Microbio revision Flashcards

1
Q

Examples of cfluoroquinolones

A

Ciprofloxacin, Movifloxacin,

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2
Q

What are the features of penicillins?

A

They inhibit cell wall synthesis

Some are not absorbed orally

Allergy to 1 = allergy to all

Bactericidal

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3
Q

Which drug can you administer even if you have penicillin allergy?

A

aztreonam (monobactam)

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4
Q

Which penicillins have very less oral bioavailability?

A

Piperocillin-tazobactam

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5
Q

Which antibiotic is most likely to cause photosensitivity?

A

Doxycycline

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6
Q

Which of these drugs lower to CGHS threshold/ can worsen epileptic control?

A

All quinolones -> levofloxacin

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7
Q

Which of the following would prvide inadequate pathogen cover for respiratory streptococcus penumoniae?

Doxycycline
Clarithromycin
Co-amoxiclav
Ciprofloxacin
Amoxicillin
A

Ciprofloxacin (only Levofloxacin is useful)

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8
Q

What is the main purpose of adding clarithromycin to pneumonia treatment?

A

to cover atypical organisms

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9
Q

What is the best antibiotic for strep-pneumoniae treatment?

A

Amoxicillin

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10
Q

Which of the following is not absorbed systemically when given by mouth?

Clindamycin
Clarithromycin
Vancomycin
Ciprofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin
Aztreonam
A

Vancomycin

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11
Q

How is aztreonam administered?

A

IV

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12
Q

Regarding C.Diff which of the following is false?

It is anaerobic.
It forms spores.
It can be carried asymptomatically.
It causes mainly mil, self-limiting infection.

A

It icauses mainly mild, self-limiting infections

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13
Q

Diagnostic tests for C.Diff

A

PCR, C-Diff toxin

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14
Q

What is the 1st line monotherapy for mild cases of pneumonia?

A

amoxicillin

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15
Q

Which is a major risk factor for pneumonia?

A

Smoking

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16
Q

Is a positive sputum culture compulsory for pneumonia diagnosis?

A

No, in context of a good clinical history

17
Q

Why is amoxicillin not the empirical choice for the treatment for the treatment of Ecoli?

A

upto 40% of Ecoli is resistant to Amoxicillin

18
Q

Amoxicillin and gentamicin in UTI treatment for what?

A

Amox - enterococcus

gent - g. negative

19
Q

Which of the following is the most FALSE for quinolone?

Associated with AAA rupture
Associated with psychiatric side effects
May cause diffuse tendonitis
Stop immediately and seek advice if diarrhoea occurs
oral bioavailability is almost as good as IV

A

oral bioavailability as good as IV – as it is even better

20
Q

Why is quinolone used orally for pseudomonas in penumonia?

A

As it’s oral bioavailability is good

21
Q

Clindamycin is not active against this organism:

A

Proteus mirabella

22
Q

What does clindamycin cover?

A

Strep pyogenes
Staph aureus
Anaerobes (metronidazoleand clinda)

23
Q

Which is the only one used as an IV preparation?

A

Aztreonam (only IV)

Gentamicin (IV but it has ear drops as well –> hence if btw the two aztreonam)

24
Q

Which iof these is a gram positive bacillus?

Salmonella enteridis
Campylobacter jejuni
Listeria monocytogenes
Listeria monocytogenes
Shigella flexnerii
Cryptosporidium spp.
A

Listeria monocytogenes

25
What type of bacteria is cyptosporidium?
Not a bacteria
26
What other disease can listeria cause?
Meningitis
27
Which drug has a high liver toxicity?
Co-amoxiclav
28
Which of the following would you expect to be raised in sepsis secondary ot bacterial infection? Interleukin 6 CRP WBCC Platelet count
Interleukin-6, CRP< WBCC Not raised Platelet count
29
Which of the following is not an AIDS defining condition? Recurrent pneumonia Oropharyngeal candida Salmonella bacteraemia Recurrent endpcarditis
Recurrent Endocarditis
30
Which of the following is not an AIDS defining condition? Recurrent pneumonia Oropharyngeal candida Salmonella bacteraemia Recurrent endocarditis
Recurrent Endocarditis
31
Salmonella in strange places like blood can occur in which rare conditions?
Sickle cell disease | AIDS
32
Which of the drugs works for an ESBL producing Klebsiella? Ceftriaxone Aztreonam Vancomycin Meropenem
Meropenem Vancomycin - neveer active against gram negatives
33
Which of the following is not one of the typoical endocarditis organisms in the major DUKES criteria? Kingella kingsae Bartonella henselae Enterobacter clocaea Enterococus faecalis
Enterobacter cloacae - gram negative Kingella kingsae - HACEK Bartonella, coxsiella - seronegative ones Enterococcus faecalis - it is there
34
Which of the statement is flase? Rifampicin can reduce the effect of warfarin Rifampicin can increase the effect of clopidogrel Iron can reduce the effect of doxycycline Metronidazole can reduce the lithium concentration
Metronidazole can reduce the lithium concentrations
35
Which if the following is true?
Tetracyclines should be avoided in children < 12y Rifampicin can cause orange eyes