Microbiology/Pathology Flashcards
(275 cards)
1
Q
Hepatitis A: Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Family: Picornavirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: Oral-anal
Disease: Hep A
2
Q
Hepatitis B: Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Hepatitis B: Family: Hepadnavirus Genome: ds DNA Transmission: Blood borne Disease: Hep B
3
Q
Hepatitis C: Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Hepatitis C: Family: Flavivirus Genome: ss RNA Transmission: Blood borne Disease: Hep C
4
Q
Hepatitis D: Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Hepatitis D: Family: Deltavirus Genome: ss RNA Transmission: Blood borne Disease: Hep D: but ONLY can infect cells that previously had been infected with Hep B
5
Q
Hepatitis E: Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Hepatitis E: Family: Calicivirus Genome: ss RNA Transmission: Oral-anal Disease: Hep E
6
Q
Influenza Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Family: Orthomyxovirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: respiratory droplets
Disease: Influenza
7
Q
Measles and Mumps Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Family: Paramyxovirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: Respiratory droplets
Disease: measles (rubeola) and mumps
8
Q
Rubella Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Family: Togavirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: Respiratory droplets
Disease: Rubella (German measles)
9
Q
Adenovirus Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Family: Adenovirus
Genome: ds DNA
Transmission: Respiratory droplets
Disease: Pharyngitis, Pneumonia, Conjunctivitis
10
Q
Rhinovirus Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Family: Picornavirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: Respiratory Droplets
Disease: common cold
11
Q
HIV Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Family: retrovirus
Genome: ss RNA
Transmission: blood borne, genital
Disease: AIDS
12
Q
Cytomegalovirus Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Family: Herpes virus (HSV-5)
Genome: ds DNA
Transmission: Respiratory droplets
Disease: Mononucleosis syndrome
13
Q
EBV Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Family: Herpesvirus (HSV-4)
Genome: ds DNA
Transmission: Respiratory droplets
Disease: infectious mononucleosis
14
Q
HSV-1 Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Family: Herpes virus
Genome: Ds DNA
Transmission: oral (saliva)
Disease: gingivostomatits, Herpes Labialis
15
Q
HSV-2 Family Genome Transmission Disease
A
Family: Herpes Virus
Genome: ds DNA
Transmission: STD
Disease: Genital herpes
16
Q
What are the RNA non-enveloped viruses?
A
Picornavirus (polio, coxsackie, Rhinovirus, Hep A)
reovirus
Caliciviruses (norovirus and sapovirus)
17
Q
Which paramyxovirus commonly causes bronchitis and pneumonia in little infants?
A
RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)
18
Q
Which virus is the only virus to obtain their envelope by budding at the NUCLEAR membrane instead of the plasma membrane?
A
herpesviruses
19
Q
What are the DNA enveloped viruses?
A
herpesviruses
poxvirus
hepadnavirus
20
Q
What is a viroid?
A
A circular RNA molecule without protein that can cause plant diseases, but NOT human
21
Q
What is the most serious potential problem of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A
dehydration (the child doesnt want to drink bc its too painful)
22
Q
How can definitive diagnosis of HSV be made?
A
Tzank preparation
23
Q
What is a prophage?
A
integrated viral DNA
24
Q
What is phage T4?
A
it infects E.coli
25
What is transduction?
transfer of DNA from one cell to another using a bacteriophage
26
What is transformation?
A cell takes up naked DNA material from another cell
27
What is the difference between lytic and lysogenic?
lytic - a virus kills a cell by replication
| lysogenic- a virus is incorporated into the cell's DNA and doesnt kill the cell.
28
What is a provirus?
Virus DNA that is incorporated into the host cell DNA
29
What are the retroviruses?
1. Lentivirus - HIV
| 2. Oncovirus - HTLV
30
Where does transcription happen in an RNA virus? what about a DNA virus?
RNA virus - cytoplasm (except for retroviruses)
| DNA virus - nucleus (except for poxviruses)
31
```
What are the sites of latency in the following viruses?
HSV-1
HSV-2
VZV
EBV
CMV
```
```
HSV-1 : trigeminal ganglion
HSV-2: sacral ganglion
VZV: dorsal root and cranial nerve ganglia
EBV: Resting memory B cells
CMV: T cells and arterial wall cells
```
32
What is a capsid?
the wall of the virus. without an envelope, this is where the attachment site is of a virus to something else.
