Microbiology

Question 1

prevalence of IE

Answer 1

2-6 per 100,000

Question 2

mortality of IE
without treatment
with treatment

Answer 2

100%

20%

Question 3

most common fungus IE in IVDU

Answer 3

Candida tropicalis

Question 4

classic cause of culture negative IE

Answer 4

Q fever (coxiella burnetti)

Question 5

why is Q fever culture negative

Answer 5

it is an obligate intracellular bacteria

Question 6

how are we infected by Q fever

Answer 6

spores from dogs, cattle, sheep, goats.

Question 7

IE types diagnosed by PCR from tissue

Answer 7

T. whipplei

Bartonella

Question 8

most common murmur in IE

Answer 8

aortic regurg

Question 9

classification for diagnosing IE

Answer 9

Durack
2 major - echo or culture
1 major 3 minor
5 minor - stigmata, predisposition or fever

Question 10

which viral hepatitis don’t have vaccine

Answer 10

C

E

Question 11

chronicity of HBV in children and adults

Answer 11

90%

5%

Question 12

treatment of HBV

Answer 12

interferon and lamivudine (reverse transcriptase i)

Question 13

treatment of HCV

Answer 13

interferon and ribavirin (RNA transcriptase i)

Question 14

uncommon sources of hepatitis

Answer 14

adenovirus
cytomegalovirus
EBV
HSV

Question 15

serological markers in HBV

Answer 15

1 month = HbsAg
2 month = anti-core and HBeAg
3 month = anti-HBe
6 month = anti-HBs

Question 16

immune clearance phase of HBV

Answer 16

ALT goes up

Question 17

definite of sepsis

Answer 17

SOFA score >=2 (goes from 0-4)

Question 18

definition of SIRS

Answer 18

temp >38 or <36
HR >90
BP <90/60
Glucose >7
WCC >12
RR >20
AMTS <8/10

Question 19

cytokines in massive peak of inflammation in sepsis

Answer 19

TNF
IL1
IL6

Question 20

cytokine in immunosuppression phase

Answer 20

IL10

Question 21

measles

Answer 21

florid maculopapular rash (starts behind ears and spreads)
conjunctivitis
koplik spots
notifiable

Question 22

rubella

Answer 22

aka german measles
togovirus
rash starts on face and then spread but fades after 3-5 days
sub-occipital and postauricular lymphadenopathy
arthritis is a complication

Question 23

mumps

Answer 23

no rash
parotitis
meningitis, orchitis and pancreatitis is complications

Question 24

antivirals we have against flu

Answer 24

neuraminidase inhibitors (an enzyme that lets viruses slip in and out of cells)
oseltamavir and zanamivir

Question 25

when are these antiviral seffective

Answer 25

within 48 hours of symptoms

Question 26

amoxicillin taste

Answer 26

BANANANANANANAS

Question 27

YOUNGS SYNDROME

Answer 27

azoospermia, bronchiectasis, rhino sinusitis (due to primary ciliary dyskinesia)

Question 28

kartagners syndrome

Answer 28

same as young's + dextrocardia

Question 29

definition of chronic bronchitis

Answer 29

cough for >3 months for at least 2 years

Question 30

most typical CAP

Answer 30

strep pneumoniae

Question 31

active TB treatment

Answer 31

2 months RIPE 4 months RI rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrinzamide, ethambutol

Question 32

latent TB treatment

Answer 32

3 months RI

Question 33

meningeal TB treatment

Answer 33

12 months of treatment + steroids

Question 34

incubation and presentation: b cereus

Answer 34

vomiting or diarrhoea | 1-6 hours

Question 35

incubation and presentation: s aureus

Answer 35

rapid vomiting | 1-6 hours

Question 36

incubation and presentation: salmonella

Answer 36

watery brown diarrhoea | 12-48 hours

Question 37

incubation and presentation: e.coli

Answer 37

watery brown diarrhoea | 12-48 hours

Question 38

incubation and presentation: shigella

Answer 38

dysentry + vomit | 48-72 hours

Question 39

incubation and presentation: campylobacter

Answer 39

flu-like prodrome followed by ?bloody diarrhoea | 48-72 hours

Question 40

incubation and presentation: giardiasis

Answer 40

gradual onset prolonged >week brown diarrhoea | >7days

Question 41

incubation and presentation: amoebiasis

Answer 41

gradual onset prolonged >week bloody diarrhoea | >7 days

Question 42

hypnozoites

Answer 42

P. ovale, P.vivax

Question 43

leishmaniasis

Answer 43

sandflies | infect dogs too

Question 44

trypanososmiasis

Answer 44

tsetse --> sleeping sickness Africa | Rejuvid bug --> chagas MO,MC,CM

Question 45

treatment of trypanosomiasis

Answer 45

arsenic derivatives

Question 46

schistosomiasis in liver

Answer 46

S. japonicicum. S. mansoni

Question 47

schistosmiasis in bladder

Answer 47

S. haemotobium

Question 48

Urine sample for schistosmiasis

Answer 48

terminal urine at midday

Question 49

hydatid disease cause

Answer 49

echinococcus tapeworm

Question 50

prevention of neutropenic sepsis

Answer 50

prophylactic ciprofloxacin for period of most vulnerability (7-12 days after chemo)

Question 51

rhino cerebral infection

Answer 51

mucormycosis (mould)

Question 52

pathogen for osteomyelitis adult newborn

Answer 52

s. aureus | group B strep (from vagina)

Question 53

early PJI

Answer 53

<3 months

Question 54

presentation of PJI

Answer 54

rarely with systemic upset | usually new joint becomes stiff and uncomfortable

Question 55

2 stage replacemtn

Answer 55

out 6 weeks of Abx in

Question 56

ecthema

Answer 56

secondary to insect bites

Question 57

erisipelas

Answer 57

only one cause by group A strep NOT S.aureus | it is a superficial and more circumscribed form of cellulitis

Question 58

types of necrotising fasciitis

Answer 58

``` 1 = polymicrobial 2 = group A strep ```

Question 59

anti-streptolysin O

Answer 59

enzyme for haemolysis in group A strep (can test for it in the lab)

Question 60

who is at risk of anthrax

Answer 60

tanners, wool workers, vets, farmers