Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Special Needs Pts > Midterm #1 percentages > Flashcards

Midterm #1 percentages Flashcards

1
Q

ORNJ occurs in what percent of radiation pts?

A

1-3%

  • can be facilitated by poor nutrition and hygiene
  • should never let dentist extract tooth after radiation without consulting radiologist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how long are surgical stents used for?

A

14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how long are interim stents used for?

A

3 months (placed 14 days after surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when do you place definitive stents?

A

3-6 months post-surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when is a MAX resection device used?

A

when part of maxilla is removed but does not have communication with sinus (MOSTLY MANDIB)

*if there is communication, use obturator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

staging refers to what?

A

size and location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

perio disease if greater than ____ mm pockets

A

4mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are stents used for?

A

remove tissue at least 4mm away from teeth to prevent backscatter from metallic restorations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

from order of most to least, what types of restorations have the most backscatter?

A

gold
amalgam
titanium
composite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

radiation toxicities are what or what?

A

acute (mucositis) or late (permanent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

to reduce mucosal injury during tx, what does the panel recommend?

A
  • midline radiation blocks

- 3-D radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the joule range for low level lasers?

A

3-4

*4 is what you get on a sunny day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

where is cytochrome c found and why is it important?

A

found on inner surface of mitochondria and it is what we are trying to stimulate to improve healing

*deals with electron transport chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when was the height of eugenics?

A

turn of 20th century

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what did deinstitutionalizm start?

A

scandinavia

  • put ppl back into society
  • idea is that it is over and you can treat everyone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what was the PL 94-142 legislative change

A

right to equal public housing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the “three strikes” for the system?

A
  • under age of 3
  • covered by gov program
  • having a SHCN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the three options for a person with special needs?

A
  • home
  • CRS (community residential setting)
  • PRF (public residential facility)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what percent of ppl with disabilities live at home?

A

60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how many residents do CRS have?

A

15

*community based and clients are highly funcitonable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how many specialties are recognized by the ADA?

A

9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how many dental school programs and how many non-dental school programs for GPRs in the country?

A

25 school

167 non-school

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

goals of a GPR?

A

to emphasize:

  • general dentistry
  • student edu
  • patient care
  • comm. service
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what rotations does a GPR need?

A
  • anesthesia
  • medicine
  • practice management
  • management of in-patient or same day surgeries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
how many job listings wanted GPRs?
59 of 709
26
what 5 of GPR grads go on to specialize?
1/4
27
what requirements are for a patient in a surgical amitheater?
- less than 40 - healthy - uncoop or unable to tolerate IV sedation
28
what requirements are for a patient in an OR?
- older than 40 - unhealthy(er) - uncooperative
29
what requirements of a pt for IV sedation
healthy but anxious
30
what is the ideal interocclusal REST space?
3mm
31
what are the two worst kinds of palatal form?
flat and V-shaped *tough to know where to place posterior palatal seal
32
what % of pts have abnormal tongue positions?
25-35%
33
what % of pts with cerebral palsy have some sort of intellectual disability?
60%
34
if pt have special needs should you use an ultrasonic?
no, hand-scaling and high suction always *prophy cup is OK
35
for pts with special needs, what types of procedures should you start with?
least anxiety-invoking procedures
36
what is a food desert?
an area with limited access to affordable nutritious foods. typically applies to low-income neighborhoods
37
a true gluten allergy
celiac disease
38
what is the female to male ratio of celiac disease?
2-3: 1
39
what is the prevalence of celiac disease?
0.5-1% * 10-12% among first - degree relatives * inc prevalence for some genetic disorders (down syndrome, turner syndrome)
40
what are the clinical symptoms of celiac disease?
- diarrhea - abdominal pain - abdominal swelling *inc risk of T-cell and B-cell NHL subtypes
41
what is the inc in cancer risk for celiac disease pts?
2x that of pop
42
do gluten free diets really dampen effects of autism/
showed no harm, but there was poor evidence for efficacy
43
a normal physiologic response that occurs when the dietary carb levels are inadequate to meet the metalic demands for proteins
ketosis
44
a PATHOLOGIC condition that can occur in INSULIN-DEPENDENT diabetes mellitus and alcoholism and can be life-threatening
ketoacidosis
45
do ketogenic diet help with epilepsy?
effective as antiepileptic medication on the short-to-medium term but subjects were unable to follow them long term *there is some evidence that high protein diets may be more effective in reducing weight, BMI, and waist circumference than low protein diets
46
the term failure to thrive refers to what?
- child's weight loss - underweight - failure to gain enough weight *not an official diagnosis
47
what is teh cause of FTT?
malnutrition *FTT is typically the manifestation of an underlying disease such as cerebral palsy, celiac disease, cystic fibrosis, crohn's disease
48
in the developed world, FTT affect what % of ppl in the inpatient setting
24%
49
how do you treat FTT?
- treat underlying disease first - inc food intake (what dentists discourage) - inc enrichment of food (leads to poor macronutrient ratios
50
when is parentaral feeding used?
as a temp treatment for severe malnutrition?
51
what % of dental erosion cases have to do with GERD?
20-30%
52
what can definitve dx of GERD be performed with?
pH probe
53
what is the pH of gastric acid?
1.2
54
what pH does enamel start to demineralize?
5.5
55
surgical correction of GERD
Nissen fundoplicaiton
56
what is the diet for chronic kidney disease?
- high in carbs - low proteins - limited foods - limited electrolytes
57
what % of ppl under the age of 4 have food allergies?
6-8%
58
what % of ppl over the age of 10 have food allergies?
4%
59
what % of the ppl are affected by peanut allergies/
1%
60
what % of ppl with peanut allergies "grow out" of it?
20%
61
what % of ppl with peanut allergies have allergies to at least 2 of the 8 allergens?
90%
62
what is the treatment of peanut allergies?
- administer epi - call the sqaud - administer benadryl

Special Needs Pts (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions