MIDTERM 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What is behaviour endocrinology?
A
The study of the interactions among hormones, brain, and behavior.
2
Q
What are the 3 communication systems in the body?
A
- Nervous System (Neurotransmitters)
- Endocrine System (Hormones)
- Immune System (Cytokines)
3
Q
What are the two subdivisions of the NS and what are their subdivisions?
A
- Central Nervous System (CNS)
- Brain
- Spinal cord
Both are encased in bone - Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
- Autonomic Nervous System (involuntary)
- Somatic Nervous System (conscious perception and voluntary motor responses)
Cranial and spinal nerves
4
Q
In the PNS, what are the two subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system and what are they responsible for?
A
- Sympathetic Nervous System
Responsible for fight or flight response - Parasympathetic Nervous System
Responsible for rest and digest
5
Q
In the PNS, what is the somatic nervous system responsible for?
A
It allows you to move and control muscles throughout your body.
It also feeds information from four of your senses — smell, sound, taste and touch — into your brain.
Includes afferent and efferent neurons.
6
Q
What are afferent neurons and what are efferent neurons?
A
Afferent neurons carry information from sensory receptors to the central nervous system .
Efferent neurons carry motor information away from the CNS to the muscles and glands of the body.
7
Q
Name the 3 divisions of the brain.
A
- Forebrain (TELECEPHALON & DIENCEPHALON)
- Midbrain
- Hindbrain
8
Q
The cortex is responsible for what?
A
Cognitive functions such as: consciousness, thought, emotion, reasoning, language and memory.
9
Q
Name the different lobes of the cortex.
A
- Frontal Lobe
- Parietal Lobe
- Temporal Lobe
- Occipital Lobe
10
Q
What is the frontal lobe responsible for?
A
- Executive functioning (Pfc)
- Motor control (motor cortex)
- Emotion
- Language (contains broca’s area)
11
Q
What part of Phineas Gage’s brain was damaged in a railroad accident and what was the result?
A
Widespread lesion of his brain’s left frontal lobe which lead to reported effects on his personality and behavior.
12
Q
What is the parietal lobe responsible for?
A
Sensory information of the body (contains the somatosensory cortex (postcentral gyrus)).
Remember how we would look if we were a representation of our bodily sensations (cortical homunculus)
13
Q
What is the temporal lobe responsible for?
A
Processing auditory signals
It is important in some aspects of learning, memory, and language.
14
Q
What is the occipital lobe responsible for?
A
Visual perception.
Blunt force to this area can transmit significant force to the brain and the structures in the brainstem, increasing the risk of:
- Concussions
- Traumatic brain injuries
- Damage to the nerves responsible for vital functions like vision and balance.
Illegal to hit there in boxing matches.
15
Q
Name the components of the limbic system and what they are responsible for.
A
Emotional Responses such as fear, aggression, sexual attraction, memory, learning and smell.
Bridge between neocortex and brainstem.
- Hypothalamus
- Thalamus
- Hippocampus
- Amygdala
16
Q
In the limbic system, what is the hypothalamus and what happens when it is damaged?
A
Hypothalamus: Critical connection between brain and body. Releases hormones and controls other glands. Maintains homeostasis in the body. Sleep/wake, hunger/satiety, fight/flight.
This is why it is called the master regulator of the endocrine system.
When it is damaged, affects appetite, temperature control, sleep and mood.
17
Q
In the limbic system, what is the thalamus and what happens when it is damaged?
A
Thalamus: Relay center of the brain, which inputs go where or if it is ignored altogether. If information is relevant, it will send information to relevant parts of brain, occurs for most senses except smell which is sent directly to olfactory bulbs.
When it is damaged, can lead to loss of senses, decrease in balance/coordination and pain related issues.
18
Q
In the limbic system, what is the hippocampus and what happens when it is damaged?
A
Hippocampus: Sea horse like in shape, related to learning and memory. Especially short-term to long-term memory conservation.
When hippocampus is damaged, people cannot convert short-term memories in to long-term memories. So, things are forgot within minutes. Memories prior to damage are intact but no new ones can form. Anterograde amnesia.
19
Q
In the limbic system, what is the amygdala and what happens when it is damaged?
