Microbiology Flashcards by Gilead Tungol

What is the treatment of choice for T. cruzi?

Nitrofurantoin and Benznidazole

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Montenegro skin test is a test to that identifies the presence of exposure which parasite?

Leishmania sp.

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Diagnostic stage of Leishmaniasis:

Amastigote

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Infective stage of leishmaniasis:

Promastigote

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Drug of choice worldwide for Leishmaniasis:

Sodium stibogluconate

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Extraintestinal stage of T. gondii that is more susceptible to drugs:

Tachyzoites

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A patient came at the ER with decreasing sensorium which on MRI revealed multiple enhancing ring like structures. Identify the causative organism:

Toxoplasma gondii

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Intracerebral calcifications are seen in which parasitic infection:

Toxoplasma gondii

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In congenital CMV infections, what is seen at the ventricles?

Paraventricular calcifications

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Sabin fieldman dye is used to look for the presence of circulating IgG to which parasite?

T. gondii

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In patients with HIV, the prophylactic DOC for T. gondii is:

TMP SMX

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Romana’s sign which is the presence of unilateral palpebral swelling comes from which parasite?

T. cruzi

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Infection of which parasite may lead to megaesophagus or megacolon?

T. cruzi

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Vector for Trypanosoma brucei:

Tse tse fly (glossina)

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In Trypanosoma brucei, the presence of enlarged posterior cervical lymph nodes is seen which is also called:

Winterbottom sign

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Kerandel sign which denotes the presence of deep hyperesthesia is seen in which phase of T. brucei infection?

Late (meningoencephalitic phase)

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Morula cells of Mott is seen in which parasitic infection?

T. brucei

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Life stages of T. cruzi

Amastigote, Promastigote, Epimastigote, Trypomastigote

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In east African sleeping sickness, the DOC for early infection is:

Suramin

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In east African sleeping sickness, the DOC for CNS involvement is:

Melarsopol

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Babesia microti is transmitted by which insect vector:

Ixodes

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Pathognomonic feature of Babesia microti

Maltese cross formation

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What is the most important parasitic design in man:

Plasmodium sp.

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Intermediate host of Plasmodium:

Man

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Definitive host of Plasmodium:

Anopheles

What is the sexual cycle of Plasmodium sp.?

Sporogony

What is the infective stage of Plasmodium sp.?

Sporozoite

Quotidian malaria:

P. knowlesi

Benign tertian malarias:

P. Vivax and P. Ovale

Malarias spp. associated with recrudescence:

P. knowlesi, P. falciparum, P. malariae

Ziemman dots are seen in which Malarial species?

P. malariae

Histopathologic hallmark of P. falciparum cerebral malaria:

Durck granulomas

Acute kidney kidney injury secondary to hemoglobinuria caused by P. falciparum is also known as:

Black water fever

Profound shock and circulatory collapse caused by P. falciparum is also called:

Algid malaria

Primaquine destroys which malarial stage in the blood:

Gametocyte stage

Gametocytes in the blood and schizonts in the liver are inhibited by which form of malaria:

Primaquine

Sporonticides:

Proguanil and Pyrimethamine

DOC for chloroquine resistant P. falciparum:

Oral artesunate or oral artemether lumefantrine

Malaria prophylaxis for areas with chloroquine resistant P. falciparum:

Mefloquine

Malaria prophylaxis for areas with chloroquine and mefloquine resistant P. falciparum:

Atovaquone proguanil/doxycycline

Nematodes seen in the small intestines:

CASH (capillaria, ascaris, strongyloides, hookworms)

Nematodes in large intestines:

Trichuris and Enterobius

Roundworm smear for qualitative identification of eggs:

Kato thick smear

Roundworm smear for qualitative and quantitative identification of eggs which is also used for the burden of eggs:

Kato-Katz smear

Filariform larvae is the infective stage of which roundworms:

Hookworm and strongyloides

Mansonia mosquito is the vector of which parasite?

Brugia malayi

What is both the infective and the diagnostic stage of Trichinella?

Encysted larvae

Scotch tape test is a diagnostic test for which parasite:

Enterobius vermicularis

Parasite that is able to migrate to the lungs causing Loeffler's syndrome (eosinophilic pulmonary infiltrates)

Ascaris lumbricoides (Roundworm)

What is the most common form of nematode co infection?