33
What is an envelope?
a viral membrane that has a lipid bilayer
34
What is a matrix protein?
it glues the capsid to the envelope
35
What family is poliovirus in?
picornovirus
36
What are the two vaccines for poliovirus?
salk vaccin - inactivated
| Sabin vaccine - live attenuated
37
What is the largest and most complex DNA virus?
Poxvirus family
they include: smallpox, vaccinia virus, and MCV
38
Where do poxviruses replicate in the host cell?
cytoplasm (they are the exception to only RNA in the cytoplasm)
39
What diseases can be caused by coxsackievirus?
herpangia and hand-foot-and-mouth disease
40
What is another name for infectious mononucleosis?
glandular fever, also called kissing disease
41
What causes infectious mononucleosis?
EBV that infect B cells and epithelial cells of oropharynx
42
What are the lab findings of someone who has infectious mononucleosis?
1. atypical lymphocytes
2. positive heterophile antibody reaction (Monospot test)
3. A lot of antibodies for the EBV antigens
43
What is the polarity of retroviruses?
positive sense
44
What is a good medication used for VZV?
Adenosine arabinoside
45
What is the variola virus?
smallpox
46
What is hemogglutinin?
a glycoprotein "spike" on a virus like influenza
47
What is neuraminadase?
An enzyme that viruses like influenza use to penetrate the cell wall.
48
Major symptoms of mumps
painful swelling of parotid gland
could also lead to orchitis and deafness
49
Major complication of influenza
Could include Reye's syndrome
50
Major symptom of measles
Koplik's spots
51
Major symptoms of rubella
lymphadenopathy, followed by rash on the entire body
52
What are the steps in the virus replication cycle?
1. synthesis of early mRNA
2. synthesis of nonstructural proteins (like enzymes)
3. replication of viral genome
4. synthesis of late viral mRNA
5. post-translational modification
53
What are Lambda viruses?
a bacteriophage that infects E.coli
54
What is a satellite virus?
an incomplete defective DNA or RNA virus the requires a helper virus to help
55
What are the viruses that cause respiratory diseases in children?
RSV
parainfluenza virus
rhinovirus
adenovirus
56
What are the common viral causes of viral gastroenteritis?
```
Rotavirus-in children
Norovirus
Sapovirus
Adenovirus
astrovirus
```
57
What are the viral causes of a common cold?
Rhinovirus
Coxsackievirus
Coronovirus
Adenovirus
58
What are the most common viral causes of aseptic meningitis?
Coxsackievirus
Echovirus
Mumps
59
What are the most common viral causes of pharyngitis
Coxsackievirus
Adenovirus
Orthomyxovirus
EBV
60
What are the viruses that can cross the placenta?
Rubella
Herpes
HIV
Cytomegalovirus
61
What are the most common pediatric viral diseases with a RASH?
```
Measles
Rubella
Roseola
Erythema infectiosum
VZV
```
62
What are the only viruses that are double stranded RNA?
Reoviruses
63
What is the most common cause of diarrhea in infants and children?
Rotavirus
64
What is the most common cause of mental retardation in the US?
CMV
65
Is Staph aureus coagulase positive or negative?
it is coagulase positive while all other staph species is coagulase negative
66
Which organism can cause gas gangrene?
clostridium perfringens
67
Which organism can cause tetanus?
Clostridium Tetani
68
Which organism can cause scarlet fever?
Strep pyogenes
69
Which organism has M protein? What about A protein?
strep pyogenes - M
| Staph aureus - A
70
What is the major bacteria in the oral cavity?
streptococci and lactobacilli
71
What is the major bacteria in the stomach?
helicobacter pylori
72
Are staph catalase negative or positive? What about strep?
staph is catalase positive
| strep is catalase negative
73
What are Lancefield groupings?
It groups bacteria by cell wall carbohydrate called substance C (an example is Group A Strep)
74
What type of hemolysis do oral streptococci have?
Alpha hemolysis
75
What component is vital to the function of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria?
LPS
76
What does the outer membrane of gram - bacteria make?
endotoxin
77
What must happen before an endotoxin is released from a gram negative bacteria?
