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Pharmacology > mid sem test > Flashcards

mid sem test Flashcards

1
Q

what is pharmacokinetics?

A

the way the drug is absorbed, distributed, biotransformed and excreted from the body.

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2
Q

receptors in pharmacology

A

will also cause adverse effects

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3
Q

statement best describes drug therapy for a particular vulnerable group is

A

neonate & older adult a prolonged half-life can occur due to their decreased kidney function.

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4
Q

if a drug has a first pass effect this means?

A

after administration it is metabolised first before it reaches the systemic circulation

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5
Q

drug formulations in correct order from lowest to highest bioavailability are?

A

pill, oral suspension, oral solution, IV solution.

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6
Q

a drug contraindicated during pregnancy is

A

category X

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7
Q

excretion of drugs occurs

A

via breast milk, tears and kidneys

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8
Q

older adult may be at increased risk for drug accumulation because

A

liver function decreases with age

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9
Q

a drug that has a short half-life is

A

less likely to cause problems for breast feeding mums

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10
Q

example of type B adverse effect is

A

anaphylaxis

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11
Q

phenytoin, an anticonvulsant, is a potent inducer of hepatic metabolising enzymes. when the other drugs metabolised by the same hepatic metabolising enzymes are co-administered with phenytoin this can result in

A

decreased serum concentrations of the other drugs and possible non-therapeutic effect.

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12
Q

pharmacist-only drugs

A

are sold in pharmacies only and must be purchased from the pharmacist.

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13
Q

the most clinically significant drug-drug interactions are those involving drugs

A

that are metabolised by the liver

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14
Q

narrow therapeutic index drugs

A

they require regular monitoring

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15
Q

if an antibiotic is acid stable, and it is given orally

A

it will have good bioavailability

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16
Q

advice NOT to give a pt using miconazole cream>

A

it should be applied for at least 48 hrs after infection has cleared.

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17
Q

MOA of terbinafine means that it

A

is faster acting than an azole

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18
Q

false statement about antibiotic doxycycline
-true-
is bacteriostatic
can be taken as prophylactic treatment for malaria
should be taken 2 hrs apart from a calcium supplement.

A

is safe to use in pregnancy

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19
Q

example of a group of cell-cycle nonspecific drugs is

A

cytotoxic antibiotics

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20
Q

Zidovudine (AZT) is an example of a prodrug. if someone has impaired liver function this will result in

A

a decrease in response to treatment

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21
Q

codeine can be used to treat all of the following EXCEPT

  • acute pain
  • dry cough
  • diarrhoea
A

urinary retention

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22
Q

pharmacotherapeutic actions of paracetamol are

A

analgesic and antipyretic

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23
Q

all of the following are non-opiod EXCEPT

  • naproxen
  • paracetamol
  • diclofenac
A

tramadol

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24
Q

signs of withdrawal symptoms from an opioid analgesic overdose include

A

dilated pupils and hypertension

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25
Q

antidote for paracetamol overdose is

A

acetylcysteine

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26
Q

inhibition of the synthesis of COX-1 catalysed prostaglandins is associated with all of the following EXCEPT
-^ risk of GI ulcers, bleeding, decreased renal perfusion

A

decreased inflammation

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27
Q

providone-iodine is an example of a topical

A

antiseptic

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28
Q

the enzyme that atazanavir targets is

A

HIV protease

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29
Q

naloxone acts as an

A

opioid antagonist

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30
Q

WHO ladder of analgesia for acute pain treatment, the correct order of meds in pain plan from start to finish would be?

A

oxycodone, tramadol, paracetamol

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31
Q

anaphylactic shock would be treated by administration of a

A

sympathomimetic

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32
Q

MOA of a rocuronium is to bind to

A

nicotinic receptors and block the acetyline from binding

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33
Q

quick relief from an acute exacerbation of asthma would be best achieved by using

A

salbutamol

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34
Q

antidote for organophosphate poisoning is

A

atropine

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35
Q

anticholinesterase drugs have a common adverse effect of

A

hypotension

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36
Q

tachycardia is a common adverse effect of all of the following EXCEPT

  • ipratropium
  • terbutaline
  • theophylline
A

budesonide

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37
Q

adrenergic receptor found on the presynaptic neuron is

A

a2

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38
Q

Adrenergic receptors can be stimulated by

A

norepinephrine and dopamine

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39
Q

dobutamine is indicated for circulatory shock because it is a

A

B1 agonist

40
Q

treatment used for the motor symptoms of parkinson’s is oral administration

A

benzatropine

41
Q

having hypertension is a contraindication of using nasal decongestants containing

A

phenylephrine

42
Q

an example of pre-med drug used to reduce gastric and resp secretions is

A

atropine

43
Q

a stepwise approach to asthma management in children would dictate that

A

the lowest dose of each drug should be used in there is good control of asthma symptoms.

