Midterm 2 Flashcards
(175 cards)
1
Q
Q: What image properties characterize objects from a psychophysical point of view?
A
A: Objects are characterized by properties such as shape, color, texture, and motion, which help distinguish them from the background and other objects.
2
Q
Q: How does the brain process visual information to recognize and categorize objects?
A
A: The brain integrates information from multiple receptive fields, moving from simple feature detection in the primary visual cortex (V1) to higher-level processing in areas like the inferotemporal cortex, where object identity is determined.
3
Q
Q: What is Template Theory in object recognition?
A
A: Template Theory proposes that the visual system recognizes objects by matching them to stored internal representations of the same shape in the brain.
4
Q
Q: How does Exemplar Theory differ from Template Theory?
A
A: Exemplar Theory suggests that objects are recognized by comparing them to multiple stored examples rather than a single, idealized template.
5
Q
Q: What does the Generalized Context Model (GCM) contribute to Exemplar Theory?
A
A: GCM mathematically formalizes Exemplar Theory by introducing metrics like distance-based similarity and attention weighting to predict categorization behavior.
6
Q
Q: How does Prototype Theory explain object recognition?
A
A: Prototype Theory suggests that people store an abstract mental representation (prototype) of a category instead of remembering every individual example.
7
Q
Q: Shawn Spencer claims he can recognize a suspect at a crime scene even though he’s only seen blurry security footage of them before. His brain isn’t matching an exact image but instead piecing together clues like their gait, clothing style, and general appearance. Which object recognition theory best explains Shawn’s ability?
A
A: Exemplar Theory—Shawn is comparing the suspect to multiple stored examples of similar individuals rather than relying on a single template.
8
Q
Q: Mike Ross is reviewing a contract and immediately recognizes a suspicious clause because it slightly resembles one he has seen in a past case. He doesn’t recall a specific example but recognizes a pattern. What theory of object recognition is at play here?
A
A: Prototype Theory—Mike is relying on an abstracted mental representation of what a typical problematic clause looks like, rather than recalling a specific case.
9
Q
Q: Patrick Jane is investigating a crime where five witnesses each describe the suspect differently. One says he had long hair, another says he was short, and another says he was wearing a hat. Jane realizes that each person only saw a part of the suspect, similar to the Five Blind Monks and the Elephant analogy. What does this analogy illustrate in object recognition?
A
A: The brain integrates multiple small pieces of visual information (like receptive fields in V1) to form a complete perception, similar to how the monks each interpreted different parts of the elephant.
10
Q
Q: Abed watches a movie scene with a character walking into a dark alley. Based on lighting, framing, and pacing, he instantly predicts the character will get ambushed, even though the scene isn’t an exact match to any film he has seen before. What recognition model allows Abed to make this prediction?
A
A: Exemplar Theory—Abed compares the scene to multiple similar ones he has seen before, rather than matching it to a single stored template.
11
Q
Q: Lorelai Gilmore can recognize any coffee cup from Luke’s Diner even if the lighting is dim or if it’s partially covered by another object. This demonstrates which challenge in object recognition?
A
A: The variability of objects—Object recognition must account for changes in context, lighting, and partial occlusion.
12
Q
Q: Michael Westen identifies a gun based on its silhouette, even though it’s covered by a jacket. His brain fills in the missing details based on previous knowledge. What aspect of visual processing does this demonstrate?
A
A: The brain’s ability to integrate partial information from receptive fields to form a complete object representation.
13
Q
Q: What are the key characteristics of Template Theory in object recognition?
A
A:
Storage: Fixed templates for each object.
Recognition: Direct matching to a single internal representation.
Flexibility: Limited (sensitive to variations).
Scalability: Requires many templates for different views.
14
Q
Q: How does Exemplar Theory differ from Template Theory?
A
A:
Storage: Multiple stored examples (exemplars).
Recognition: Comparison with multiple previously seen instances.
Flexibility: High (handles variability well).
Scalability: Stores many exemplars but generalizes well.
15
Q
Q: What is General Recognition Theory (GRT)?
A
A: Categorization is based on multivariate signal detection theory, where categories are defined by probabilistic distributions and decision boundaries that separate perceptual regions.
16
Q
Q: What is the main idea behind Biederman’s Recognition-by-Components (RBC) Theory?
A
A: Objects are recognized by breaking them down into basic 3D shapes called geons, which function like an alphabet of shapes that the brain can use to recognize different objects.
17
Q
Q: What is the concept of “Grandmother Cells”?
A
A: The idea that a single neuron may be responsible for recognizing a specific person or concept, supported by studies that found neurons that selectively fired in response to images of Jennifer Aniston or Harrison Ford.
18
Q
Q: Harvey Specter is handling a case where a witness claims they saw the defendant at a crime scene. However, the witness actually saw someone who merely resembled the defendant. If the witness used the Generalized Context Model (GCM), how might they have misidentified the person?