A
Amygdala: Almond shaped structure responsible for fear, anxiety, aggression, sexual attraction and pleasure. Important to note amygdala sends the signal but hypothalamus activates bodily response.
When amygdala is damaged it can lead to Kluver-Bucy Syndrome (impairment in ability to feel fear, hypersexuality and other symptoms).
20
Q
What is H.M. known for?
A
Due to seizures, Dr. Scoville removed his hippocampus. At the time, the function of the hippocampus was unknown. His seizures improved and no decrease in intelligence but his memory was gone. He was unable to form new memories because he had no hippocampus to consolidate his memories.
21
Q
What is Brenda Milner known for?
A
Brenda Milner studied the caseof H.M. She exemplified the difference between short-term and long-term memory, while demonstrated they were also specific to certain brain regions.
She also exemplified that learning can still occur without explicit memory. So, declarative memory (knowing that) and procedural memory (knowing how) are different. Procedural memory relies more heavily on the basal ganglia and cerebellum.
22
Q
Name the components of the midbrain and what they are responsible for.
A
- Substantia nigra
- Ventral tegmental area
They are responsible for mood, reward and addiction.
23
Q
Name the components of the hindbrain.
A
- Medulla
- Pons
- Cerebellum
24
Q
What is a glial cells?
A
Initially it was thought that glia served only to hold neurons in place and act as supportive cells. However, glia are recognized as having a
variety of functions:
- Providing support to neurons
- Repair damage
- Fight infections
- Influencing neurotransmission.
25
What are the different glial cells and what do they do?
In CNS:
- Microglia
Immune response, Homeostasis and Supporting neuronal function
- Oligodendrocyte
Produce myelin sheaths that wrap around axons, Nurturing and sustaining the environment around axons
- Astrocyte
Neural support, Repair damage and Regulate neuronal communication
In PNS:
- Satellite Cell
- Schwann Cell
26
What are neurons?
Neurons are essentially excitable cells containing dendrites to receive information from other neurons and axons with terminal buttons to excite other neurons.
27
What do terminal buttons contain?
Terminal buttons of axons contain synaptic vesicles that house neurotransmitters
28
What is the soma?
It is the central part of the neuron.
The watery fluid inside the cell, called the cytosol , is a
salty, potassium rich solution that is separated from the
outside by the neuronal membrane. Within the soma are a number of membrane-enclosed structures called organelles. The cell body of the neuron contains the same organelles found in all animal cells.
29
What is the nucleus?
Spherical, centrally located part of the neuron cell. It is contained within a double membrane called the nuclear envelope.
The nuclear envelope is perforated by pores. Some hormones acts within the neuron nucleus and have transcriptional properties like gene-transcription.
30
What is the membrane in neurons?
Serves as a barrier to enclose the cytoplasm inside the neuron and to exclude certain substances that float in the fluid that bathes the neuron.
31
What types of proteins can be found embedded within the neuron cell membrane?
- Ion Channels
- Transporters
- Receptors
- Enzymes
32
TRUE OR FALSE.
The inside of a neuron cell is positively charged and the outside is negatively charged.
FALSE.
The inside of a neuron cell is negatively charged and the outside is positively charged.
33
What happens at the cell membranes at resting potential?
At resting potential, all voltage gated sodium channels and voltage gated potassium channels are closed. The Na/K transporter pumps K into cell and Na out of it.
* Higher concentration of Na outside of cell and K inside of it.
34
Which area of a myelinated axon is the depolarized region (where AP occur)?
Node of Ranvier
35
What are some properties of action potentials?
- They are all similar in size and duration, and they do not diminish as they are conducted down
the axon
- The frequency and pattern of action potentials constitute the code used by neurons to transfer information from one location to
another.
- Can occur very rapidly—100 times faster than the blink of an eye, and the action potential lasts about 2 milliseconds
36
Ligand-gated ion channels are ...
Ionotropic
NT binds, it opens and ions can flow through membrane.
37
What is the definition of an Action Potential (or nerve impulse)?
The action potential is a rapid reversal of resting membrane potential, such that, for an instant the inside of the membrane becomes positively charged in relation to
the outside.
38
How do hormones affect behaviour?
By affecting individuals sensory systems, integrators and or effectors (output system).
They do not CAUSE behaviours but they moderate them.
39
What is a hormone and what do they do?