Ascaris and Trichuris

Pathognomonic sign of Trichuris infection:

Rectal prolapse

Hookworm presentation associated with GI disturbances and eosinophilia:

Wakana syndrome

Method of incubating fecal material on a filter paper strip in test tube containing water for culture and recovering nematodes:

Harada Mori Technique

DOC for animal hookworms:

Ivermectin or albendazole

Intermittent watery and bloody diarrhea is caused by what parasite:

Strongyloides (Cochin China diarrhea)

Natural definitive host of Capillaria philippinensis:

Fish eating birds

Most debilitating nematode infection:

Lymphatic filariasis

Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia with the presence of Meyers Kouwenaar bodies indicate the presence of which parasitic infection:

Lymphatic filariasis

Knott's concentration technique is employed in which parasitic infection:

Lymphatic filariasis

Infective stage of tissue nematodes:

Loa loa vector:

Chrysops, deer, mango flies

Calabar swelling or the presence of transient subcutaneous edema in extremities is seen in which parasitic infection:

Loa loa infection/African eye worm

What is the 2nd leading infectious cause of blindness worldwide:

Onchocerca volvulus

Onchocerca volvulus vector:

Sandfly (simulium)

Causative agent for river blindness:

Onchocerca volvulus

DEC is the drug of choice among filarial worms except:

Onchocerca volvulus (Ivermectin)

All tapeworms except one infects the intestines. Which tapeworm infects the liver?

E. granulosus

Tapeworm where humans can act both as intermediate and definitive host:

Taenia solium

Tapeworm eggs are non operculated except:

D. latum eggs

What is the longest medically important tapeworm?

D. latum

Taeniasis treatment:

Praziquantel

Infective stage to man (D. latum)

Plerocercoid larvae

1st Intermediate host of D. latum:

Copepods

Tapeworm associated with life threatening anaphylaxis secondary to ruptured cyst:

E. granulosus

Natural intermediate host of E. granulosus:

Sheep

Natural definitive host of H. nana and diminuta:

Rats

Most common tapeworm of cats and dogs with barrel shaped proglottids in stool:

D. caninum

First intermediate host of S. japonicum

Oncomelania

S. mansoni first IH:

Biomphalaria

S. haematobium first IH:

Bulinus

Mode of transmission of Fasciola sp.

Ingestion of metacercaria (by eating freshwater plants)

Al trematodes have 2 intermediate hosts except:

Schistosoma sp.

All trematodes are hermaphrodites except:

Schistosoma sp.

DOC for all trematodes is Praziquantel except which trematode?

Fasciola (Triclabendazole)

1st IH of Paragonimus westermani?

Antemelania

Antifungal that binds to ergosterol forming leaky pores:

Polyenes (Amphotericin B)

Antifungal that inhibits p450 dependent enzymes:

Azoles

Antifungal that blocks B glucan synthase decreasing fungal cell wall synthesis:

Echinocandins

Antifungal that interferes with microtubule function:

Griseofulvin

Layer of the skin involved in superficial mycoses:

Stratum corneum

Most prevalent mycosis in the world:

Cutaneous mycosis

Spaghetti and meatballs, bacon and egg appearance in KOH preparation:

Tinea versicolor (Malassezia furfur)

Black piedra causative agent:

Piedraia hortae

White piedra causative agent:

Trichosporon

Most difficult to treat dermatophytosis:

Tinea ungium

Causative agent of ectothrix:

Microsporum

Cigar shaped yeasts or asteroid bodies are pathognomonic signs of what fungal species?

Sporothrix schenckii (subcutaneous mycosis)

Most common cause of meningoencephalitis in HIV patients:

C. neoformans

Treatment for C. neoformans:

Amphotericin B and Fluconazole

Narrow angled branching hyphae:

Aspergillus

Treatment for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis:

Itraconazole

Saphrophytic molds that may cause rhino-orbital-cerebral infection with eschar formation especially dka, burns, and leukemia:

Rhizopus and Mucor spp.

Microbiology Flashcards

(103 cards)