Midterm 2 actual test

Question 1

1. Which of the following is not a goal of scientific research as discussed in this course?
A.	Prediction
B.	Profit
C.	Explanation
D.	Control

Answer 1

B Profit

Question 2

2. Stating clearly what you mean to measure and how is:
A.	Operationalizing
B.	Generalizing
C.	Validating
D.	Sampling

Answer 2

A. Operationalizing

Question 3

3. A scientific hypothesis is:
   A. A guess
   B. A conclusion based on evidence
   C. An idea at the lowest level of analysis available
   D. A statement or set of beliefs about the world

Answer 3

D. A statement or set of beliefs about the world

Question 4

4. An independent variable is:
   A. A variable that is under the control or choice of a researcher
   B. A variable that is kept constant between conditions by a researcher
   C. A variable that measures the outcome of an experiment
   D. A variable that is qualitative

Answer 4

A. A variable that is under the control or choice of a researcher

Question 5

5. A type II error is also known as a
A.	hit
B.	false positive
C.	miss
D.	sampling error

Answer 5

C. miss

Question 6

6. A control group is designed to
   A. Rule out alternative explanations and confounds
   B. Prove your hypothesis using factorial designs and tests
   C. Keep the human subjects review board happy
   D. Rule out sampling bias.

Answer 6

A. Rule out alternative explanations and confounds

Question 7

7. A confound is:
   A. An additional variable from another level of analysis
   B. An additional variable that changes or varies with the independent variable
   C. A dependent variable that differs from the theoretical predictions
   D. A kind of control variable

Answer 7

B. An additional variable that changes or varies with the independent variable

Question 8

8. Prospective research
   A. Links outcomes to historical processes
   B. Makes no predictions
   C. Research that explains or predicts future events based on prior observations.
   D. Uses no statistical inference

Answer 8

C. Research that explains or predicts future events based on prior observations.

Question 9

9. Expected Value means
   A. the value of an outcome to a particular individual in a given situation
   B. the probability of a type I error
   C. *the amount you expect to gain in the long run in a betting situation
   D. the probability of a type II error

Answer 9

C. the amount you expect to gain in the long run in a betting situation

Question 10

10. Base-rate neglect has to do with:
    A. Ignoring the quantitative data about probabilities and outcomes
    B. Ignoring the representativeness of a sampling process
    C. Ignoring information about the prevalence or probability of an outcome
    D. Ignoring the rules for adding probabilities

Answer 10

C. *Ignoring information about the prevalence or probability of an outcome

Question 11

11. The gambler’s fallacy is
    A. Thinking that previous outcomes of independent events influence future outcomes
    B. Thinking that good luck or bad luck can influence the outcomes of random events
    C. Believing that streaks occur less often than they do in reality
    D. Believing that streaks occur more often than they do in reality

Answer 11

A. Thinking that previous outcomes of independent events influence future outcomes

Question 12

12. What is the Pollyanna principle?
A.	A belief in luck
B.	Wishful thinking
C.	A belief that the outcomes will be worse than average
D.	Group think

Answer 12

B. *Wishful thinking

Question 13

. Psychological reactance can affect:
A. How we ignore potential negative outcomes
B. How we respond to choices when our freedom is restricted
C. How we make risk versus gains decisions
D. How we respond to complexity

Answer 13

B. *How we respond to choices when our freedom is restricted

Question 14

14. Halpern’s stages of problem solving involve:
    A. incubation, preparation, calculation
    B. preparation, production, and evaluation
    C. production, evaluation, calculation
    D. selection, evaluation, review

Answer 14

B. preparation, production, and evaluation

Question 15

15. An ill-defined problem has:
A.	No math involved
B.	No clear goal or solution paths
C.	No chance of being solved
D.	No relevance to the real-world

Answer 15

B. *No clear goal or solution paths

Question 16

16. What are the ‘parts’ in the anatomy of a problem as discussed in class and text?
    A. Generating alternatives, evaluating alternatives, acting on alternatives
    B. Initial state, goal state, solution paths
    C. Definition statement, goal state, problem space
    D. Inputs, choices, outputs

Answer 16

B. *Initial state, goal state, solution paths

Question 17

17. Problem space means:
    A. all the ways to get from an initial state to a goal state
    B. the freedom to make a choice or decision free of outside influence
    C. generation of creative alternatives
    D. the place on an exam where you show your work

Answer 17

A. *all the ways to get from an initial state to a goal state

Question 18

18. Means-ends analysis is:
A.	Working on a solution to a problem
B.	Justifying your choices when they cause harm
C.	A form of memory bias
D.	A forward looking strategy

Answer 18

D. *A forward looking strategy

Question 19

19. A period of time during which you are not actively working on a problem but after which a solution occurs to you is sometimes called:
A.	intuition
B.	incubation
C.	preparation
D.	evaluation 

Answer 19

B. *incubation

Question 20

20. The main parts of Halpern’s framework for thinking are
    A. Identifying goals, knowns, skills, and reaching outcomes
    B. Tools, calculations, and probability
    C. Skills, knowledge, formulas
    D. Understanding bias, observing bias, removing bias

Answer 20

A. *Identifying goals, knowns, skills, and reaching outcomes

Question 21

21. The principle of parsimony suggests:
    A. Experiments with multiple factors should be avoided
    B. The simplest adequate explanation should be preferred
    C. Control conditions are necessary
    D. A way to avoid confirmation bias when considering predictions