A
A: GCM suggests that the witness categorized the face based on similarity to stored exemplars. Since the actual suspect closely resembled a previously seen face, the witness incorrectly matched them.
19
Q
Q: Gus is skeptical when Shawn claims that a man in a fake mustache is actually their suspect in disguise. Shawn argues that even though the mustache slightly alters his appearance, he still recognizes the suspect’s unique facial structure and eye shape. Which object recognition theory supports Shawn’s reasoning?
A
A: General Recognition Theory: GRT says we recognize things by using multiple features at once (like eye shape and jawline) and mentally sort them into categories based on patterns. Even if something looks a little different, we can still recognize it if it fits the overall pattern of that category.
20
Q
Q: Patrick Jane is at a crime scene and quickly identifies a piece of evidence as a rare antique vase, despite it being partially broken. His ability to recognize the vase even when missing pieces aligns with which theory?
A
A: Recognition-by-Components (RBC) Theory—Jane mentally reconstructs the object based on its geons, recognizing it despite missing details.
21
Q
Q: Abed has a mental image of what the “cool professor” at Greendale should look like—leather jacket, sarcastic but kind, loves pop culture references. When he meets a new professor, he instantly categorizes them as “cool” based on their resemblance to this mental image. Which theory is he using?
A
A: Prototype Theory—Abed compares the professor to an abstracted mental prototype rather than recalling every professor he’s met.
22
Q
Q: Lorelai instantly recognizes her favorite coffee mug at Luke’s Diner, even though it’s slightly chipped and the handle is worn down. Which theory best explains her ability to recognize it despite these changes?
A
A: Exemplar Theory—She has seen the mug in multiple conditions before, so she compares it to her stored mental examples.
23
Q
Q: Michael Westen is testing an informant’s ability to recall people. He finds that the informant only reacts to an image of one specific target, ignoring other similar-looking people. If the informant’s brain functioned like a Grandmother Cell, what does this suggest?
A
A: It suggests the informant has a neuron that fires specifically for that person, similar to how some neurons selectively responded only to Jennifer Aniston in neuroscience studies.
24
Q
Q: What is the main difference between template theory, exemplar theory, and prototype theory in object recognition?
A
A:
Template Theory: Objects are recognized by matching input to a single stored template (limited flexibility).
Exemplar Theory: Objects are recognized by comparing input to multiple stored examples (high flexibility).
Prototype Theory: Objects are recognized by comparing input to an abstract prototype (moderate flexibility).
25
Q: Rory is flipping through an old yearbook and sees a blurry photo of a dog. She recognizes it as a dog but can’t tell what breed. Which object recognition theory best explains this?
A: Prototype theory—she is matching the image to an “average” mental representation of a dog rather than a specific stored example.
26
Q: What is the key difference between the Generalized Context Model (GCM) and General Recognition Theory (GRT)?
A:
GCM (Nosofsky): Recognition is based on stored exemplars and similarity to past examples.
GRT (Ashby): Recognition is based on perceptual dimensions (e.g., facial features) and statistical decision boundaries.
27
Q: Harvey Specter needs to distinguish between two different types of legal documents based on formatting (e.g., margins, font size). Would GCM or GRT better explain how he categorizes them?
A: GRT—he’s using measurable features (dimensions like margin width) to decide the category, rather than comparing to past examples.
28
Q: What are geons, and how do they relate to object recognition?
A: Geons (geometric ions) are simple 3D shapes that combine to form recognizable objects in Biederman’s RBC theory.
29
Q: Shawn from Psych is at a crime scene and sees a weirdly shaped lamp. Instead of recognizing it as a “lamp” immediately, he breaks it down into simple parts like cylinders and rectangles before identifying it. What object recognition theory does this follow?
A: Recognition-by-Components (RBC)—he is recognizing objects by analyzing their basic geometric components.
30
Q: What is the "Grandmother Cell" hypothesis?
A: The idea that a single neuron could be responsible for recognizing a specific person or concept (e.g., a neuron that only fires for Jennifer Aniston).
31
Q: In The Mentalist, Jane meets someone he feels like he has seen before. If his brain relies on distributed representation, what does that mean?
A: Recognition isn’t based on one neuron (a “grandmother cell”), but instead, a network of neurons working together to store identity information.
32
Q: How do Deep Neural Networks (DNNs) learn object recognition?
A: DNNs learn by processing numerous examples, adjusting weights through feedback, and developing hierarchical representations of features.
33
Q: AlexNet, a convolutional neural network (CNN), processes an image step by step. What are the major steps?
A:
Input: Image is provided.
First Layer: Detects local features (edges, textures).
Deep Layers: Extracts increasingly complex patterns.
Final Layer: Assigns a label to the image (e.g., “cat”).
34
Q: Neal Caffrey (White Collar) is great at recognizing counterfeit paintings. If his brain worked like a deep neural network, what would he be doing?
A: Like a DNN, he would extract low-level features (brushstrokes), analyze deeper characteristics (composition, color patterns), and then classify the painting as real or fake.
