Mantoux Reaction

A

M. tuberculosis is injected just under the skin to create a local immune response.

positive in both latent and active infection and thus cannot distinguish between the two

A well-demarcated bleb or wheal should result immediately.

diameter measured 48 to 72 h after injection.

137
Q

dutation of Drug Treatment of Tuberculosis

A

● Long duration – 6 months

● Combination of drugs to reduce rise of resistance

138
Q

TB treatment regimen

A

● Rifampicin
● Isoniazid
● Pyrazinamide (stop after 2 months)
● Ethambutol (stop after 2 months)

NB: Give prophylactic pyridoxine to prevent neuropathy caused by isoniazid

139
Q

Which bodily fluids can HIV can be transmitted from an infected person to another through? Which has the highest viral load?

A
  • Blood (including menstrual blood)
  • Semen
  • Vaginal secretions
  • Breast milk

Blood contains the highest concentration of the virus, followed by semen, followed by vaginal fluids, followed by breast milk.

140
Q

Activities that Allow HIV Transmission

A
  • Anal or vaginal intercourse
  • Injecting drugs + sharing needles
  • Mother-to-child transmission (before / during birth, or through breast milk)
  • Transmission in health care settings
  • Transmission via donated blood or blood clotting factors
141
Q

How does HIV infection cause depletion of CD4 T helper cells?

A
  • Direct viral killing of cells
  • Apoptosis of uninfected “bystander cells”
  • CD8+ cytotoxic T cell killing of infected CD4+cells
142
Q

HIV structure

A

• Double stranded RNA

Has its own enzymes
• Reverse transcriptase
• Protease
• Integrase

143
Q

HIV life cycle

A

1) Virus adheres to CD4 and then adheres to chemokine receptor.
2) Fusion and uncoating → release of RNA.
3) Reverse transcriptase (RT) in virion makes DNA.
4) DNA becomes integrated in the host DNA (integrase)
5) production of viral proteins to form a virion.
6) Virion buds from the cell.

144
Q

viral latency (HIV)

A

long asymptomatic period between initial infection and advanced HIV

NB: virus continues to replicate

145
Q

CD4 cell count

A

used as a marker of immune function

Important to know for HIV therapy

Marks when to start prophylaxis against opportunistic infections

Risk of opportunistic infection increases sharply below 200/mm3. Threshold for treatment = 350

146
Q

HIV-1 plasma RNA

A

(Viral load test)

  • Determines the level of HIV in the blood
  • Marker for how well treatment is working

“Undetectable” = <40 copies/ml

147
Q

Most common opportunistic infections seen with HIV

A
  • PCP - pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
  • CMV
  • Candida
148
Q

Natural history of HIV infection

A

Virus quickly replicates after infection – initial high viral load. Attacks immune system – resulting in depleted CD4 count

May have symptoms of acute seroconversion

Immune response mounts against the virus – viral load is reduced
• CD4 count recovers somewhat
• Clinically latent period ensues. may be asymptomatic for many years.

median time from initial infection to the development of AIDS among untreated patients is 8 to 10 years.

progressive loss of immune function. Constitutional symptoms occur as CD4 count dwindles
• Diarrhoea
• Oesophageal candida

depletion of the CD4+ T-lymphocytes leads to opportunistic infections and malignancies

149
Q

symptoms of acute seroconversion

A
nonspecific and self-limiting:
–	Fever
–	Myalgia
–	Headaches
–	Maculopapular rash
150
Q

Primary HIV Infection - Differential Diagnosis

A
  • Infectious mononucleosis
  • Secondary syphilis
  • Drug rash
  • Other viral infections – CMV, Rubella, Influenza, Parvovirus
151
Q

HAART

A

Highly Active AntiRetroviral Treatment
• ‘triple therapy’ (cART = combined ART)
• 2 nucleosides
• 1 drug from another class

Tries to target the virus at different stages of its replication cycle

Aim to suppress viral load to undetectable

152
Q

Challenges with ART

A
  • Good adherence (>95%) essential
  • Psychological impact
  • Stigma
  • Self-stigma
  • Short term side-effects
  • Drug-drug interactions
  • Emerging longer term toxicities
153
Q

Gonorrhoea

A
  • caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
  • Gram negative intracellular diplococci

Men typically develop purulent urethral discharge and dysuria

women may have a vaginal discharge.