The bacteria must die and the endotoxins are released as the cell membrane is broken down.
78
What does protein A on staph aureus bind to in the body?
The Fc receptor of IgG
79
What are the dyes called in an acid-fast stain?
Carbol-fuchsin and methylene blue
80
What is a major glycolipid that is in the Mycobacterium species?
mycolic acid
81
What is a good antimycobacterial medicine?
Isoniazid
82
What is the primary lesion in TB?
Ghon focus
83
What is a Ranke complex?
A TB Ghon focus lesion that has healed
84
What makes strep mutans able to bind to the tooth?
Its capsule
85
What are the major components of a gram-positive cell wall?
*its a thick, single layer
Thick murein
Teichoic acids
86
What are the major components of a gram-negative cell wall?
*it is multi-layered
thin murein
lipoproteins
LPS
87
How do the structure of archaeabacteria differ from other bacteria?
They do NOT have murein
88
What do lactobacilli do with glucose?
They ferment it into lactate
89
What are the two lactic acid bacterial species?
Lactobacillus and Streptococcus
90
What bacteria has been found to be a causative agent for root surface caries?
actinomyces
91
What are the two major organisms found in localized aggressive periodontitis?
aa and C.ochraceus
92
What are the two major organisms found in generalized periodontitis?
Prevotella intermedia and Eikenella corrodens
93
What is E.coli?
A gram negative facultative anaerobic rod
94
What are some major characteristic features of E.coli?
```
Catalase-positive
Oxidase - negative
Ferment glucose and lactose
reduce nitrates to nitrites
positive reaction to methyl red
possess adhesins and exotoxins
```
95
What are the two forms of coagulase enzyme in staph aureus?
Cell-Bound: found with the slide coagulase test
| Cell-free: found with the tube coagulase test
96
What major test can you do to distinguish strep pneumoniae from other strep species?
Bile solubility test: strep pneumoniae are bile soluble
97
What is a major test to differentiate major groups of gram-positive bacteria?
catalase test: staph is catalase positive, strep and enterococci are catalase negative
98
What is a test to detect presence of E.coli in the urine?
Indole test
99
What attaches to the Fab portion of an antibody? the Fc portion?
Fab- epitopes and antigen
| Fc - macrophages and neutrophils
100
What are the smallest bacteria?
mycoplasma organisms
101
Which bacteria do not have a cell wall?
mycobacteria
102
What are the only prokaryotes that have sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane?
mycobacteria
103
What are the two main bacteria in ANUG?
prevotella and spirochetes
104
"punched out" gingiva is associated with?
NUG (necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis)
105
Which immunoglobulin is found in the highest concentration in periodontal disease?
IgG
106
What do aerobic bacteria produce to help protect them from hydrogen peroxide and superoxide radicals?
catalase enzymes and superoxide dismutase
107
What type of bacteria make spores?
Some gram positive but NEVER gram negative
108
What is inside a spore?
1. a copy of the DNA
2. bare minimum of essential proteins
3. High concentration of calcium bound to dipicolinic acid
109
traveller's diarrhea is produced by which bacteria?
E.coli
110
The enterotoxin in E.coli can be detected by what test?
ELISA (this test can also be used for many enterotoxins of different bacteria)
111
What is the role of fimbriae in a bacterial cell?
Aids in attachement of bacteria to host surfaces
112
What are Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Gram negative, aerobic rods. They are opportunistic pathogens that produce exotoxin A (ETA) and they are resistant to many antibiotics.
113
What is mutualism?
two organisms benefit from each other
114
What is commensalism?
One species is benefitted while the other is unaffected
115
What is a syngeneic graft?
Same as an isogenous graft. tissue transferred from one identical twin to another
116
What is an allogenic graft?
tissue between two members of the same species
117
What is a xenogeneic graft?
tissue from a different species
118
What is heterolysis?
destruction of a cell from the outside by enzymes
119
What is Karyolysis?
gradual fading away of the nucleus
120
What is Pyknosis?
the nucleus shrinks and becomes super dense
121
What is Karyorrhexis?
The nucleus blows up into fragments and then disappears.
122
What are interferons?
"early warning system" They are cytokines that are made in response to an infection. They are species-specific proteins, and are not virus specific, but host specific.
