Midterm Flashcards
1
Q
tooth used to support prosthesis:
A
abutment
2
Q
Residual bone and soft tissue covering that remains after tooth loss; part of support for certain types of RPDs
A
Residual (edentulous) ridge
3
Q
RPD that depends entirely on natural teeth for support:
A
Tooth-supported RPD
4
Q
Also called extension base RPD:
A
Tooth-tissue supported RPD
5
Q
RPD supported and retained by teeth at ONLY one end:
(also relies on tissues for support)
A
Tooth-tissue supported RPD
6
Q
In a tooth-tissue supported RPD, the denture base is supported by:
A
Teeth and residual ridge
7
Q
In tooth-tissue supported RPD, discuss the goal of force distribution:
A
Least destructive forces are directed towards natural teeth (trying to preserve the remaining teeth)
8
Q
Areas towards the posterior of the prosthesis are called:
A
Distal extensions
9
Q
Indications for RPD:
Endentulous area(s) are too:
A
long or numerous for a fixed prosthesis
10
Q
Indications for RPD:
Need to restore lost _____, especially in the _____ region
A
soft & hard alveolar tissue; anterior
11
Q
Indications for RPD:
Reduced _______ of remaining teeth
A
periodontal support
12
Q
Indications for RPD:
Need to distribute ____ across the dental arch (= ______)
A
masticatory stresses; cross-arch stabilization
13
Q
Indications for RPD:
No _______ tooth
A
posterior abutment
14
Q
Indications for RPD:
Immediate:
A
replacement of teeth
15
Q
Indications for RPD:
_____ and ____ of patient (______)
A
attitude; desires; (economic considerations)
16
Q
Disadvantages of and RPD:
- Removable, so not:
- May be:
- ______ may be visible, reducing ____
- may _____ during function
- may _____ while eating
A
- considered “part” of the patient
- lost or broken
- clasps; esthetics
- dislodge
- trap food
17
Q
(True/False) : A fixed prosthesis should be used over an RPD when it is not contraindicated
A
True
18
Q
Line encircling a tooth that designates its greater diameter at a selected position determined by a dental surveyor:
A
Height of contour/ survey line
19
Q
How do you determine the height of contour of a tooth?
A
Dental surveyor (survey line)
20
Q
The height of contour will change if the _____ is changed
A
axial inclination
21
Q
Portion of tooth ABOVE the height of contour:
A
Suprabuldge area
22
Q
(True/False): The suprabulge area is always concave toward the occlusal
A
FALSE: its always CONVEX to the occlusal
23
Q
Portion of tooth BELOW the height of contour:
A
Infrabulge area
24
Q
The infrabulge area may also be referred to as the:
A
undercut
25
Surface of object below the height of contour in relation to the path of placement:
undercut
26
What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?
1. Preservation of _____ not _____
1. that which remains and not the meticulous replacement of that which has been lost
27
What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?
2. Eliminate _____
2. Disease
28
What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?
3. ______, ______ and _____ of health of remaining teeth
3. Preservation, restoration, and maintenance
29
What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?
4. ______ of lost teeth
4. selected replacement
30
What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?
5. Restoration of ______ and ______ in _____ manner
5. function and comfort; esthetically pleasing
31
-Why were the teeth lost?
-Does patient have caries or perio diagnosis?
-Has the patient had a previous unsuccessful RPD?
What part of the clinical examination do these questions relate to?
Dental history
32
-Diabetes: reduced healing potential
What part of the clinical examination does this relate to?
Medical history
33
-Smoking
-Excessive sugar intake
What part of the clinical examination does these relate to?
Habits
34
In a clinical examination, in addition to the dental history, medical history and habits, we also need to consider if the patients:
Desires/expectations are reasonable or not
35
Fill in the remaining portions of the clinical examination
1. Dental history
2. Medical history
3. Habits
4. Patient desires/expectations
5.
6.
7.
5. visual examination
6. radiographic examination
7. diagnostic casts
36
What are the eight components to a visual examination?