44
Q

beta blockers are classified as

A

sympatholytics

45
Q

drugs that inhibit monoamine oxidase enzyme will lead to

A

increased synaptic activity of norepinephrine

46
Q

Pilocarpine

A

glaucoma

47
Q

tramadol

A

moderate pain

48
Q

paracetamol

A

mild pain

49
Q

metronidazole

A

giardia

50
Q

aciclovir

A

herpes simplex

51
Q

sodium cromoglicate

A

asthma

52
Q

diclofenac

A

arthritic pain

53
Q

miconazole

A

thrush

54
Q

salmeterol

A

long-acting beta 2 agonist

55
Q

prednisone

A

steroid

56
Q

glycopyrronium

A

long-acting muscarinic antagonist

57
Q

metoprolol

A

beta blocker

58
Q

ciprofloxacin

A

quinolone antibiotic

59
Q

clotrimazole

A

azole antifungal

60
Q

doxycycline

A

tetracycline antibiotic

61
Q

dolutegravir

A

integrase inhibitor

62
Q

clarithromycin MOA

A

inhibits the synthesis of bacterial proteins

63
Q

cefalexin MOA

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis

64
Q

ipratropium MOA

A

binds to muscarinic receptors and blocks a parasympathetic response

65
Q

codeine MOA

A

binds to opioid receptors & stops the release of substance P

66
Q

celecoxib MOA

A

inhibits COX-2 enzymes &stops production of prostaglandins

67
Q

amphotericin B MOA

A

alters cell membrane permeability

68
Q

efavirenz MOA

A

inhibits reverse transcriptase & stops the synthesis of viral NA

69
Q

dobutamine MOA

A

binds to adrenergic receptors & stimulates a sympathetic response

70
Q

opioid analgesic adverse effects

A

nausea & vomiting, urinary retention, sedation

71
Q

antimetabolites adverse effects

A

decreased WBC, anorexia, diarrhoea

72
Q

beta blockers adverse effects

A

postural hypotension, diarrhoea, bronchospasm

73
Q

NSAID drugs adverse effects

A

GI upset, sodium, water retention

74
Q

Aminoglycosides adverse effects

A

GI upset, superinfection, ototoxicity

75
Q

quinolones adverse effects

A

GI upset, superinfection, rash

76
Q

short acting beta 2 adrenergic agonists adverse effects

A

tachycardia,fine tremors,increased blood glucose

77
Q

antimuscarinic drugs adverse effects

A

dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation

78
Q

the constipation of morphine and naloxone leads to increased adverse effects

A

False

79
Q

a drug is considered ‘safe’ during breast feeding if the infant’s dose is less than 20% of the maternal dose (mg/kg)

A

false

80
Q

polypharmacy is the same as cocktail therapy

A

false

81
Q

enteric coated tablets increase bioavailability of a drug

A

true

82
Q

pt at risk of GI complications who needs to be on an NSAID, should also be prescribed a proton pump inhibitor

A

true

83
Q

drinking alcohol with metronidazole can increase the risk of drowsiness

A

false

84
Q

disinfectants are used to kill microorganisms on the skin

A

false

85
Q

fast metabolisers of cedeine are at increased risk of toxicity

A

true

86
Q

teratogenicity is an example of type b adverse effect

A

false

87
Q

salbutamol can be administered via IV to treat premature labour

A

true

88
Q

flucloxacillin is a broad antibiotic

A

false

89
Q

nicotinic antagonists can b used to aid smoking cessation

A

false

90
Q

why is celebrex is good for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

good for relieving symptoms of arthritis such as swelling & joint pain as well as its a selective COX-2 inhibitor & does not inhibit the COZ-1 enzyme, prostaglandins that have a role providing gastroprotection are still being produced, therefore there is a lower risk of GI disturbances.

91
Q

what does it mean by controlled release tablets

A

drugs released slower and steadier into the bloodstream over period of time. usually used for drugs that have short half-life and hence allows for reduced frequency of dosing

92
Q

why oxycodone should be used with caution and under close supervision?

A

has a potential for tolerance and physical dependency upon repeated administration. greater at risk of misuse/abuse can lead to physical dependancy and strong psychological dependency

93
Q

why doses should be reduced in pt with renal or hepatic impairment

A

drug is metabolised in the liver & excreted via urine or faeces. hepatic impairment would decrease metabolism of the drug -prolonged half-life. renal impairment would decrease excretion of drugs’ metabolites leading to possible toxicity. lower dose will reduce risk of toxicity and will ensure therapeutic effect is carried out.

94
Q

what does increased in viral load mean?

A

likely indicates drug resistance and/or poor compliance.

95
Q

advantages of using cocktail therapy to treat HIV infection?

A

by using a combination of antiretroviral drugs that target dif stages of viral life cycle you can significantly inhibit viral replication reducing viral load. if HIV virus is inhibited it decreases the risk of HIV virus mutating possibly leading to drug resistance

96
Q

MOA of budesonide and eformoterol?

A
  • potent anti-inflammatory, it decreases airway inflammation and spasms.
  • long acting beta2 agonist that causes bronchodilation by relaxing smooth muscles when inhaled therefore treating exacerbation
97
Q

which inhaler has an adverse effect of oral thrush

A

budesonide- it increases risk of opportunistic infection by Candida

Pharmacology (7 decks)

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