123
What are defensins?
They bind to a bacterial membrane and degrade it.
124
What are collectins?
They are receptors that can activate compliment and stuff when a ligand binds to it.
125
What is arachodonic acid?
Part of a cell membrane. it can be split off and turned into different things, like prostaglandins and leukotrienes.
126
What are things that arachodonic acid can be turned into and by what enzyme?
prostaglandins, prostacyclin, thromboxanes by cyclooxygenase
Leukotrienes by lipoxygenase
127
What are the actions of serotonin?
It is released from platelets during the clotting cascade to increase permeability of blood vessels in the area as well as vasoconstrict them. Thus clotting and inflammation are linked.
It is also a neurotransmitter
128
What is hemophilia and what causes it?
it is a bleeding disorder and it is caused by lack of factor VIII or factor IX in the clotting cascade.
129
What is G6PD?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase. it is used in the pentose phosphate shunt and produces NADPH.
130
What is the most prevalent enzyme deficiency in humans?
G6PD deficiency. It is an X-linked disorder and can protect against malaria
131
What is lactoferrin?
It is in secondary granules in neutrophils. It is bacteriostatic and chelates iron to deprive bacteria of iron needed for growth.
132
What are the types of granules in a neutrophil? What do each of these granules do?
1. Azurophilic granules: 30%, include defensins, lysozyme
2. Secondary granules: 60% include lactoferrin and collagenase
3. Tertiary granules: include gelatinase
4. Secretory vesicles
133
What does lysozyme degrade?
the glycan portion of peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls, which make them burst. It can also function as an opsonin.
134
What are the functions of peroxisomes?
1. They breakdown long chain fatty acids
2. turn h2o2 into water and oxygen
3. degrade alcohol
4. make plasmalogen
135
What is surface membrane immunoglobulin?
It is an antigen receptor on B cells
136
What are the three organisms that can cause septic shock?
Staph aureus
Klebsiella
E.coli
137
What are labile tissues?
have continuously dividing cells like in the bone marrow
138
What are stable tissues?
They dont divide under normal circumstances, only if they need to. ex: liver and kidney
139
What are reticulum cells of the lung?
dust cells (macrophages in the lung)
140
What causes Tay-Sachs disease?
deficiency in hexosaminidase A
141
What are the dermatophytic fungi? what does that even mean?!
fungi that can cause skin infections. They are
1. microsporum
2. trichophyton
3. epidermophyton
142
What is the most effective anti fungal for tinea infections?
griseofulvin (although it has to be taken as a pill and not a topical cream)
143
Are fungi prokaryotic or eukaryotic?
eukaryotic
144
What are other characteristics of fungi in general?
1. They are all gram positive
2. They have DNA and RNA
3. They have two types: molds and yeasts
145
What is dimorphic fungi?
They form molds outside the body, but can form yeast inside the body.
146
What are the major dimorphic fungi?
Blastomyces
Histoplasma
Coccidioides
Sporothrix
147
What are the only fungi that are NOT septated?
zygomycetes
148
What type of reaction happens from the body in a fungal infection?
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
149
What are the conidia called that are produced by budding yeasts?
blastospores
150
What are the conidia called that are produced by hyphae?
arthrospores
151
What are endemic mycoses? What are the major ones?
fungal infections that only happen in certain geographic areas.
```
They include:
Histoplasma
Blastomyces
Coccidioides immitis
Coccidioides posadasii
Paracoccodioides brasiliensis
```
152
What causes Valley Fever?
Coccidioides immitis
153
What causes Gilchrist's disease?
Blastomyces dermatiditis
154
What does H. capsulatum cause?
Histoplasmosis
155
What 5 fungi are opportunistic?
ZAP CC
```
Zygomycosis
Aspergillus
Pneumocytosis
Candidiasis
Cryptococcosis
```
156
What protozoan can cause malaria?
plasmodium
157
What protozoan can cause amebic dystentery?
Entamoeba histolytica
158
Which protozoan is an STD and is one of the most common infections worldwide?
Trichomonas vaginalis
159
Which protozoan is transmitted through cats?