Both men and women may be asymptomatic.

154
Q

diagnosis of gonorrhoea/chlamydia

A
  • NAAT – nucleic acid amplification test
  • PCR amplification of gonorrhoea DNA
  • Combined chlamydia and gonorrhoea test
  • Male heterosexual - Urine sample
  • MSM – throat swab and rectal swab
  • Female – vulvovaginal swab

• Confirm positive NAAT with GC culture (abx sensitivities)

155
Q

Disseminated gonorrhea

A

• Disseminated gonococcal infection
due to hematogenous spread
occurs predominantly in women.

affects the skin, tendon sheaths, and joints.
• Arthralgias, reactive arthritis

156
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Frequently asymptomatic

Infection can lead to tubal damage / infertility

157
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum

A
  • Strain of chlamydia
  • Caused by serotypes of chlamydia that can invade and reproduce in regional lymph nodes

• characterized by a small, often asymptomatic skin lesion, followed by regional lymphadenopathy in the groin or pelvis.

Severe proctitis causing constipation, rectal bleeding

158
Q

Syphilis

A

caused by T. pallidum

Syphilis occurs in 3 stages:
• Primary - painless chancre (within 3 weeks)
• Secondary - maculopapular rash (8-16 weeks)
• Tertiary - neurosyphillis/cardiovascular (10-40y)

There are long latent periods between the stages.
Infected people are contagious during the first 2 stages

159
Q

Genital warts

A
  • Caused by HPV type 6 and 11.
  • Commonest STI seen in sexual health clinics.

Warts can be brought out by factors like:
o Smoking
o Immunosuppression
o Stress

• Risk increases as number of lifetime partners increases

160
Q

HPV Vaccination

A
  • Gardasil – HPV strains 6/11/16/18
  • School aged girls are vaccinated
  • MSM attending sexual health/HIV clinics <45y
161
Q

Trichomonas Vaginalis (TV):

A

Trichomonas is a flagellated protozoan.

Up to 50% of men and women are asymptomatic

may produce a vaginal discharge and offensive odour in women and discharge or dysuria in men.

162
Q

What tests are done during a sexual heath screen?

A
  • Blood test for HIV + syphilis
  • NAAT (nucleic acid amplification test) for gonorrhoea and Chlamydia.

• Hepatitis B in MSM and vaccination offered

163
Q

Which STI is associated with asymptomatic shedding?

A

Herpes simplex virus

164
Q

Proctitis

A

condition in which the lining tissue of the inner rectum becomes inflamed

165
Q

Which common STIs co-infect?

A

patients with gonorrhoea will often have chlamydia as well (around 30%)

Therefore always treat for both gonorrhoea and chlamydia (doxycycline)

166
Q

What can be done to minimize the development of drug resistant strains of gonorrhoea?

A

Rapid accurate diagnosis (microscopy, NAAT)

Avoidance of blind therapy with inappropriate drugs

Partner notification to limit the onward spread of resistant infection

Epidemiological monitoring

167
Q

A patient presents with a generalised maculopapular rash particularly affecting the hands and feet, alopecia, malaise and flu-like symptoms. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

secondary syphilis

Long incubation period - Primary syphilis can take up to 90 days and secondary syphilis up to 6 months to present

This is because treponemes are slow growing

Infection can only become apparent once the organism is present in sufficient numbers to disturb the host.

168
Q

what do 4th generation HIV tests look for?

A

HIV p24 antigen

will detect the great majority of individuals who have been infected with HIV at 4 weeks after specific exposure.

169
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

a reaction to endotoxin-like products released by the death of harmful microorganisms within the body during antibiotic treatment

Cell wall fragments (antigenic fragments) in the blood stream generate an immune response

traditionally associated with antimicrobial treatment of syphilis.

