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1

81. In figure 1, three different doses of drug A are tested for activity. In figure 2, three doses of drug B are tested for activity in the same test system. In figure 3, three doses of drug A are tested in the presence of the high dose of drug B. based upon the responses seen, which of the following statements best describe drugs A and B?
A. Drug A is an antagonist; drug B is neither an agonist nor antagonist
B. Drug A is a partial agonist; drug B is an antagonist
C. Drug A is an antagonist; drug B is an agonist
D. Drug A is an agonist; drug B is a partial agonist

A. Drug A is an antagonist; drug B is neither an agonist nor antagonist

2

80. A drug licensed for humans and included in Annex I, administrated to dairy cattle’s should
have a WP of at least
A. At most 28 days WP
B. At least 28 days WP
C. At most 7 days WP
D. At least 7 days WP

D. At least 7 days WP

3

79. Which active substance is appropriate for analgesia (painkiller) as a transdermal patch?
A. Fentanyl
B. Naloxone
C. Metamizole
D. Butorphanol

A. Fentanyl

4

78. The most frequent active ingredient of intraruminal boluses
A. NSAID
B. Anthelminthic
C. Growth promotor
D. Antibiotic

B. Antheliminthic

5

77. Which of the following is the licensed name of the drug
A. Amoxicillin
B. 7-amino-3,3-dimethyl-oxo-4-carboxylic acid
C. Betamox inj AUV
D. None of them above

C. Betamox inj AUV

6

76. How long after the first use can drugs from multi dose injection bottles be used?
A. At most 14 days
B. At most 28 days
C. At most 7 days
D. No such requirement is official

B. At most 28 days

7

75. In this type of prescription the name and amount of ingredients (individual components) has
to be given in the inscription part
A. Prescription of a human licensed medicine
B. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
C. Prescription of a formulate official medicine
D. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine

D. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine

8

74. What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopeia’s?
A. Indication in veterinary medicine
B. Identification methods
C. Dosage of the drug in humans
D. Indications in human medicine

B. Identification methods

9

73. Which drugs are normally not used in the veterinary practice?
A. Schedule 1 drugs
B. Schedule 2 drugs
C. Schedule 3 drugs
D. Schedule 4 drugs

A. Shedule 1 drugs

10

72. A drug included in 2377/790EEC Annex II has a withdrawal period of:
A. 7 days
B. Must not be administrated to food producing animals
C. 0 days
D. 28 days

C. 0 days

11

71. A drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole
A. Has to have at least 28 WP for meat
B. Must not be used in food producing animals
C. Cannot penetrate into the milk thus no WP for milk has to be stated
D. Requires 0 days WP in food producing animals

B. Must not be used in food producing animals

12

70. At steady state the plasma concentration of a drug (Cpss) is 1 mg/L. The total body
clearance is (Cl2) 100 ml/min. What is the maintenance dose if the drug is applied in every 12
hour?
A. 7.2 mg
B. 72 mg
C. 50 mg
D. 100 mg

B. 72 mg

13

69. When are written special prescriptions and written requisitions mandatory?
A. Schedule 3 and 4 drugs
B. Schedule 1 and 4 drugs
C. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs
D. None of them above

C. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs

14

68. These drugs are natural compounds of practically harmless substances, which do not
require a withdrawal period
A. Drugs in Annex II
B. Drugs in Annex I
C. Drugs in Annex III
D. Drugs in Annex IV

A. Drugs in Annex II

15

67. Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule?
A. Gelatine
B. Glycerine
C. Water
D. Sugar

B. Glycerine

16

66. Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?
A. Rapid dissolution from the formulation
B. Increased motility of GI
C. Acid sensitivity of drug
D. Large pKa value of drug

A. Rapid dissolution from the formulation

17

65. Which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsatile release of
an active substance in a bolus?
A. OROS
B. Insoluble matrix
C. Chip controlled diaphragm
D. Expanding matrix

C. Chip controlled diaphragm

18

64. Examine the graph: what is the efficacy relationship between drug A
and C?
A. A is more efficious
B. Conclusion cannot be drawn
C. C is more efficacious
D. They are of equal efficacy

A. A is more efficious

19

63. These drugs are always POM medicines
A. Premixes
B. Controlled drugs
C. Official preparations
D. Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs

B. Controlled drugs

20

62. Drugs can be used as non-divided powders:
A. Only drugs with broad therapeutic margin
B. Only drugs for the treatment of poultry
C. Only water insoluble drugs
D. Only water soluble drugs

A. Only drugs with broad therapeutic margin

21

61. Which statement is not true for a first order, open compartment open pharma ... model?
A. A bio exponential curve is used to describe the decrease of the drug level in time
B. After a single drug administration the drug is eliminated from the body continuously
C. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated
D. The drug is distributed among the tissues of the body evenly

C. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated

22

60. Defined as treatment of clinically diseased animals and prevention of spreading diseases in herd:
A. Panphylaxis
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Prophylaxis
D. Metaphylaxis

D. Metaphylaxis

23

59. Antagonists are drugs that
A. Bound passively to the tissue receptor site
B. Reserve the effect of other drugs on tissue receptor sites
C. Activate tissue receptor sites
D. Block tissue receptor sites

D. Block tissue receptor sites

24

58. Specific receptor antagonists can best be described as having
A. Affinity but little or no efficacy for the receptor
B. Both efficacy and affinity for the receptor
C. Efficacy but little or no affinity for the receptor
D. None of the above

A. Affinity but little or no efficacy for the receptor

25

57. A dosage from appropriate for the preparation of medicated feedstuff:
A. Premix
B. OROS
C. WSP
D. Oral solution

A. Premix

26

56. Which drug has to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in the possession of the
veterinarian?
A. Schedule 3 and 4 drugs
B. Schedule 1 and 4 drugs
C. None of these
D. Schedule 2 and 3

D. Schedule 2 and 3

27

55. Which substance is a schedule 3 substance?
A. Phenolbarbital/phenobarbitone
B. LSD
C. Morphine
D. Fentanyl

A. Phenolbarbital / phenobarbitone

28

54. For which category is not true, usually it develops after repeated administration?
A. Drug tolerance
B. Idiosyncrasy
C. Drug allergy
D. Drug dependence

B. Idiosyncrasy

29

53. How long do the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following application of
an official or prepared medicine?
A. 7 days
B. 0 days
C. 500 degree days
D. 28 days

C. 500 degree days

30

52. Vehicle in licking stones:
A. Light kaolin
B. Activated charcoal
C. Sodium chloride
D. Bismuth subgallate

C. Sodium chloride