Toxoplasmosis
160
What are the largest internal human parasite?
helminths
161
What is another name for roundworms? Flukes? tapeworms?
roundworms: nematodes
flukes: trematodes
tapeworms: cestodes
162
What is the most common nephropathy?
Adult polycystic kidney disease
163
What is the most susceptible organ in malignant hypertension?
Kidney
164
What is nephrosclerosis
kidney disorder in which the smallest arteries of the kidney are damaged. There are three types.
165
What is the most common type of kidney stone?
calcium stones
166
What is nephrotic syndrome?
A condition where you get increase permeability of the glomerular capillaries, so you get proteinuria, edema etc... it is NOT a disease, just a symptom of something else
167
What disease is mostly associated with nephrotic syndrome?
primary glomerulonephritis
168
You have a 3 year old child that has edema in the ankles and around the eye, what syndrome could they likely have?
nephrotic syndrome, but it really could occur at ANY age, just edema shows mostly at younger ages.
169
What is the difference of nephrotic syndrome and nephritic syndrome?
Nephrotic is massive proteinuria and nephritic is inflammation
170
What causes nephritic disease mostly?
acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
171
What is the most common cause of death in patients with cirrhosis?
bleeding esophageal varices which leads to coughing up blood.
172
What is Iron deficiency anemia associated with? What else is this called?
esophageal webs
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
173
What is ascites?
fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity
174
What is hematemesis?
vomiting of blood
175
What does splenomegaly indicate?
If you have splenomegaly, you probably have portal hypertension as well. This also causes esophageal varices as well.
176
What is cholestasis?
when bile can't flow to the duodenum from the liver. This often results in pruritis (itchiness) and jaundice
177
What does bilirubin come from and how does it turn into bile?
It comes from a breakdown of old RBCs. A macrophage eats the RBC, and then secretes free bilirubin the the blood stream. This free bilirubin immediately binds to albumin and together they go to the liver, where they are turned into bile.
178
What is unconjugated bilirubin?
Bilirubin that cannot dissociated with albumin and stays in the blood or whatever. It can't be secreted in urine.
179
What is the most common reason for liver transplants in the US?
Hepatitis C
180
Which Hepatitis is transmitted via fecal-oral route?
Hep A
181
How is Hep A diagnosed? How is immunity to Hep A found?
Anti-HAV IgM and immunity is conferred by Anti-HAV IgG
| HAV means Hep A Virus
182
Which Hepatitis is trasnmitted via needles?
Hep B
183
How is Hep B diagnosed? How is immunity to Hep B found?
HBsAg - diagnosis
| anti-HBsAb - immunity
184
Which hepatitis is NOT associated with cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma?
Hep A
185
What is the most common cause of cirrhosis?
alcohol use
186
What is emphysema?
When the airway distal to terminal bronchioles enlarge and destroy some of the alveolar walls. They have air trapped in their lungs and can't breath as well because they don't have ELASTIC RECOIL in the lungs.
187
What is a natural occuring substance in the lungs that protects against emphysema?
alpha1-antitrypsin
188
What are the 4 types of emphysema?
centroacinar - upper lobes (most common)
panacinar - lower lobes (older people)
paraseptal- young adults
irregular - with scarring
189
What is small airway disease?
Also known as bronchiolitis
It is a viral infection of small children/infants where the bronchioles undergo inflammation and are constricted, making harder to breath
190
What is bronchiectasis?
Where your bonchioles are permanently damaged, widened and thickened. This allows bacteria in easier and causes frequent infections.
191
What is chronic bronchitis?
Mucous gland hypersecretion, which makes you cough a lot. Caused by smoking or air pollution
192
What are the two types of asthma
atopic- caused by allergy
| non-atopic - non allergy
193
What type of IgE response happens in atopic asthma?
Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity
194
What is orthopnea?
dyspnea while lying flat
195
What is atelectasis?
Incomplete expansion of lungs. Common in infants that do not secrete surfactant.
196
What is cystic fibrosis?
an inherited disease that affects mucous glands many in the lungs, GI, reproductive and other organs. it causes mucous to be thick and sticky, which obstructs passageways.
197
Patients with cystic fibrosis often have a deficiency in what?
fat-soluble vitamins
198
What is the most common fatal genetic disease in white children?
cystic fibrosis
199
Which disease happens with prolonged inhalation of carbon dust?
anthracosis
200
What are the 3 morpholical types of pneumonia?
