MID 3 - UTIs, Diarrhea, Anaerobes Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

What is the definition of complicated UTI?

A

UTI with functional or structural abnormalities such as indwelling catheters, renal calculi; UTI in diabetics, immunosuppressed patients.

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2
Q

What are clinical symptoms of lower tract UTI (cystitis)

A

dysuria, urinary urgency and frequency, bladder fullness/discomfort; hemorrhagic cystitis in 10% of cases.

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3
Q

What are clinical symptoms of upper tract UTI (pyelonephritis)

A

Fever, sweating, nausea, vomiting, flank pain, dysuria; dehydration / hypotension; urinary freqency, urgency, dysuria.

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4
Q

What is the gold standard for UTI diagnosis?

A

microbiological analysis with bacterial count > 10^5 per mL.

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5
Q

When is it indicated to collect a urine sample for urine culture in suspected UTIs?

A

pyelonephritis; complicated UTIs; children, men, pregnant women

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6
Q

What is the primary cause of uncomplicated UTI in sexually active women?

A

80% E. coli, 11% Staph saprophyticus.

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7
Q

What are the primary host defenses against UTI?

A

urine flow / micturition; high osmolality and low pH of urine; inflammatory response; inhibitors of bacterial adherence such as Tamm-Horsfall protein

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8
Q

What are the symptoms and treatment of acute bacterial prostatitis?

A

Symptoms are similar to UTI + warm, swollen, tender prostate on rectal exam, positive urine culture, pyuria. Treatment consists of longer course of antibiotics and pain control.

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9
Q

What organisms are responsible for UTIs of patients with structural abnormalities or instrumentation?

A

35% E. coli, enterobacter, serratia and pseudomonas are also common. Also, gram positive enterococcus species and coagulase-negative staph.

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10
Q

What organisms are response for UTIs in uncomplicated patients?

A

80% E. coli; 10% staph saprophyticus.

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11
Q

What factors in young women predispose to UTIs?

A

short urethra; sexual intercourse without post-coital voiding; diaphragm use (physical manipulation may promote bacterial colonization; spermicide use (raises vaginal pH).

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12
Q

On a urine dipstick, what is indicative of a UTI?

A

nitrites and leukocyte esterase

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13
Q

What are the first line treatments for UTI in uncomplicated patients and what are their modes of action?

A

1) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (folate inhibitor)
2) nitrofurantoin (contraindicated if pyelonephritis is suspected)
3) fosfomycin (contraindicated if pyelonephritis is suspected)

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14
Q

What role does P-fimbriae play for E. Coli urinary tract infections?

A

P-fimriae blocks phagocytosis, adhere, persist and invade the kidney, inducing bacteremia and resulting in pyelonephritis.

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15
Q

What role does Type 1-fimbriae play for E. Coli urinary tract infections?

A

Type 1-fimbriae facilitate adherence to the bladder epithelium.

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16
Q

Why is Staph saprophyticus more likely to cause UTI than S. Aureus or S. epidermidis?

A

Adheres significantly better to uroepithelium.

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17
Q

What are ideal antimicrobials for uncomplicated UTI?

A

trimethoprim/co-trimoxazole, flouoroquinolones.

18
Q

What roles to anaerobes play in humans?

A

bacteroides fragilis synthesizes vitamin K and deconjugates bile acids; fermentation of undigested carbs; trains immune system

19
Q

What anaerobic gram-positive cocci causes infection and where is it found?

A

peptostreptococcus; skin

20
Q

What gram-negative cocci anaerobe causes infection and where is it found?

A

Veillonella; oral flora

21
Q

What gram-positive bacilli anaerobe causes infectionand where is it found?

A

Clostridium perfringens, tetani, botulinum, difficile (intestines); propionibacterium (skin, upper respiratory tract).

22
Q

What gram-negative bacilli anaerobe causes infection, and where is it found?

A

Bacteroides fragilis (intestines), thetaiotaomicron

23
Q

What species causes acne and where does it reside?

A

propionibacterium acnes; resides in sebaceous follicles.

24
Q

What type of infection is characterized by chronic granulomatous lesions that become suppurative and form sinus tracts?

A

actinomycosis, caused by poor oral hygiene, oral trauma, invasive dental procedure, treated by surgical debridement and prolonged penicillin.

25
What gram-positive bacillus causes self-limited gastroenteritis or, alternatively, soft tissue infection leading to cellulitis, fascitis or myonecrosis (gas gangrene)?
Clostridium perfringens.
26
How does one diagnose and treat C. difficile?
isolation of toxin (Toxin A/B ELISA or PCR assay for toxin B); discontinue abx, give metronidazole or vancomycin; probiotics (lactobacillus), fecal microbial transplant in treatment-resident population.
27
Describe the epidemiology and pathophysiology of C. tetani.
epi: spores found in most soils, GI tracts of animals, does not induce immunity. Path: spore inoculated into wound, heat-labile neurotoxin tetanospasmin irreversibly blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA, resulting in muscle spasm.
28
What are the clinical manifestation of tetanus?
lock jaw, risus sardonicus, sweating, hyperthermia, cardiac arrythmias, labile BP.
29
What is the treatment of choice for tetanus?
surgical debridement of wound; metronidazole, tetanus immunoglobulin, vaccination with tetanus toxoid.
30
What are the clinical features of botulism?
onset 1-2 days after food-born exposure: blurred vision, dilated pupils, dry mouth, constipation, bilateral descending weakness of peripheral muscles; death related to respiratory failure.
31
What is the pathogenesis and treatment of choice for clostridium botulinum?
path: blocks NT at peripheral cholinergic synapses, resulting in muscle relaxation. Recovery depends on regeneration of nerve endings. Tx: Identify toxin or organism in stool or serum; supportive care and gastric lavage + metronidazole or penicillin and botulinum immunoglobulin.
32
What bacterium is associated with 80% of intra-abdominal infections including peritonitis, intraabdominal abcesses?
bacteroides fragilis
33
What are the principal alpha hemolytic organisms?
S. viridans | Strep. penumococcus
34
What are the principal beta hemolytic organisms?
GAS (Group A Strep, ala strep pyogenes) GBS (strep agalactiae) Group C
35
What are the principal gamma hemolytic organisms?
enterococcus
36
What are the major symptoms of strep A?
1) erythematous exudates 2) fever 3) absence of cough 4) swollen cervical lymph nodes NOTE: enlarged spleen would potentially indicate mono.
37
Why is it important to diagnose Strep A vs other streps?
Strep A causes rheumatic fever. Other strains do not.
38
What are the two main determinants of Strep A virulence and what is its mode of action?
M protein - important for preventing complement activation, part of pilus. Hyalurate - capsule that helps phagocytic evasion.
39
What causes rheumatic fever?
Antibody produced against M protein recognizes homologue in endocardium.
40
How does one treat rheumatic fever?
Treat strep A, monthly profylaxis against Strep A, NSAIDs for the pain, bed rest for the carditis.