Organic chemical messenger released from endocrine cells that travel through the blood system to interact with cells via specific receptors.
They change gene expression or cellular function, thus increasing the probability that a given behaviour will occur in the presence of specific stimulus.
40
What are endocrine glands?
Ductless glands from which hormones are released into blood stream in response to specific physiological signals.
41
TRUE or FALSE.
Hormones can affect more than just behaviour, they can also affect human attributes and characteristics.
TRUE.
For example, human growth hormone or steroids.
42
Historically, how did people determine if a gland affected behaviour?
Ablation (cutting it off) and replacement
1. Surgically remove gland that is suspected to be source of hormones.
2. Observe the effect on behaviour
3. Hormone is replaced by reimplantation, injection of extract from gland or injecting purified hormone.
4. Observe if consequences of removal are reversed by the replacement hormone therapy
43
What are the main immunoassays (7)?
- Bioassays
- Radioimmunoassays
- Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
- Immunocytochemistry (ICC) and Immunohistochemistry (IHC)
- Autoradiography
- Blot tests
- In situ hybridization
44
What are antigens and antibodies?
Antigen: Molecule that binds to a specific antibody (like a hormone we want to study)
Antibody: Protein made by plasma cells in response to an antigen (substance causing the body to make a specific immune response)
45
What methods of immunoassays can help us determine the locus of the action of one or more hormones?
Immunocytochemistry (ICC): applied to cells
Immunohystochemistry (IHC): applied to tissues
Both use antibodies labeled with dyes or enzymes to determine the location of a hormone in specific cell or tissues.
46
What is the difference between autoradiography and radioimmunoassay?
Autoradiography helps vizualize and locate radioactive substances in a sample. Helps see where they are distributed.
Radioimmunoassay helps determine the concentration of a specific hormone using a radioactive label based on interactions with antibodies.
47
What method can be used to quantify several proteins at the same time?
Blot test or Western Blot (specifically protein)
Tissues of interest are placed in a gel and then to a membrane and then into an incubator with an antibody to identify proteins of interest.
Essentially, transfers and detects biomolecules using specific probes.
48
What is In Situ Hybridization and what is it used for?
It locates and visualizes specific nucleic acid sequences within cells or tissues.
49
How can Positron Emission Tomography be used to study behavior endocrinology?
PET scans are a brain imaging technique that can be used to detect radioactivity as injected compound accumulates in different brain regions.
50
Name the different brain imaging techniques.
- PET scan
- fMRI
51
What is CRISPR CAS9 (what chops)
CRISPR allows precise editing of genes within organisms in molecular biology. Involves cutting DNA at specific locations and introducing modifications relying on cell's natural repair mechanisms, thus allowing introduction of new DNA sequence.
52
What is leptin?
Hormone that helps with the maintenance of normal body weight on a longterm basis. It directly relates to level of body fat. Leptin resistance causes you to feel hungry and eat more, even though your body has enough fat stores.
53
What is a radioimmunoassay and what does it measure?
It is a type of immunoassay that measures the concentration of antigens using radioactive labels. The concentration of a given hormone is inversely related to the radioactive labels.
54
What do Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) detect?
They detect antigens or antibodies using enzyme-based reactions.
55
What are hormones?
Chemical messengers that travel through blood stream targeting specific organs or tissues. They regulate, integrate and control bodily functions, they can have more than 1 effect.
Ex: Double action of epinephrine in liver cell or skeletal muscle
56
What are the different forms of chemical communication?
- Intracrine mediation (intracelllular events)
- Autocrine mediation (influence cell that secreted it)
- Paracrine mediation (affect adjacent cells)
- Endocrine mediation (send into bloodstream to affect distant targets)
- Ectocrine mediation (into environment to communicate with others, like pheromones)
57
Name the 5 main features of the endocrine system.
1. Endocrine glands are ductless
2. Glands are rich in blood supply
3. Hormones, the result of endocrine glands, are secreted into the blood stream.
4. Hormones can basically travel to every cell in the body and interact if they have the right receptors.
5. Receptors are binding sites that interact with hormone or classes of hormones.
58
Give an example of a gland that is both endocrine and exocrine.
The pancreas, as it secretes juices into the intestines via ducts but also secretes hormones into the bloodstream for energy utilization and storage.