1. Lobar - Strep pneumonia
2. Bronchopneumonia - patchy distribution of various organisms
3. Interstitial - mycoplama or viruses
201
What is the most common type of bacteria that results in lung abcesses?
strep and staph
202
What are the types of melanoma?
1. superficial spreading melanoma - radial growth predominates
2. Nodular melanoma - vertical growth predominates
3. lentigo melanoma - on sun exposed skin (called Hutchinson freckle)
4. Acral-lentiginous - least common, on palm, sole or under nails
203
What is pheochromocytoma?
composed of chromaffin cells, it is a tumor of the adrenal gland. This causes excess secretion of Epi and Norepi. These are associated with the rule of 10's
204
What is the rule of 10's in pheochromocytoma?
1. 10% are extra-adrenal (called paragangliomas)
2. 10% are bilateral
3. 10% are malignant
4. 10% are NOT associated with hypertension
205
What is the most common malignant tumor of childhood?
neuroblastoma - tumor in the adrenal medulla
206
Where in the lung are adenocarcinomas usually located?
in the periphery
207
What is epidermoid carcinoma?
also known as squamous cell carcinoma.
narise in the hilus and is closely related to smoking
208
What is adenocarcinoma of the lung?
smaller and located in the periphery of the lungs. This is the most common type of lung cancer in non-smokers and women.
209
What is small cell carcinoma?
Also called "oat carcinoma", most aggressive and malignant. strongly related to smoking
210
What is large cell carcinoma?
Also called "anaplastic" carcinoma. composed of large cells
211
Which lymphoma usually involves abdominal organs and is linked to EBV?
Burkitt's lymphoma, which is a type of non-hodgkins lymphoma
212
What is histological characteristics of non-hodgkins lymphomas?
starry sky
213
Between Hodgkins and Non-Hodgkins lymphoma, which one is malignant and aggressive?
Non-hodgkins lymphoma
214
What are the two forms of Burkitt's Lymphoma and what are the areas that they begin?
African form: begin as a mass in the jaw
| American form: begin as a mass in the abdomen
215
What is the most common diagnosed cancer of the oral cavity?
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
216
Colorectal cancer is associated with increased serum concentration of what?
carcinoembryonic antigen
217
What serum marker is elevated in prostate cancer?
acid phosphatase and PSA (prostate-specific antigen)
218
What is the most common tumor in HIV/AIDS patients?
Kaposi's sarcoma
219
What type of Kaposi's sarcoma can have oral manifestations?
Epidemic, or AIDS associated Kaposi's Sarcoma
220
What is multiple myeloma?
A plasma cell neoplasm derived from B cells. It involves the axial skeleton and has the following symptoms:
1. bone lesions
2. hypercalcemia
3. anemia
4. renal failure
5. oral manifestations
6. Bence-Jones proteins
221
What are the oral manifestations of multiple myeloma?
dental pain, swelling, numbness, expansion of the jay and tooth mobility. (more common in mandible)
222
What is a teratoma?
has many different types of tissues in it
223
What is anaplasia?
when an area of tissue looks nothing like normal
224
What is the most common malignant tumor in bone?
osteogenic sarcoma
225
What is a choristoma?
a benign mass of tissue found in an organ in which it doesnt belong (like liver tissue in the intestine)
226
What is a hamartoma?
A benign tumor-like overgrowth of cells that are regularly found in that tumor, like a hemangioma
227
What is acanthosis nigricans?
cutaneous disorder where you have hyperkeratosis and pigmentation in various areas of the body
228
What is a dermatofibroma?
benign neoplasm that appear as small red bumps that result from accumulation of fibroblasts
229
What is acrochordon?
Skin tag
230
What is actinic keratosis?
premalignant skin lesion caused by the sun. Common on elderly
231
What is Seborrheic keratosis?
benign neoplasm common on older adults and look like warts
232
What is keratoacanthoma?
malignant common skin tumor, but can transform into SCC. It can originate from pilosebaceous glands and grow quickly.
233
What are the ABCDE of melanoma?