35
Q: How does object recognition progress from simple to complex visual features?
A:
Retinal Ganglion Cells & LGN: Detect localized contrast (spots).
Primary Visual Cortex (V1): Detect edges and bars (orientation selectivity).
Higher Areas (V2, V3, IT): Group edges into textures, surfaces, and objects.
36
Q: Gus (Psych) notices a tiny detail on a piece of fabric that reveals a clue. Which visual processing stage is likely responsible for this detection?
A: Primary visual cortex (V1)—it specializes in detecting edges, textures, and small details.
37
Q: What does Gestalt theory say about perception?
A: “The whole is greater than the sum of its parts”—we naturally organize elements into meaningful wholes rather than processing each part separately.
38
Q: Which Gestalt principle explains why people see a group of birds flying in formation as a single unit?
A: Common Fate—objects moving together are perceived as a group.
39
Q: Which Gestalt principle is responsible for why we see incomplete objects as whole?
A: Closure—our mind fills in missing information to complete a shape.
40
Q: In Community, Abed notices that students wearing the same colors tend to sit together. What Gestalt principle is this?
A: Similarity—objects that look alike are perceived as part of the same group.
41
Q: What is figure-ground segmentation?
A: The process of distinguishing objects (figures) from the background (ground).
42
Q: The famous vase-face illusion relies on what visual principle?
A: Figure-ground segregation—the brain switches between interpreting the image as a vase or two faces.
43
Q: What is the "perceptual committees" metaphor?
A: Perception is the result of multiple competing processes integrating conflicting inputs and reaching a consensus.
44
Q: What are the five key principles of intermediate vision?
A:
Group what should be grouped.
Separate what should be separated.
Use prior knowledge.
Avoid accidents.
Seek consensus and minimize ambiguity.
45
Q: Lorelai (Gilmore Girls) is trying to read a messy recipe. Some of the words are smudged, but she still understands the instructions. Which principle of intermediate vision helps her?
A: Use prior knowledge—she fills in missing information based on what she already knows about cooking.
46
Q: What is sound?
A: A cycle of compression and rarefaction (pressure fluctuations in the air).
47
Q: How is sound typically visualized?
A: As a sinusoidal wave, where:
High points = High pressure
Low points = Low pressure
48
Q: What does frequency measure in sound?
A: How often air waves fluctuate per second (Hz - Hertz).
49
Q: What does amplitude measure in sound?
A: The intensity or loudness of a sound.
50
Q: What is sound pressure, and how is it measured?
A: The force exerted by air molecules, measured in Pascals (Pa).
51
Q: How is loudness different from sound pressure?
A: Loudness is a psychological perception of sound intensity, while sound pressure is a physical measurement.
52
Q: What unit is loudness measured in?
A: Decibels (dB), relative to the smallest perceivable sound pressure.
53
Q: What does 0 dB mean?
A: It’s the minimum audible level, not the absence of sound.
54
Q: How does the decibel scale work?
A: It’s logarithmic:
+10 dB = 10× increase in intensity
+20 dB = 100× increase in intensity
55
Q: If a helicopter is 100x louder than a hairdryer, how much louder is it in dB?
A: +20 dB (because 10× = +10 dB, 100× = +20 dB).
56
Q: What is pitch?
A: The psychological aspect of sound related mainly to the fundamental frequency.
57
Q: How is frequency measured?
A: In Hertz (Hz) = cycles per second.
58
Q: A sound wave has 3 cycles per second. What is its frequency?
A: 3 Hz.
59
Q: What is a pure tone?
A: A sound with only one frequency.
60
Q: What are complex sounds?
A: Sounds that contain multiple frequencies.
61
Q: How does frequency relate to pitch?
A: Higher frequency = higher perceived pitch.
62
Q: What determines whether a sound is audible?
A: Its frequency (Hz) and sound pressure level (dB SPL).
63
Q: What is the human hearing range?
A: Typically 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
64
Q: Why are speech frequencies at the center of our hearing range?
A: Either:
Human hearing evolved for speech, or
Speech adapted to human hearing abilities.
65
Q: Can sounds have negative decibels?
A: Yes! It just means the sound is quieter than the reference level (minimum audible sound).
66
Q: What happens when amplitude increases?
A: Sound is perceived as louder.
67
Q: What happens past a certain amplitude level?
A: - The auditory system maxes out.
Very high amplitudes cause hearing damage.
68
Q: How do we measure how loud different frequencies sound to us?
A: Equal Loudness Curves (explains why some frequencies need higher amplitude to be heard).
69
Q: What do Equal-Loudness Curves show?
A: That different frequencies + pressure levels are perceived at different loudness levels.
70
Q: What unit is used to measure equal loudness?
A: Phons (perceived loudness relative to 1 kHz).
71
Q: What does a phon represent?
A: The subjective loudness a person perceives at a given frequency and sound level.
72
Q: Example: A sound at 40 dB at 1 kHz is perceived as how many phons?