59
What are the major chemical classes of hormones?
1. Polypeptides (proteins and peptides)
2. Steroids
3. Amines
*4. Some consider lipid-based hormones to be a fourth class
60
TRUE or FALSE.
Water-soluble (hydrophilic) polypeptides need a carrier protein to be transported in the blood.
FALSE.
It is lipid-soluble steroids that need a carrier protein to be transported in blood.
61
Describe peptide hormones.
They are premade and stored in vesicles.
They release by exocytosis and they are dissolved in plasma.
They have a short half-life and receptors are at the cell membrane.
In general, they modify existing proteins and induce new protein synthesis.
Ex: Insulin, parathyroid hormone
62
Describe steroid hormones.
They're synthesized on demand and released through simple diffusion.
To be transported in blood, they bind to carrier proteins and they have a long half-life.
Receptors are located in cytoplasm or nucleus mostly.
Induces new protein synthesis.
Ex: Estrogen, androgens and cortisol
63
Describe catecholamines.
Made in advance and stored in vesicles.
Released by exocytosis and dissolved in plasma with a short half-life.
Receptors are at cell membrane and target response is to modify existing proteins.
Ex: Epinephrine and norepinephrine
64
Name some of the major endocrine glands.
Hypothalamus
Pineal Gland
Pituitary Gland (Anterior and Posterior)
Thyroid
Pancreas
Gut
Gonads
65
What are the excitatory hypothalamic hormones?
(CGGTMK)
1. (CRH) Corticotropin-releasing hormone
2. (GnRH) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
3. (GH-RH) Growth hormone-releasing hormone
4. (THR) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
5. (MRH) Melanotropin releasing hormone
6. Kisspeptin
66
What are the inhibitory hypothalamic hormones?
1. Dopamine (DA)
2. Somatostatin (SOM)
67
TRUE or FALSE.
The pituitary gland is the master gland.
FALSE.
It was once considered the master gland but it is really two distinct glands fused into one, the posterior and the anterior pituitary gland.
68
What type of hormones are anterior pituitary hormones usually considered?
They are usually considered polypeptide tropic hormones because they stimulate various physiological processes.
69
What kind of hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?
- Corticotropin-related peptides (ACTH)
- Somatomammotropins (somatropin)
- Glycoproteins (TSH)
70
TRUE or FALSE.
The anterior pituitary gland is directly innervated by the hypothalamus, rather than being released into a portal system.
FALSE.
It is the posterior pituitary gland that the hypothalamus innervates. Hormones such as oxytocin and vasopressin enter the post. pit (stored in vesicles) and then they are diffused into capillaries before leaving the gland via the blood, they can be released as fast as neural impulses.
71
What does Vasopressin do?
It is an antidiuretic hormone that retains water in the body. It constricts blood vessels to also deal with blood loss.
72
What does oxytocin do?
Influences reproductive function in mammals, important during birth because it causes uterine contractions. Can be used to induce labour.
73
TRUE or FALSE.
The pineal gland produces melatonin, which is synthesized from serotonin.
TRUE.
The pineal gland regulated the circadian rhythm through melatonin secretion.
74
What are the key functions of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4)?
- Regulating body metabolism
- Control the dev. of the brain and NS
- Sexual maturation
- Temperature regulation.
75
TRUE or FALSE.
Triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) are not fat-soluble, meaning that they are slow to diffuse and do not need a carrier protein.
FALSE.
Triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) are fat-soluble. They diffuse rapidly across cell membranes but they do need a carrier protein to travel through the blood.
76
What are parathyroid and C-cell hormones responsible for?
Parathyroid (PTH): Elevates blood levels of calcium
Calcitonin (CT): lowers blood level of calcium
No pituitary tropic hormones are involved in their regulation, both are controlled by calcium blood levels.
77
What are endocrine tissues of the pancreas called?
Islets of Langerhans
There are four cell types in these
1. alpha cells
2. beta cells
3. delta cells
4. polypeptide-secreting cells
78
What do the 3 first cell types present in the endocrine tissues of the pancreas do?
1. Alpha: Glucagon increases blood levels of glucose
2. Beta: Produces insulin to lower blood sugar
3. Delta: Somatostatin inhibits insulin and glucagon locally
79
TRUE or FALSE.