Answer 21

B. *The simplest adequate explanation should be preferred

Question 22

22. Falsification means
    A. The process of showing an argument to be invalid
    B. The process of demonstrating a decision to be biased
    C. The process of disproving a hypothesis
    D. The process of sampling in a biased manner

Answer 22

C. *The process of disproving a hypothesis

Question 23

23. Researchers use factorial designs in order to:
    A. understand all causes and all effects
    B. introduce important confounds into the design
    C. reduce bias in the design of the experiment or research
    D. examine interactions between variables

Answer 23

D. *examine interactions between variables

Question 24

24. Correlation does not imply causation because:
    A. Ted said so
    B. There is no adequate hypothesis for a given correlation
    C. There is no adequate mechanism for a given correlation
    D. Many different situations can produce correlations

Answer 24

D. *Many different situations can produce correlations

Question 25

25. Mechanism, in the context of research means: A. The highest level of analysis B. The research hypothesis C. A model of causal relationships D. The set of dependent measures used in an experiment

Answer 25

C. *A model of causal relationships

Question 26

``` 26. The three rules of causation are: A. Covariation, temporal precedence, internal validity B. Location, location, location C. Explanation, prediction, covariation D. Parsimony, correlation, plausibility ```

Answer 26

A. *Covariation, temporal precedence, internal validity

Question 27

27. The subjective utility of gains versus losses is different in that: A. losses have a flatter curve B. gains have a sharper curve C. losses are felt more sharply than gains D. gains are always treated as more important than losses

Answer 27

C. *losses are felt more sharply than gains

Question 28

28. The sunk-cost fallacy is: A. the idea that losses are felt more sharply than gains B. Overvaluing one's initial ideas C. continuing to spend resources to recover lost resources instead of considering other options D. Undervaluing one's initial ideas, and overvaluing later ideas

Answer 28

C. *continuing to spend resources to recover lost resources instead of considering other options

Question 29

29. The back-drop of the possible refers to: A. the set of things that could have occurred, but didn't B. The set of possible outcomes for a decision C. The set of solution paths for a problem D. The set of options generated in a brainstorming session

Answer 29

A. *the set of things that could have occurred, but didn't

Question 30

30. The conjunction error is A. failing to remember when things occur together B. failing to combine probabilities for joint events properly C. assuming that things occurring together are random D. assuming that things occurring together have a causal relationship

Answer 30

B. *failing to combine probabilities for joint events properly

Question 31

31. What are the three major ways to 'get it wrong' according to Ted? A. pettifogging, prevarication, presumption B. problems with approach, data, or habits/skills C. ad hominem, fallacy, and parsimony D. sampling bias, hindsight bias, fallacy

Answer 31

B. *problems with approach, data, or habits/skills

Question 32

32. What is belief bias?: A. judging an argument by whether you believe the premises B. judging an argument by whether it confirms your belief C. judging an argument by how strongly others believe it D. judging an argument by how believable the conclusion is

Answer 32

D. *judging an argument by how believable the conclusion is

Question 33

33. Shifting goal posts in the context of argument or debate means: A. building a case with additional evidence B. assuming your argument is correct because your opponent's argument has a fallacy C. attacking the person making the argument rather than addressing the argument D. continually changing the criteria and terms of the debate in the face of disconfirming evidence

Answer 33

D. *continually changing the criteria and terms of the debate in the face of disconfirming evidence

Question 34

34. The Dunning-Krueger effect has been interpreted as meaning: A. individuals with low skill level at one thing are bad at most things B. people are always biased about their beliefs C. expertise can not be learned D. individuals with low skill at something are also bad at knowing their own skill level

Answer 34

D. *individuals with low skill at something are also bad at knowing their own skill level

Question 35

35. The appeal to consequences is a kind of fallacy in which: A. one emphasizes the strength of the conclusion B. one emphasizes the strength of the premises C. one argues that a conclusion is false because the supporting premises are false D. one argues that since the resulting conclusion is bad, the argument must be untrue

Answer 35

D. *one argues that since the resulting conclusion is bad, the argument must be untrue

Question 36

36. The Fallacy Fallacy is: A. assuming that the origin of an idea is relevant to its truth B. assuming that what is true of a group must be true of all individuals in that group C. believing that an error in one's opponent's argument demonstrates that their conclusion is false D. believing that since the person making the argument is bad, their conclusion is bad

Answer 36

C. *believing that an error in one's opponent's argument demonstrates that their conclusion is false

Question 37

37. Expert Memory differs from Novice memory in that: A. experts have generally improved memory for all subject material B. experts have been remembering things for longer than novices C. there is no real difference between Expert and Novice memory D. experts have generally improved memory for their subject material

Answer 37

D. *experts have generally improved memory for their subject material

Question 38

38. The difference between 'big C' creativity and 'little c' creativity is A. one is about art, the other about invention B. one is about genius, the other is about inspiration C. one is about thinking laterally, the other is about problem solving D. one is the creativity of eminent individuals and the other is everyday creativity

Answer 38

D. *one is the creativity of eminent individuals and the other is everyday creativity

Question 39

39. An example of the Halo effect would be: A. Extreme exhaustion from playing video-games B. An aversive state experienced when your ideas don't match your actions C. Defending the status quo D. Thinking that a person is smart because they are also attractive

Answer 39

D. *Thinking that a person is smart because they are also attractive