A: 40 phons.
73
Q: If a 200 Hz sound at 70 dB sounds as loud as a 1 kHz sound at 60 dB, how many phons is it?
A: 60 phons (because they are perceived as equally loud).
74
Q: What is the fundamental frequency of a complex periodic sound?
A: The lowest frequency component of a complex periodic sound.
75
Q: What is timbre?
A: The psychological sensation by which a listener can judge that two sounds with the same loudness and pitch are dissimilar. It is influenced by the profile of harmonics in a sound.
76
Q: What is the function of the ossicles in the auditory system?
A: The three small bones (malleus, incus, and stapes) amplify and transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the cochlea.
77
Q: How does the cochlear place code help with frequency perception?
A: Different hair cells in the cochlea respond to different sound frequencies based on their location. Hair cells at the apex respond to low frequencies, while hair cells at the base respond to high frequencies.
78
Q: What is the volley principle in temporal encoding?
A: Even though individual auditory nerve fibers can’t fire fast enough for sounds above 4000–5000 Hz, the population of neurons can work together to encode the frequency.
79
Q: Donna instantly recognizes Harvey’s voice over the phone, even when the call quality is bad. She can distinguish his voice from others, even if they have the same pitch and loudness. What auditory feature allows her to do this?
A: Timbre—Donna recognizes subtle harmonic differences that make Harvey’s voice unique.
80
Q: Shawn and Gus are trying to eavesdrop on a conversation in a crowded restaurant. The voices they’re listening to are lower-pitched, but the restaurant’s background noise consists of clinking plates and high-frequency chatter. Why might they be able to hear the conversation better if they focus on lower frequencies?
A: Low frequencies travel better through the cochlea (activating the apex), whereas high frequencies fade more quickly and are more easily masked.
81
Q: Jane hears a gunshot and instantly turns his head toward the source. His ability to locate the sound is based on what principle of auditory processing?
A: Interaural time differences—his brain detects the difference in when the sound reaches each ear.
82
Q: In the Greendale cafeteria, Annie notices that the sound of a slamming tray is loud and sharp, while Britta’s complaining voice is low and persistent. If Annie analyzed their frequency components, what would she find?
A: The slamming tray has high-frequency components (processed at the base of the cochlea), while Britta’s voice has lower-frequency components (processed at the apex).
83
Q: Lorelai can tell when Luke is using her favorite coffee machine just by the sound of it steaming milk, even when she’s in another room. What auditory property helps her distinguish this machine from others?
A: Timbre—the unique pattern of harmonics allows her to identify the specific machine.
84
Q: Michael Westen is listening to a radio transmission in a noisy environment. He notices that the Morse code beeps are high-frequency sounds, while the background interference is low-frequency. Which part of his cochlea is processing the Morse code signals?
A: The base of the cochlea, which responds to high frequencies.
85
Q: What is the difference between the "what" and "where" pathways in visual processing?
A:
What pathway (ventral stream): Identifies objects and their functions (object recognition); runs from the occipital lobe to the temporal lobe.
Where pathway (dorsal stream): Processes object location and shape (spatial awareness); runs from the occipital lobe to the parietal lobe.
86
Q: What role does V4 play in visual processing?
A: V4 processes intermediate-level shape information, responding strongly to curves, textures, and complex contours like radial, hyperbolic, and polar shapes.
87
Q: What is the function of the lateral occipital complex (LOC)?
A: The LOC is a key brain region for whole-object recognition, bridging mid-level shape processing (V4, PIT) with high-level object identification (IT cortex, FFA, PPA).
88
Q: What is the fusiform face area (FFA)?
A: A region in the fusiform gyrus that specializes in recognizing faces and expert-level within-category visual recognition.
89
Q: What is the parahippocampal place area (PPA)?
A: A brain region that processes scenes and spatial layouts, crucial for environment perception and distinguishing between places.
90
Q: What is the function of the perirhinal cortex (PRC)?
A: It helps differentiate highly similar objects and encodes fine-grained semantic details about objects.
91
Q: Mike is watching opposing counsel and recognizes the lawyer as someone he’s seen before, even though they changed their hairstyle and suit. What brain region allows him to identify their face despite these changes?
A: The fusiform face area (FFA), which enables view-invariant face recognition.
92
Q: Shawn notices a strange pattern in a painting that doesn’t fit the overall style. His ability to process textures, curves, and contours to identify the inconsistency is thanks to which brain region?
A: V4, which extracts curves, textures, and complex contours.
93
Q: Michael needs to quickly determine whether a house is a potential safehouse. He recognizes its spatial layout rather than focusing on specific objects inside. Which brain area helps him do this?
A: The parahippocampal place area (PPA), which processes scene layouts.
94
Q: Jane walks into a room and immediately distinguishes between everyday objects (a phone, a book) and a murder weapon (a knife). What brain region helps him rapidly identify and categorize objects?
A: The lateral occipital complex (LOC), responsible for whole-object representations.