170
Q

important non-infectious causes of diarrhoea

A

inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn’s disease/Ulcerative colitis)

bowel cancer

diverticular disease

coeliac disease

HIV infection

171
Q

most common cause of travellers diarrhoea

A

enterohaemmorhagic E.coli

172
Q

When would you treat gastroenteritis with antibiotics?

A

when the patient has signs of sepsis (SIRS criteria)

if there is concern about CDI.

173
Q

Why should you avoid antibiotics in salmonella?

A

treating salmonella with antibiotics leads to long term carriage

quickly becomes resistant and establishes in the gallbladder

Do not treat with antibiotics unless absolutely necessary, e.g. severely immunocompromised patients or in invasive disease

174
Q

Which viruses cause a vesicular rash?

A
  • Herpes simplex virus
  • Varicella zoster virus
  • Enteroviruses
175
Q

How should blood cultures be taken when dealing with a patient with possible bacterial endocarditis (BE)?

A
3 sets within 24 hours	
o	Need to be an hour apart
•	Need to come from separate sites 
•	Taken from peripheral veins
•	Meticulous sterile technique
•	Taken prior to antibiotics
•	At least 10ml per sample
o	The more blood you put in the sample the better
176
Q

Gram positive rods

A

C. diff
listeria
p. acnes
bacillus

177
Q

Gram negative rods

A
pseudomonas
E. coli
Kleibsiella
Salmonella
Shigella
178
Q

Name 3 common contaminants of blood cultures

A

Coagulase-negative staphylococci
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus aureus

179
Q

Pathogenesis of Acute Cholecystitis

A

Gallbladder infections usually result from gallstone formation and impaction in the cystic duct,

Impaired biliary drainage leads to:
• infection
• oedema
• compression of local blood supply - may lead to gangrene of the gallbladder

Infection within the gallbladder may lead to:
• bloodstream infection
• cholangitis
• liver abscess formation

180
Q

What antibiotics would you use to treat biliary sepsis?

A

Gentamicin + amoxicillin + metronidazole

covers: gram negative + gram positive + enteric flora

NB: therapy MUST include investigation to identify possible obstruction of the biliary tree -> decompression/drainage if required.

181
Q

Main types of necrotising fasciitis

A

Type I - Synergistic infection with anaerobes and aerobes. Common in elderly/diabetics

Type II - Group A streptococci.
S. pyogenes or occasionally S.aureus
o mediated by toxin production.

182
Q

Suggest an antibiotic regimen for necrotising fasciitis

A
o	IV Flucloxacillin (for staphylococci)
o	IV Benzylpenicillin (for streptococci)
o	IV Gentamicin (for Gram negatives)
o	IV Metronidazole (for anaerobes) 
o	Clindamycin (for anaerobes/toxin production). 

IV antibiotics are important at this stage, but are unlikely to work whilst the necrotic tissue is present: this is avascular and full of organisms.
- requires urgent debridement

183
Q

Dermatophytes

A

fungi that cause common infections of skin, nails and hair

Do not colonise ‘live’ tissues
colonise keratinised areas such as nails and outer skin

have a very slow anaerobic metabolism

This means that response to treatment is slow, and they require prolonged treatment period

184
Q

Name 3 Systemic fungal infections

A
  1. Fungal meningitis
  2. Aspergillosis of the lungs
  3. Pneumocystis pneumonia

Only seen in immunocompromised patients

185
Q

Mechanism of azole action

A

All act on the synthesis pathway for ergosterol

Ergosterol is an essential component of the fungal plasma membrane

If you inhibit it’s synthesis, you cure a fungal infection

Drawback: cross-resistance

186
Q

Amphotericin B

A

Amphotericin B punctures fungal cells

Binds to ergosterol with its hydrophobic side

The hydrophilic side turns outward

Forms a channel through which water and ions can pass freely

This leads to cell death

187
Q

How is Amphotericin B administered?

A

Cannot be given orally

Toxic on direct infusion into the veins, as it interacts with cholesterol at high concentrations

It is therefore packaged in liposomes (Ambisome)

188
Q

What should you suspect with reduced level of consciousness in a febrile patient?

A

CNS infection

possible bacterial meningitis