1. Oral hygiene
2. Restorations
3. Caries
4. Periodontal assessment
5. Condition of soft tissue
6. Quality of residual ridge and hard tissue
7. Occlusion
8. Vertical space
37
Why is "oral hygiene" a component of the visual examination? (2)
1. Good hygiene habits are necessary or decreased life of RPD
2. Presence of RPD, cause increase of plaque
38
When completing the "restoration"component of the visual examination what should be looking for and why?
We should be looking at the condition of existing restorations to determine if they need to be replaced prior to the RPD (for adequate support of RPD)
39
When completing the "caries" component of the visual examination, what should we be looking for?
active disease
40
When completing the "periodontal assessment" component of the visual examination, what five aspects are we looking for?
1. probing depths in relation to CEJ
2. attachment level
3. furcation involvement
4. mucogingival problems
5. tooth mobility
41
When assessing the periodontal component of the visual examination, if tooth mobility is noted, what else should be noted?
Whether the mobility is biologic, iatrogenic or pathologic
42
-Location of junction of residual ridge and unattached tissue (no flabby soft tissue)
-hypertrophied or hyperplastic tissue
-need for tissue surgery
-need for tissue conditioning
What component of the visual examination are these describing?
Condition of soft tissue
43
-Displaceable fibrous tissue
-Tori
-Exostoses & undercuts
-Need for surgery
What component of the visual examination are these evaluated in?
Quality of residual ridge and hard tissue
44
-Number of remaining teeth in occlusal
-Tooth wear
-Pathologic migration (mesially-tipped teeth and intra-arch space issues)
-Over-erupted teeth (inter-arch space issues- occlusal plane)
What component of the visual examination are these evaluated in?
Occlusion
45
When examining inter-arch space issues (occlusal plan), we need a minimum of _____ space for material
4-5mm
46
-Is there enough space for treatment to be successful?
-Thickness of materials: metal, denture base, teeth
-Excessively large non-resorbed ridges
-Over-erupted teeth
What component of the visual examination are these evaluated in?
Vertical space
47
What radiographs should be taken prior to fabrication of RPD?
1. Full mouth PAs
2. Vertical bitewings
3. Pano
48
It is important to correlate the radiographic examination with the:
Visual examination
49
How do we evaluate prospective abutment teeth and what are we looking for?
Radiographically; root length, size and form
50
Teeth with _____ or _____ roots are more favorable for abutment teeth
large or long roots
51
What is the most important factor to evaluate when looking at prospective abutment teeth radiographically:
the crown-root ratio
52
When looking at the crown-root ratio, we are looking at:
The length of the clinical crown and amount of root embedded in bone
53
What is a must for crown root ratio of a prospective abutment tooth?
Need at least half of root embedded in bone
54
If the crown root ratio is greater than 1:1, this results in
Poor prognosis
55
What are the three types of RPD framework?
1. Cast-metal
2. acrylic
3. flexible base
56
What is an advantage to cast-metal RPD framework?
Better force distribution
57
What metals are commonly used for cast-metal RPD framwork? What is used most at UMKC?
CoCr (used most at UMKC) & NiCr
(many people have Ni allergy)
58
What is the trade name for the flexible base RPD framework?
Valplast
59
What are the two types of clasp assemblies and where are they located on the tooth?
1. retentive- buccal/facial side
2. reciprocal- lingual side
60
Prevent the RPD from going towards the gingiva when patient bites down:
Clasp assemblies (retentive & reciprocal)
61
States its ideal for the clasp to wrap around more tooth surface:
Principle of encirlement
62
Prosthodontics replaces ________ and ____ and can replace the palate with _____
Teeth and oral tissues; obturator
63
Reproduction for demonstration (no accuracy implied)
model
64
Accurate, positive reproduction of arch:
Cast
65
Encircles tooth and designates its greatest diameter:
Height of contour/survey line
66
The height of contour will change if _____ is changed
axial inclination
67
Area ABOVE the height of contour:
Suprabulge
68
Area BELOW the height of contour:
Infrabulge
69
The retentive undercut is located within what area?