95
Q: Troy jokingly pretends he has prosopagnosia and can’t recognize anyone’s face. If he actually had this condition, which brain region would likely be damaged?
A: The fusiform face area (FFA).
96
Q: Lorelai instinctively recognizes her coffee mug from all the others at Luke’s diner, even though the mugs are similar in shape and size. Which brain region helps her differentiate between highly similar objects?
A: The perirhinal cortex (PRC), which specializes in fine-grained object recognition.
97
Q: Harvey always notices if something in his office has been moved, even if it’s just a chair being slightly out of place. Which brain region helps him process spatial relationships like this?
A: The parahippocampal place area (PPA).
98
Q: What is univariate analysis in the context of object size?
A: Comparing brain activity when processing small vs. large objects.
99
Q: What is the function of the physiform gyrus in object recognition?
A: It is involved in processing object size differences, specifically in the medial and lateral regions.
100
Q: What is the dorsal pathway primarily associated with?
A: It is typically associated with processing spatial location, but also plays a role in processing object size.
101
Q: What does viewpoint invariance in IT neurons refer to?
A: IT neurons continue to respond to an object regardless of its size, position, or viewpoint, suggesting they encode more abstract representations of objects.
102
Q: What is the goal of the "decoding method" in neuroimaging analysis?
A: To collect fMRI scans, train a computer model to recognize brain activity patterns, and test the model’s ability to identify unseen images based on those patterns.
103
Q: Harvey spots a file on his desk and immediately recognizes it based on its size, even when it's buried under other papers. Which brain area is likely involved in recognizing the size of the file?
A: The physiform gyrus is involved in processing object size differences.
104
Q: Shawn is trying to identify a suspect's vehicle in a crowded parking lot. Despite the car being rotated, Shawn is able to recognize it from various angles. Which property of neurons in the brain helps him do this?
A: Viewpoint invariance in IT neurons allows recognition of objects regardless of their orientation or viewpoint.
105
Q: Michael Westen is using fMRI data to decode the brain activity of a suspect. The goal is to predict which object the suspect is looking at based on neural activity. What method does Michael likely use?
A: Decoding method—using brain activity patterns associated with known categories to train a model to recognize unseen objects.
106
Q: Jane is trying to predict which object a suspect is recalling based on their brain activity during questioning. What method would Jane use to match the suspect's brain responses with specific memories of objects?
A: The encoding method—where neural activity is predicted by defining a feature space and fitting weights to predict brain responses to new stimuli.
107
Q: Shirley is asked to categorize several objects she sees in the Greendale cafeteria, including a coffee mug, a sandwich, and a pencil. What is likely to happen in her brain as she processes these objects?
A: The brain processes these objects hierarchically, with the inferior temporal cortex (IT) processing object categories and the perirhinal cortex (PRC) helping to differentiate similar objects.
108
Q: Lorelai sees a person from a distance but can quickly recognize them as Rory. Her brain likely processes her face at which level of object recognition?
A: High-level object representation—specifically in the fusiform face area (FFA), which is preferentially responsive to faces.
109
Q: Fiona is in a dimly lit room, trying to identify a weapon hidden among various objects. She is able to recognize the weapon despite partial visibility, suggesting her brain uses which method to process object identity?
A: Hierarchy of object processing—from early visual features in V1 to more abstract representations in the inferior temporal cortex (IT).
110
Q: What is place coding of sound?
A: Sound is mapped to different areas of the cochlea, with different neurons responding to different frequencies. Low frequencies are coded at the apex, and high frequencies at the base of the cochlea.
111
Q: What is the tonotopic map?
A: A frequency map within the cochlea where each neuron or group of neurons responds to a specific frequency, similar to how keys on a piano correspond to different notes.
112
Q: What is time coding in auditory processing?
A: Low-frequency sounds (below 1000 Hz) are encoded by neurons firing in sync with the sound's acoustic wave. Above 1000 Hz, time coding is not feasible due to neural firing limitations.
113
Q: What is population coding?
A: The combined firing of multiple neurons that represent sound information, particularly useful for low-frequency sounds when individual neurons cannot fire fast enough.
114
Q: What is the difference between hearing aids and cochlear implants?
A: Hearing aids amplify sounds to assist with mild-to-moderate hearing loss, while cochlear implants are used for severe hearing loss, directly stimulating the auditory nerve.
115
Q: Harvey is experiencing some hearing loss due to prolonged exposure to loud environments, making it hard for him to hear higher-frequency sounds. What part of his cochlea is most affected by this hearing loss?
A: The base of the cochlea, which responds to high frequencies. He might need adjustments made to his hearing aid to boost high-frequency sounds.
116
Q: Shawn solves a puzzle based on the sound of a clock ticking. He notices that he can identify the tick's pitch more easily if he focuses on the low frequencies of the sound. How is his cochlea processing this sound?
A: The apex of his cochlea is processing the low-frequency components of the ticking, as lower frequencies are encoded at the apex of the cochlea.
117
Q: Patrick Jane identifies the criminal’s voice, even when it's disguised by background noise. How does his brain use sound coding to recognize the voice’s frequency components?
A: The brain uses place coding, mapping the frequency components to specific areas of the cochlea, which helps Jane identify and process the criminal's voice despite the noise.
118
Q: Britta has recently been struggling to hear conversations clearly. Her hearing aid is set to boost low-frequency sounds. What could be a possible cause of her issue, and how might the audiologist adjust her hearing aid?
A: Britta’s hearing loss could be in the high-frequency range, so the audiologist may adjust her hearing aid to amplify these frequencies, which are processed at the base of the cochlea.
119
Q: Lorelai gets a new hearing aid after noticing difficulty hearing conversations in noisy environments. Her audiologist programs the device to boost sounds at specific frequencies. What is this adjustment process based on?
A: The adjustment process is based on audiometry, where the hearing aid is programmed to amplify sounds at frequencies where Lorelai has hearing loss.
120
Q: Michael Westen helps a contact who recently received cochlear implants after losing their hearing in an explosion. The implants are designed to send electrical signals directly to the auditory nerve. How does this mimic natural hearing processes?
A: Cochlear implants mimic place coding by stimulating the cochlea to activate specific areas based on frequency, similar to how the natural cochlea processes sound.
121
Q: What is place coding in cochlear implants?
A: Place coding refers to the placement of electrodes in the cochlea to match frequencies to specific locations. This enhances speech understanding, sound localization, and music appreciation.
122
Q: What is the significance of having two ears in terms of sound processing?
A: Two ears help with understanding speech in noisy environments, sound localization, and reducing cognitive load for speech processing. Having one ear can make these tasks harder, requiring more effort to follow conversations.
123
Q: What is pupillometry, and how does it relate to listening effort?
A: Pupillometry is the measurement of pupil dilation, which can indicate the cognitive effort required for listening. Larger pupil dilation suggests more cognitive effort, while smaller dilation indicates more efficient processing.
124
Q: What challenges arise in cochlear implant fitting for patients with single-sided deafness?
A: Cochlear implants may not match the sound quality of the normal ear, making the patient feel the implant is inferior. Proper tuning is crucial for effective use, and mismatched implants can lead to underuse.
125
Q: How do cochlear implants help with tinnitus?
A: Cochlear implants can help reduce tinnitus by providing the brain with normal sound input again, which lowers the brain's extra sensitivity and helps lessen the phantom noises, improving quality of life.
126
Q: A wealthy client who has single-sided deafness is frustrated because their cochlear implant doesn’t match the sound quality of their normal ear. How might a specialist address this issue to improve the client’s experience with the implant?
A: The specialist would need to carefully tune the cochlear implant to better match the frequencies of the normal ear, ensuring a more balanced sound experience to prevent the implant from being perceived as inferior.
127
Q: Shawn’s cochlear implant helps him hear better in the noisy atmosphere of a crowded restaurant. Why is it important for the implant to mimic the natural "place coding" in the cochlea?
A: It’s important because the cochlea in the ear naturally separates different sound frequencies to specific spots. If the implant can do the same thing, it helps Shawn understand speech better and figure out where sounds are coming from, even in a noisy place like a crowded restaurant.
128
Q: Jane is enjoying a symphony concert, but he finds it difficult to appreciate the melody and sound quality due to his cochlear implant. What could be done to improve his music experience?
A: The implant could be adjusted to improve place coding, allowing for better recognition of melody contours and sound quality. Improving time coding could also help with bass recognition, but it wouldn’t significantly impact overall music enjoyment.
129
Q: Michael Westen, a former spy with a cochlear implant, is in a quiet environment and finds that he’s struggling to hear subtle sounds. What might be the problem with his implant in this situation?
A: The implant might be using a fixed stimulation rate for time coding, which doesn’t replicate the natural temporal structure of sound for low frequencies, making it harder to hear finer details in quiet settings.
130
Q: Abed is trying out a cochlear implant in a noisy room. He is able to identify the source of sounds but struggles with distinguishing speech from background noise. What could improve his ability to hear speech better?
A: Proper place coding would help Abed localize sounds and separate speech from background noise, improving his ability to focus on conversations even in a noisy setting.
131
Q: Lorelai, who has single-sided deafness, feels frustrated with her cochlear implant because it doesn’t match the sound quality of her other ear. What might be the cause, and what could be done to resolve it?
A: The implant might not be properly tuned to match the natural frequencies of her normal ear. A specialist could adjust the implant’s settings or placement to better match the sound quality of her normal ear, improving the implant's effectiveness.
132
Q: What is colour constancy?
A: Colour constancy is the ability to perceive the true colour of an object, despite changes in the lighting conditions, by discounting the influence of the light source (illuminant).
133
Q: What is the aperture problem in motion perception?
A: The aperture problem occurs when the direction of motion of a local feature or part of an object is ambiguous because it's viewed through a small receptive field or aperture.
134
Q: What is apparent motion?
A: Apparent motion is the illusory perception of smooth motion when objects appear in different locations in rapid succession, even though no actual motion is occurring.
135
Q: What is saccadic suppression?
A: Saccadic suppression is the temporary reduction in visual sensitivity that occurs during rapid eye movements (saccades) to prevent motion blur and maintain visual stability.
136
Q: What is the difference between smooth pursuit and saccadic eye movements?
A: Smooth pursuit involves voluntary eye movements that track a moving object, while saccades are rapid, involuntary eye movements between fixation points.
137
Q: Harvey and Mike are reviewing a file in the office, but the lighting in the conference room is much dimmer than in the hallway. Despite the change in lighting, Mike notices that the folder's colour still looks the same. What concept explains Mike's ability to maintain the perception of the folder’s true colour?
A: Colour constancy—Mike's brain discounts the effect of the new lighting and maintains the perception of the folder's colour.
138
Q: Shawn and Gus are investigating a suspect and see them moving stealthily through a park. The suspect is camouflaged but becomes much easier to spot when they move. Why does motion help Shawn and Gus distinguish the suspect?
A: Motion helps the brain separate moving objects from static surroundings, making it easier to detect camouflaged figures.
139
Q: Jane watches a security camera footage of a suspect moving through a narrow hallway. He notices that the suspect’s movement appears jerky and disjointed, even though Jane knows they are moving smoothly. What theory might explain this visual misperception?
A: The aperture problem—due to the limited view through the narrow hallway (aperture), the direction of the motion is ambiguous and can appear unnatural.
140
Q: In a classroom lecture, Abed's eyes are constantly shifting between different parts of the board while Professor Hickey speaks. What type of eye movement is Abed making as he follows the professor’s lecture?
A: Saccades—rapid, involuntary eye movements that shift focus between different points.
141
Q: Michael Westen is tracking a suspect’s movements through a crowded room. His eyes move smoothly as he follows the target across the space. What type of eye movement is Michael using to keep the target in focus?
A: Smooth pursuit—voluntary eye movements that track a moving object.
142
Q: Lorelai and Rory are talking at lightning speed during a walk around Stars Hollow. Even though their eyes are moving rapidly between each other and the street signs, they don’t notice any blur in their vision. What allows their brains to compensate for these quick eye movements?
A: Saccadic suppression—this temporary reduction in visual sensitivity prevents blur during fast eye movements, maintaining visual stability.
143
Q: What is the cochlear nucleus responsible for?
A: It is the first brainstem region that receives auditory signals from the cochlea, where initial sound processing occurs.
144
Q: What is tonotopy in the auditory system?
A: The spatial organization of sound frequency processing, where different frequencies are mapped to specific locations along the cochlea and auditory cortex.
145
Q: What is the "What" pathway in auditory processing?
A: The ventral stream of auditory processing that identifies and categorizes sounds, such as speech and music, linking auditory regions to the temporal lobe.
146
Q: What is the function of the superior olive in sound localization?
A: The superior olive compares timing and intensity differences between ears to help localize sounds.
147
Q: How do the cones of confusion affect sound localization?
A: Sounds at different locations along the same interaural time difference (ITD) are difficult to distinguish because they create similar ITDs, making precise location information challenging.
148
Q: Harvey is speaking on the phone with Donna, but there’s a lot of background noise. Donna can still clearly tell it’s Harvey on the phone due to the way his voice sounds. What auditory processing mechanism helps Donna identify him?
A: The "What" pathway—Donna’s brain categorizes and identifies Harvey’s voice using the unique characteristics of his sound, processed through the temporal lobe.
149
Q: Jane hears a gunshot and turns toward the sound instantly. What auditory cue is primarily responsible for him locating the direction of the sound?
A: Interaural time difference (ITD)—the difference in time between when the sound reaches each ear helps Jane pinpoint the direction of the sound.Q:
150
Q: Shawn and Gus are trying to determine the direction of a distant siren. They are able to tell it’s coming from the left side, based on the intensity difference between their ears. Which auditory cue are they using?
A: Interaural level difference (ILD)—the sound intensity is higher in the ear closer to the sound source, helping Shawn and Gus locate it.
151
Q: Pierce is lost in the parking lot at Greendale and hears a car approaching. He tries to localize the sound but struggles to figure out if it's coming from a distant or nearby car. What could make this difficult for Pierce?
A: ITD and ILD can’t help with determining the distance of the sound. Pierce would need additional cues, such as reverberation or spectral composition, to estimate the car’s distance.
151
Q: Michael is in a noisy room but manages to hear a faint conversation from across the room. What auditory feature helps Michael filter out the surrounding noise and focus on the sound he wants to hear?
A: The brain uses spectral composition (e.g., low frequencies travel farther and are less obstructed), and Michael can rely on this to detect sounds from greater distances.
152
Q: Lorelai and Rory hear the familiar sound of the ice cream truck and immediately run toward it. How does their auditory system help them localize the sound and determine it's coming from a distance?