All cells except for those in the nervous system have insulin receptors.
FALSE.
There are insulin receptors in neuronal cells.
80
The adrenal glands, which can be found atop the kidneys, each have two distinct regions. What are they called?
The cortex and the medulla.
81
What are the 3 monoamine hormones that the adrenal medulla releases?
*The adrenal medulla functions as part of the autonomic NS
1. Epinephrine
2. Norepinephrine
3. Dopamine
*Also releases enkephalins but they are not monoamine hormones
82
From the most outer part to the inner part of the adrenal cortex, name the 3 parts.
1. Zona Glomerulosa
2. Zona Fasciculata
3. Zona Reticularis
*Then it is the adrenal medulla
83
Name the hormones released by these parts of the adrenal cortex:
1. Zona Glomerulosa
2. Zona Fasciculata
3. Zona Reticularis
1. Aldosterone
2. Glucocorticoid
3. Sex steroid hormones
84
What type of stress response are the hormones secreted by the medulla in the adrenal glands responsible for?
These hormones are responsible for the short-term stress response (heart rate, dilation, ...).
85
What are the two functions of gonads?
1. The production of gametes (sperm or eggs)
2. The production of hormones
86
What are the main hormones produced by gonads?
Steroid hormones, as they are required for gamete dev. and secondary sex characteristics.
87
Which glands and hormones are responsible for the regulation of gonads?
The anterior pituitary regulates by tropic hormones (gonadotropins).
88
Which cells are involved in spermatogenesis?
Sertoli cells
89
What cells are involved in the production of androgens and testosterone in the testes?
Leydig cells
90
What is Atresia?
The continual degeneration of follicles throughout life (no additional gametes are formed postnatally in women).
91
What are the 3 main functional subunits of the ovaries and what do they do.
1. Follicles: sac that contains an egg
2. Corpora Lutea: structure that forms after egg release, preparing for implantation.
3. Stroma
92
How many eggs are ovulated by an average woman between puberty and menopause?
400 ovas
(Infant ovaries have 500, 000 follicles)
93
From top to bottom what are the levels of sex determination (sequence of cascading events)?
1. Chromosomal sex
2. Gonadal sex
3. Hormonal sex
4. Morphological sex
5. Behavioural sex (which is also directly affected by chromosomal)
94
What is the advantage of sexual reproduction vs asexual reproduction?
Asexual reproduction has low genetic variability while sexual reproduction allows more genetic flexibility which helps with survival.
95
In terms of the mating system, why do some species prefer monogamous mating (prairie voles) while others are polygamous (elk)?
Sexual dimorphism emphasis may help explain (prairie voles are all nearly identical while elks display different characteristics). Females have to be more selective for the genetic material of their offspring.
96
TRUE or FALSE.
Sexually dimorphic behaviour is purely biological.
FALSE.
The role of the environment also influences sexually dimorphic behaviour (nature and nurture).
97
What is the primary step in the process of mammalian sexual differentiation?
Chromosomal sex which is defined during fertilization.
Sex of child determined by X or Y chromosome from sperm.
98
Regardless of the chromosomal sex, what bipotential primordial gonad develops on the surface of the ventromedial surface of each protokidney in the gonadal sex stage?
The thickening is called germinal ridge. If expression of SRY is found of Y chromosome, it will produce testis determination factor (TDF).
Female develop on outer part of ridge (cortex) and males in the middle (medulla).
99
The protein product of what leads to the development of the testis?
SRY and SOX9
If not present, ovaries are formed. Wnt4 may also be required for ovarian development.
100
How do hormones following gonadal sex development determine whether an individual develops in a male or female manner?
Testes will produce androgens and ovaries do not produce high concentration of hormones.
101
TRUE or FALSE.
Dimorphic gene expression in mouse brain precedes gonadal differentiation (begins are the chromosomal stage).
TRUE.
Over 50 genes that are dimorphic just 10.5 days post-conception (before gonadal dev).
102
During the morphological sex development stage, what 2 duct systems are present in early embryonic development?
The Mullerian duct for female development and the Wolffian ducts for males. The one that doesn't develop regresses.
103
What two products from the embryonic testes are required to develop male accessory sex organs?
Testosterone to stimulate wolffian duct and MIH (mullerian inhibitory hormone) to regress mullerian duct system
So, masculinization and defeminization
104
Which hormones are responsible for the differentiation of the external genitalia?
Androgens.
If androgens are present, male genitals develop (penis, scrotum) and if absence, the female genitals develop (labia and clitoris).
105
What are the 3 parts of the genitals prior to morphological sex development?
1. The genital tubercle
2. Urogenital sinus
3. Anal fold
106
Mating behaviour in both sexes are under the control of what?
Gonadal steroid hormones
Ex: Castration stops mounting behaviours in rats but when restores they return to normal sex behaviours.
107
TRUE or FALSE.
The timing of when hormones are introduced plays an important role in mediating mating behavoiurs in mammals.
TRUE.
The difference is stronger when administered prenatally. Prenatal organizes and adult hormones activate.
Guinea pig study (Young, 1959)
108
In the Guinea Pig study, what were the 3 groups examined?
1. Those exposed to a large dose of testosterone prenatally (dev external male sex organs)
2. Those exposed to smaller dose of male hormones (external female sex organs)
3. Control group
All groups had male and female guinea pigs
109
In the Guinea Pig study, how did they measure female and male sexual behaviour?
1. All were injected with estrogen and progesterone to stimulate female sexual behaviour and paired with a male
2. After, all were injected with androgens and paired with a female in mating condition.
110
What are the conclusions of the guinea pig study (Young, 1959)?
1) Females given androgens prenatally in both groups displayed less lordosis in adulthood
2) In response to testosterone, both female groups demonstrated mounting behavior
3) Males did not display lordosis when treating with prenatal hormones
111
TRUE or FALSE.
Female mammals are more cyclical in their gonadal function (cycles of mating behaviour) while males display more or less continuous willingness to make (tonic reproductive function).
TRUE.
112
Explain the cycle in which females escape the negative feedback of gonadotropin inhibiting hormones?
During ovulation, females escape de the negative feedback loop on a cyclical basis. Estrogen levels increase and a sure of GnRH is released in response to rising estrogen. GNRH stimulate ANT PIT to release LH and FSH. After ovulation, negative feedback mechanisms are engaged. Kisspeptin may also be involved.
113
What happens when there is only partial expression of the SRY or SOX9 Gene in chromosomal sex development?
It can lead to incomplete gonadal differentiation (an ovotestes). A gonad with characteristics of both.
114
What is Swyer syndrome?
Disorder characterized by the failure of the sex glands to develop in XY, individuals lack SRY gene.
Usually, identified at puberty as failure to menstruate due to internal organs not matching external appearance.
115
What is a disorder of sex development (DSD)?
A disorder that encompasses any disorder in which chromosomal, gonadal or anatomic sex dev. is atypical.
Ex: Swyer Syndrome
116
What is it called when both systems develop in a single individual?
Intersex is the general term used for people who do not fit the typical definition of biological male or female.
The term is not as accepted anymore due to its nature implying the need for treatment, which is not inherently the case.
117
What hormone, if present in excess, can lead to the process of genital fusing in females?
DHT
118
What deficiency causes genetic males to be born with ambiguous genitilia, which eventually leads to the development of male resembling characteristics at puberty, despite typically being raised as females?
5a-reductase deficiency
119
What is Turner Syndrome?
When the second chromosome is absent or damaged leading to XO. These individuals are female in appearance but ovarian dev. is limited and puberty requires hormonal treatment (stunted growth, intellectual disabilities, ...).
120
What is congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
It is when 21-Hydroxylase is not sufficiently present to produce cortisol, which leads to an overproduction of androgens leading to masculinization of female genitals. No effect in males.
121
What is androgen insensitivity syndrome?
Lack of functional androgen receptors. So, XY individuals are born with female appearing genitalia and raised as girls.
Biological girls are not affected.
122
What is Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)?
It is a trisomic anomalie. Extra X chromosome is present but Y still present so SRY is activated and masculinization occurs. Raised as boys but may lead to infertility issues and other disabilities.
123
What are the 3 trisomic anomalies?
- XXY Klinefelter syndrome
- XYY (Inferilte, taller than average, lower intelligence)
- XXX (dev. delays and learning disabilities in girls)
124
TRUE or FALSE.
Sex behaviour differences are often larger within the sexes rather than between them.
TRUE.