Infrabulge
70
Only ______ contact the tooth below the survey line
Clasps tips
71
Only clasp tips contact the tooth:
Below the survey line
72
Depends entirely on the natural teeth for support:
Tooth-supported RPD
73
What Kennedy class is associated with a tooth-supported RPD?
Class III
74
Extension base RPD:
Tooth-tissue supported RPD
75
RPD supported and retained by teeth at only one end:
Tooth-tissue supported RPD
76
What Kennedy class is assofcatiaed with a tooth-tissue supported RPD:
Class I or II
77
In a tooth-tissue supported RPD, the denture base is supported by:
Teeth & residual ridge
78
When fabricating a tooth-tissue supported RPD, it is better to have forces distributed on _____ vs. _____
teeth; soft tissue
79
Edentulous area other than those determining the classification:
Modification space
80
In Applegate's rules, no modifications exist in _____ arches (because this would make it a class ______)
Class IV; Class III
81
The objectives of removable partial dentures include:
(hint: 3 restores, provide, improve, splint)
1. restore anatomical defect
2. restore function
3. restore occlusal plane
4. provide posterior occlusal support
5. improve esthetics
6. splint periodontially compromised teeth
82
Then metal framework of an RPD includes:
1. Major connector
2. Minor connector
3. Rests
4. Direct retainers
5. Indirect retainers
83
Joins the units on opposite sides of the arch:
Major connector
84
List three functions of the major connector:
1. stress distribution (teeth & soft tissue)
2. unification (partial denture acts as one unit)
3. cross-arch stabilization (counterleverage)
85
What are the four types of maxillary major connectors:
1. palatal strap
2. AP palatal strap
3. complete palate
4. U-shaped (horseshoe) connector
86
What are the types of mandibular major connectors? (3)
1. lingual bar
2. lingual plate
87
A RIGID extension from the major connector or base that contacts the proximal surface of abutment tooth:
Proximal plate
88
Connecting link between major connector/base and other units (retainers & rest):
Minor connector
89
Describe the three types of minor connectors:
1. guiding planes/plates
2. meshwork
3. any unit connecting any type of rest to major connector
90
A component of the RPD that transfers the forces against the prosthesis down the long axis of the abutment tooth:
Rest
91
The rest should transfer the forces against the prosthesis down the ________ of the abutment tooth
Long axis
92
Prepared surface of a tooth/restoration to receive the rest:
Rest seat
93
Component of the RPD used to retain & prevent dislodgment:
Direct retainer
94
Portion of the direct retainer in which two arms are joined by a body, which may connect to a rest:
Direct retainer- clasp assembly
95
Stabilizes the RPD against displacing forces away from tissue in pure rotation around the fulcrum:
Indirect retainer
96
Usually connects to the major connector and is some form of rest:
Indirect retainer
97
In what case is an indirect retainer necessary?
ALWAYS necessary in Class I or II situations
98
Where should an indirect retainer be located?
Perpendicular to fulcrum line, as far away as possible
99
Vertically parallel surfaces of abutment teeth
Guiding planes
100
Guiding planes are _____ surfaces of ______ teeth
vertical parallel; abutment teeth
101
Why must guiding planes be created on teeth?
Because flat planes don't exist naturally
102
How do you determine guiding planes?
Tilting cast in anterior-posterior direction
103
Guide planes provide one:
path of placement/removal for RPD
104
Guide planes ensure _____ of RPD components
intended actions
105
Guide planes eliminate/decrease:
gross food traps
106
Guide planes increase the frictional components of:
minor connectors
107
Lowers height of contour on proximal surfaces to allow better positioning of arms:
guide planes
108
When creating a guide plane, _________ should be reduced in size:
large undercut adjacent to proximal surfave
109
When creating a guide plane, reduction can be accomplished by either ______ of the cast or _____ the enamel
altering the tilt; selectively grinding
110
When altering the tilt of the cast to create a guide plane, cast tilt should not:
vary far from horizontal
111
Where does selective grinding most often occur when creating guide planes?
occurs in occlusal 1/3 to 1/2
112
Location of guide planes:
proximal surfaces of abutment teeth
113
Guide planes should be parallel to _____ if possible
long axis of teeth (posterior molars will be tilted mesially)
114
When creating guide planes its important to remember that, as length is increased:
retention is increased & resistance to rotation is increased
115
The width of the guideline should be as wide as the:
Widest portion of the occlusal rest
116
The width of the guideline should be as wide as the widest portion of the occlusal rest:
_____ Bucco-lingual width of the tooth
_____ distance between cusp tips
1/3 BL width of tooth
1/2 distance b/w cusp tips
117
What should be the length of the guiding plane in tooth supported (class III) abutments?
3-4 mm
118
What should be the length of the guiding plane in tooth-tissue supported (class I or II) abutments (distal extension):
1.5-2 mm
119
Paralleling instrument used in RPD fabrication:
dental surveyor
120
What is our brand of surveyor?
What is another brand of surveyor?
Ney; Jelenko
121
Components of a surveyor include: (6)
1. cast holder (with surveying table)
2. surveying stand
3. vertical support post
4. horizontal arm
5. analyzing arm
6. mandrel for surveying tools
122
Surveying tools include: (4)
1. analyzing rod
2. carbon marker
3. carbon sheath
4. undercut gauges (0.01, 0.02. 0.03)
123
- survey diagnostic cast
- contour wax patterns
- contour ceramic & cast restorations
- place attachments requiring parallelism
- survey master cast
these are all functions of:
dental surveyor
124
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
1. determine most:
acceptable path of insertion
125
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
2. Identify ______ the can function as _____
proximal tooth surfaces; guiding planes
126
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
3. locate and measure areas of teeth that may be used for:
retention
127
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
4. determine if soft or bony areas of ____ (____) exist
interference (undercuts)
128
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
5. determine most suitable path of insertion to:
satisfy esthetics
129
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
6. _______ on abutment teeth
delineate height of contour
130
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
7. record cast position to selected path of insertion (______)
tripod cast
131
The path of insertion is determined based on: (4)
1. guiding planes
2. retentive undercut
3. interferences
4. esthetics
132
The greater the # of guiding planes =
the more specific path of insertion
133
The final orientation of guiding planes is seldom >
10-15 degrees from horizontal
134
When determining the path of insertion, the mechanical retention is is provided by:
clasp that negates the retentive undercut
135
The clasp that engages the retentive undercut (providing mechanical retention) resists:
RPD dislodging forces
136
What is the location of the retentive undercut?
Lies between the survey line & gingival margin
137
The retentive undercut is located by what device?
surveryor
138
T/F a distal undercut is the preferred retentive undercut
FALSE: FACIAL undercut is preferred
139
The retentive undercut is ideally within:
Gingival 1/3, at least 1 mm from gingival margin
140
The illusion of undercut due to excessive cast tilt:
false undercut
141
A false undercut (2):
1. does not exist clinically
2. makes for an awkward path of insertion
142
List some interferences that may seen when determining the path of insertion:
1. lingually inclined mandibular teeth
2. buccally inclined maxillary teeth
3. bony tori
4. height of contour too high
5. clasp placement too high
6. tissue undercut area of bar clasp
143
How can we located and eliminate the interferences? (2)
1. altering tilt of cast/ change path of insertion
2. maintain cast tilt, eliminate b y surgery or recontouring teeth
144
For the best esthetics, when determining the path of insertion:
Alter _____ cast tilt to allow natural alignment of anterior teeth
mediolateral
145
For the best esthetics, when determining the path of insertion:
If inadequate space of natural tooth width:
recontour proximal surfaces to restore lost dimension
146
(True/False): For esthetic purposes when determining path of insertion, we should tilt the cast mesial-distal to allow for alignment of anterior teeth
FALSE: you should alter the cast tilt mediolaterally
147
You should avoid exaggerated cast tilt to the path of insertion because the patient is:
unable to open mouth sufficient to accommodate
148
When marking the heigh of contour/survey line, this side of the ____ indicates survey line of abutment teeth at chosen path of insertion
carbon marker
149
The tip of the carbon marker will show you the:
incorrect survey line
150
ALL components of the RPD except _____, lie above the survey line
terminal 1/3 of retentive clasp
151
Where should the survey line be located ideally?
at junction of middle & gingival 1/3
152
The proximal 2/3 of retentive clasp & the entire reciprocal clasp should be located ______
How is this in relation to the survey line?
junction of middle & gingival 1/3; ABOVE the survey line
153
If the survey line is too high (occlusal), the calls is too high on the tooth and this may cause: (2)
1. interference with occlusion
2. increased leverage on the tooth
154
If the survey line is too high (occlusally), what should you do to the survey line?
Recontour tooth to lower survey line
155
If the survey line is high, the _____ is too high on the tooth
If the survey line is too low, no _____ exist
claps; undercuts
156
If the survey line is too low, no undercut exists meaning: (2)
1. no clasp retention
2. can't use enameloplasty to change
157
If the survey line is too low, no undercuts exist. What foe this require?
surveyed crown (basically you took too much tooth structure away, now the patient needs a crown)
158
How do you measure the undercut?
Measured with proper undercut gauge at chosen path of insertion
159
The amount of undercut varies depending on:
Clasp type
160
The amount of undercut varies depending on the clasp type.
CoCr= _______
Wrought wire= _____
CrCo= 0.010
Wrought wire= 0.02 or 0.03
161
Undercuts are marked with:
red pencil
162
How should you fix an inadequate undercut? (3)
1. enameloplasty
2. addition of composite
3. surveyed crown
163
When tripodizing the cast, record tilt of cast at:
path of insertion
164
Tripodizing the cast ensures:
the lab tech can re-establish the path of insertion
165
How do you tripodize the cast?
marker touches three widely separate tissue areas & vertical lines are drawn parallel to analyzing rod at these points
166
Color code for RPD:
-metal framework outline
-wrought wires clasp
Blue
167
Color code for RPD:
-retentive undercut
-tooth modification areas
-guiding planes
-survey line reposition
-rest seat areas
Red
168
Color code for RPD:
-survey line
-tripod marks
-soft tissue undercuts
Black
169
The impression for the master cast is done:
after mouth preparation
170
When resurveying the master cast: (4)
1. align guiding planes
2. mark retentive undercuts
3. mark survey line
4. tripodize the cast
171
RPD survey & design steps: (4)
1. survey diagnostic casts
2. RPD design
3. mouth preparations
4. master cast
172
The RIGID extension of FPD/RPD:
Rest
173
Prevents cervical movement of RPD:
Rest
174
If the rest does not prevent cervical movement of the RPD, this can cause damage to:
Underlying soft & hard tissues (initial sore spot can lea to bone loss of abutment tooth)
175
What limits lateral movement of RPD?
Rest
176
Maintains the retentive arm in proper vertical relation:
Rest
177
The rest maintains retentive arm I proper vertical relation and by doing so, this stabilizes _____ and prevents _____
occlusal forces; gingival dislodgment
178
What are the 5 functions of a rest:
1. Directs forces down long axis of teeth
2. Prevent cervical movement of RPD
3. Limits lateral movement of RPD
4. Maintains retentive arm in proper vertical relation
5. Improves the occlusal plane
179
1. Prevents cervical movement of RPD
2. Limits lateral movement of RPD
Rest
180
Portion of the natural tooth/cast restoration prepared for the rest:
Rest seat
181
When preparing. a rest seat, evaluate _____/_____ relationships in both ______ & ______ movements
interocclusal/interincisal; static & excursive
182
Types of rests include: (5)
1. occlusal
2. embrasure
3. cingulum/lingual
4. hooded
5. incisal
183
Rest located on the mesial/distal pits of PM and molars:
Occlusal
184
Occlusal rests should be centered over the _____ when possible:
marginal ridge
185
what type of teeth are occlusal rest seats narrower on?
Premolars
186
Describe the shape of an occlusal rest?
Concave; saucer/spoon shaped
187
The base of the occlusal rest seat should be ______ over the ____
Triangular; marginal ridge
188
Occlusal rest seat measurements:
_____ B/L width
______ width between cusp tips
1/3 BL width
1/2 width between cusp tips
189
In an occlusal rest, what is the reduction over the marginal ridge?
1.0-1.5 mm
190
In an occlusal rest, what is the reduction at the deepest portion (pit area)?
1.5-2.0 mm
191
The floor of an occlusal rest seat should incline towards ____, forming angle less than ____
axial center; 90 degrees
192
If a tooth is tilted, an occlusal rest can be ____ to ensure maximum bracing which redirects forces along the long axis of the abutment tooth
extended
193
What type of rest is on 2 adjacent posterior teeth?
Embrasure
194
The form of an embrasure rest seat follows the form of:
An occlusal rest
195
In an embrasure rest, you should avoid eliminating:
the contact point
196
The "sluiceway" of an embrasure rest should be around _____ (_____)
2 mm wide (within embrasure)
197
A "sluiceway" of an embrasure rest allows for:
1mm thickness if metal on each toot
198
How wide should a "sluiceway" of an embrasure rest be? How deep should it be?
2mm wide; 1 mm deep
199
An embrasure rest should have a _____ shaped trough to accommodate clasp assembly
U-shaped
200
What type of rest should be prepared on canines with a gradual lingual slope? (maxillary canines specifically)
cingulum/lingual
201
Although cingulum/lingual rests should be prepared on canines (specifically maxillary canines) with a gradual lingual slope, they can be prepared on:
any anterior tooth in cast restoration
202
For a maxillary cingulum/lingual rest, how do you accomplish?
For a mandibular cingulum/lingual rest, how do you accomplish?
Maxillary- cut into enamel
Mandibular- use composite resin
203
How wide should the floor be in a cingulum /lingual rest? Where should it extend?
1 mm wide; marginal ridge to marginal ridge
204
From an incisal view, a cingulum/lingual rest is what shaped?
Crescent shaped with widest portion at center
205
From a lingual view, a cingulum/lingual rest is what shape?
Inverted V
206
Rests on inclined surfaces displaces teeth and destroys bone which is why we use a _____ rest
cingulum
207
A hooded rest is ONLY used on:
Mandibular 1st Premolar
208
A hooded rest decreases _____ by lowering _____
torque; lowering center of rotation
209
A hooded rest is ONLY used on mandibular 1st premolar and ONLY in Kennedy Class:
I or II
210
Where does a hooded rest extend from? What is it part of?
Marginal ridge to marginal ridge; part of lingual plate
211
Why is an incisal rest the LEAST desirable?
1. poor esthetics
2. occlusal interference
3. increased torquing forces
212
When discussing rests, do we want the torque to be increased or decreased?
decreased
213
Incisal rests (the LEAST desirable rests) are used primarily for:
Mandibular canines
214
Incisal rests are usually used as:
indirect retainer
215
Describe the shape of an incisal rest:
Small, V shaped notch
216
What types of rests are most commonly used?
-occlusal
-embrasure
-cingulum
217
What is the MINIMUM reduction for a rest seat preparation?
1 mm
218
A 1 mm reduction for rest seat preparation allows for:
adequate thickness of metal
219
If the rest seat preparation is not atleast 1 mm this is considered inadequate thickness which may result in:
rest fracture
220
What phase of patient treatment is described below?
-relieve pain & infection
-diagnostic cast & mounting
- Tx plan - design RPD
-education & motivate patient
-occlusal equilibrium
Phase 1
221
What phase of patient treatment is described below?
-remove deep caries & temporary restorations (disease control)
-extract non-retainable teeth
-prepreosthetic surgery - tori reduction, etc.