A: The sound has more low-frequency components, which travel further. The brain uses this cue to estimate that the truck is farther away, despite the clarity of the sound.
153
Q: What does the inverse square law state in relation to sound intensity?
A: The inverse square law means that as you move farther away from a sound source, the sound gets much quieter, not just a little. Specifically, if you double the distance, the sound intensity becomes four times weaker (because 2² = 4). If you move three times farther away, the intensity drops to one-ninth (because 3² = 9).
154
Q: How does the spectral composition of sounds change with distance?
A: Higher frequencies decrease in intensity more quickly than lower frequencies, especially over distances greater than 1000 meters.
155
Q: What are cones of confusion in sound localization?
A: Cones of confusion are areas where sounds from different directions create the same time and volume differences between the ears (ITD and ILD), making it hard to tell where the sound is coming from.
156
Q: What is auditory stream segregation?
A: Auditory stream segregation is the process of separating different sounds in a complex mix so that we hear them as distinct events or streams.
157
Q: What is the continuity effect in auditory perception?
A: The phenomenon where a sound is perceived as continuous, despite interruptions, if the gaps are filled with noise.
158
Q: Harvey calls Mike from a conference across the city. Mike has trouble determining if Harvey is far away and speaking loudly or if he's close and speaking quietly. What principle can explain why it’s hard to distinguish between these two situations?
A: The inverse square law—sound intensity decreases with distance, making it harder to tell the difference between a loud, distant sound and a quiet, close sound.
159
Q: Shawn is in a crowded room and hears two distinct sounds at the same pitch and loudness. However, he’s unable to figure out which one is closer. What auditory phenomenon is affecting his ability to localize the sources?
A: The cones of confusion—two sound sources at similar azimuths produce identical ITDs and ILDs, making it difficult to localize them.
160
Q: Michael is tracking a sniper but cannot pinpoint the exact location. He can hear the gunfire from a distance, but it sounds muffled. What factors could be affecting his ability to localize the sniper's position?
A: The inverse square law and the spectral composition of the sound—higher frequencies are more absorbed over distance, and long wavelengths are less impacted by obstacles.
161
Q: Abed is watching a movie and notices that some music cues seem to blend together. What might be the reason behind this blending of sounds?
A: Auditory stream segregation—if the music cues share similar frequency, timing, or timbre, the brain may group them together as one continuous sound.
162
Q: Jane can distinguish a single voice in a noisy crowd based on its distinct timbre, despite the background noise. What auditory principle is helping him separate the voice from others?
A: Grouping by timbre—sounds with similar timbres are grouped together, while those with different timbres are segregated.
163
Q: Lorelai is able to hear a conversation between Rory and her friends in a busy café, despite the constant background noise interrupting their words. What auditory process is helping her focus on the conversation?
A: The restoration effect—Lorelai’s brain fills in gaps in the conversation with noise, allowing her to continue perceiving the sentence as continuous.
164
Q: What is the physical basis of sound?
A: Pressure fluctuations in the air.
165
Q: The amplitude of a sound wave determines its...
A: Loudness.
166
Q: What is auditory stream segregation?
A: The process of grouping different sound elements into distinct auditory objects.
167
Q: Which azimuth angles produce the largest ITDs?
A: 90 degrees left and 90 degrees right.
168
Q: How do retinal ganglion cells contribute to color perception?
A:
Retinal ganglion cells contribute to color perception through opponent processing, which helps us distinguish between different colors. These cells are organized into opponent pairs:
Red vs. Green
Blue vs. Yellow
Each ganglion cell type is excited by one color in the pair and inhibited by the other. For example, a red-green opponent cell might be excited by red light and suppressed by green light. This system helps enhance color contrast and prevents us from seeing mixtures of opposing colors (e.g., no "reddish-green" or "bluish-yellow").
This opponent processing is the first step in how our brain interprets color, with further processing happening in the visual cortex.
169
Q: Which of the following best describes the Exemplar Theory of object recognition?
A: Recognition occurs by comparing objects to multiple stored examples of similar objects.
170
Q: The "Grandmother Cell" theory suggests that...
A: A single neuron is responsible for recognizing highly specific and complex objects, such as a familiar face.
171
Q: Which brain region is most closely associated with face recognition?
A: Fusiform Face Area (FFA).
172
Q: Which statement about the "What" and "Where" pathways is TRUE?
A: The "What" pathway extends from the occipital lobe to the temporal lobe.
173
Q: The Parahippocampal Place Area (PPA) is primarily involved in...
A: Processing spatial layouts and scene recognition.
174
Q: What is trichromacy theory?
A: Trichromacy theory states that color vision is based on three types of cone cells in the retina, each sensitive to a different range of wavelengths:
Short (S) cones – blue light
Medium (M) cones – green light
Long (L) cones – red light
The brain interprets color by comparing the activation levels of these three cone types, allowing us to perceive a full spectrum of colors.