```
asymmetry
Borders irregular
Color is pigmented
diameter greater than 6 mm
evolution or change has occurred (it grew)
```
234
A schilling test is used to detect what?
pernicious anemia
235
What is pernicious anemia?
an autoimmune disorder were you lack intrinsic factor, that is needed to absorb vitamin B12. RBCs are macrocytic
236
What is the direction of growth in an arterial thrombus vs a venous thrombus?
arterial grows in retrograde direction, venous grows in the direction of blood flow. (both toward the heart)
237
What is congestion?
Too much fluid in capillaries.
238
What are the two types of congestion?
Active: arteriolar dilation
Passive: from obstruction
239
What are the causes of microcytic anemia?
Iron deficiency
| Thalassemias
240
What are the causes of macrocytic anemia?
Liver disease
| Vitamin B12 and Folate deficiency
241
What is Warfarin?
an anticoagulant that interferes with Vitamin K. Also called Coumadin.
242
What are 6 circumstances that will delay blood clotting in someone?
1. heparin
2. leukemia
3. cirrhosis
4. van Willebrand's disease
5. aspirin
6. Bernard-Soulier disease
243
What is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Basically its where you lack enzymes that can degrade vWF in the blood, meaning that you can have more vWF and start clotting in the bloodstream.
244
What is the most common cause of bleeding disorders?
Thrombocytopenia - reduced number of platelets
245
What is the most common hereditary anemia?
Sickle cell anemia
246
What amino acid irregularity is present in sickle cell RBCs?
valine is replaced with glutamic acid
247
What deficiency do you have with Hemophilia A, B and C
A- factor VIII
B- Factor IX
C- Factor XI
248
Is hemophilia an extrinsic or intrinsic disease?
intrinsic (prolonged PTT)
249
What is Albers-Schonberg disease?
```
Also known as osteopetrosis, it manifests with reduced bone resorption due to impaired osteoclasts.
This leads to:
1. fractures
2. anemia (decreased marrow space)
3. blindness and deafness
```
250
Primary pericarditis is almost always of what origin?
viral
251
What is the most common viral cause of pericarditis?
coxsackie B virus
252
What is the first cardiac marker to occur in the blood after an MI?
myoglobin, then troponin, then creatine kinase
253
What is the most common pathogen to cause acute endocarditis? what about sub acute endocarditis?
acute: staph aureus
subacute: strep viridans
254
Which bacteria has sulfur granules?
actinomyces
255
What does the tetanus toxin inactive?
proteins that regulate glycine and GABA
256
What does the botulism toxin inactive?
release of Ach
257
What is eosinophilia?
high counts of eosinophils in the blood, often associated with parasitic infections
258
What causes syphilis?
treponema pallidum
259
What are the lesions associated with primary, secondary and tertiary syphilis?
primary - chancre
secondary - condyloma lata
tertiary - gumma
260
encephalitis is most often caused by a ______ infection.
viral
261
What population does leukemia occur in most frequently?
children under 15
262
What is the most common cause of cancer death in children under the age of 15?
leukemia
263
What is the form of leukemia that is most responsive to therapy? What is the form that is most malignant?
responsive- ALL (acute lymphoblastic leukemia)
| malignant - AML (acute myeloid leukemia)
264
Which type of leukemia has Philadelphia chromosome?
Chronic myeloid leukemia
265
Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta?
IgG
266
Which immunoglobulin is used to opsonize things?
IgG
267
What is the difference between cellular immunity and humoral immunity?
cellular - T lymphocytes
| Humoral - B lymphocytes
268
Which is more potent and stable between C3a and C5a?
C5a
269
What are the three major complement pathways?
1. Classical - antibody
2. alternative - no antibody
3. Lectin - Mannose binding lectin
270
What is adoptive immunity?
transferring lymphocytes from one person to another.
271
Which compliment pathway is the first one that is activated?
alternative pathway
272
What things are released into the bloodstream during anaphylactic shock?
```
histamine
heparin
platelet activating factors
SRS-As - causes spasms in bronchioles
serotonin
```
273
What type of IgA is secretory?
dimeric IgA
274
What is an adjuvant in vaccinations?
They enhance inflammation and create a stronger immune response, thereby enhancing the vaccination effectiveness.
275
What are the adjuvants approved for human use?
Alum and MF59