-periodontal Tx & plaque control
-interim prosthesis - functional & esthetic
-occlusal equilibration
Phase 2
222
What is involved in both phase 1 & 2 of patient treatment?
occlusal equilibration
223
What phase of patient treatment is described below?
-definitive endo treatment
-definitive restoration Tx (surveyed crowns, amalgams, composites, FPD)
-occlusal plane correction
-enameloplast for RPD
Phase 3
224
What phase of patient treatment does "enameloplasty for RPD" occur in?
Phase 3
225
In what phase of patient treatment does the construction of the RPD occur in?
Phase 4
226
What phase of patient treatment is described below?
-post-insertion care
- periodic recall
-continued plaque control (Hygiene!!!)
Phase 5
227
Preliminary design of RPD with tooth modifications marked:
Diagnostic casts
228
- Perform tooth modifications according to RPD design
- Use QA worksheet
these steps are involved in:
mouth preparation
229
Steps of enameloplasty (5):
1. develop guiding planes
2. enlarge embrasure for minor connectors
3. lower height of contour
4. create undercut if needed
5. prepare rest seats
230
When developing guiding planes during an enameloplasty:
Proximal guide plane should be adjacent to:
edentulous areas
231
When developing guiding planes during an enameloplasty:
ML contains:
L contains:
ML: stress release clasps
L: reciprocal clasps
232
During an enameloplaty, you should _____ for minor connectors
enlarge embrasure
233
When lowering the heigh of contour during an enameloplasty, what components are involved?
1. proximal 2/3 circumferential retentive clasp
2. reciprocal clasp
3. lingual guide plate
234
After doing the enameloplasty, you should:
Make additional impression & survey interim casts to confirm that preps are parallel to path of insertion
235
If thee is an insufficient undercut, what surface should be sloped when performing an enameloplasty?
Slope buccal surface
236
When creating an undercut during an enameloplasty, what bur should be used:
Round-ended tapered diamond bur
237
What is another name for a lingual rest seat?
Chevron
238
What types of rest seats are the most common?
Occlusal & lingual
239
When preparing rest seats, you need at least ______ of space, and this can be measured with:
1 mm; beading wax
240
Kennedy Class ______ & _____ - residual ridge not providing RPD support (tissue supported)
III & IV
241
Kennedy Class _____ & ______ - residual ridge is an important source of RPD support (tooth-tissue supported)
I & II
242
In what Kennedy class RPD's is it more important to accurately record maximum tissue support area (broad-stress distribution concept)
Kennedy Class I & II
243
In a Kennedy Class I or II RPD (tooth-tissue supported) the occlusal pressure is concentrated on:
distal end of base
244
in an extension RPD impression, equalize support from:
Tissue & teeth
245
In an extension RPD impression, a ____ should be used with elastomeric material that is ____
custom tray; border molded
246
What type of impression is most commonly used?
1-step impression
247
What impression technique is considered "very complicated"?
Corrected/altered cast technique (2 step impression- alternate technique)
248
The major connector can be described as:
RIGID
249
The major connector should function as:
1 unit
250
- broad stress distribution
- counter-arch stabilization
- reduce torque
- avoid tissue damage
These are all functions of:
Major connector
251
The major connector should not enter _____ and should avoid terminating on _____
Should not enter undercut areas; free gingival margin, lingual frenum & movable soft palate
252
Maxillary connectors borders should be _____ to & ____ from gingival margins
parallel; 6 mm
253
For a maxillary major connector, the anterior and poster borders should:
Cross midline at right angle
254
Maxillary major connector borders beaded _____ wide & deep
1 mm
255
What are the types of suprabulge clasps?
1. Circumferential
2. akers
3. circlet
256
What are the type of infrabulge clasps?
1. T bar
2. 1/2 T
3. I bar
257
What type of infrabulge bar claps are most common?
1/2 T & I-bar
258
What are the advantages to bar clasps?
1. more aesthetic
2. more flexible
3. less conducive to caries
4. wider range of undercut adaptability (I bar)
259
