Midterm Study CH 1-6 Flashcards
(313 cards)
1
Q
A health care practitioner completes a course in law and ethics. Which of the following is one of the most important reasons health care professionals should be familiar with this field of study?
A
a. to help avoid legal entanglements
2
Q
A new employee in a large medical practice is looking for the professional etiquette staff members are expected to follow. Which would be the best source for learning these rules?
A
b. the office policy manual
3
Q
A pledge for physicians that remains influential today is:
A
d. Hippocratic oath
4
Q
A precedent is a
A
d. a case that serves as a model for future cases.
5
Q
A radiology technician approaches a new patient and states: “I am Jennifer and I will be taking care of you today.” This is an example of which of the three “C’s”?
A
e. Courtesy.
6
Q
A student medical assistant doing his/her internship in a physician’s office refuses to wipe up a spilled drink in the exam room hallway because she he/she believes housekeeping is not part of his/her job description. The student is demonstrating the absence of which quality deemed necessary for successful health care practitioners?
A
e. common sense
7
Q
An attorney files a motion that pleads there is no basis for a trial. This is called:
A
b. summary judgment
8
Q
Another term for legal responsibility is:
A
d. liability
9
Q
Bioethics is concerned with:
A
b. ethical implications of biological research methods and results
10
Q
Formed through the influences of family, culture, and society, these serve as the basis for ethical conduct:
A
e. moral values
11
Q
Laws applying specifically to the practice of medicine in a certain state are called:
A
d. Medical Practice Acts
12
Q
The defendant in a lawsuit is the
A
e. party against who criminal or civil charges have been filed.
13
Q
The first step in a critical thinking problem solving is to
A
e. clarify the problem.
14
Q
The plaintiff in a lawsuit is the
A
d. party filing the civil charges.
15
Q
Unethical behavior is always:
A
e. unacceptable
16
Q
Unlawful acts are always:
A
a. unethical
17
Q
What do professional organizations create to govern their members?
A
a. codes of ethics
18
Q
What document serves as a guideline for employees about professional behavior and etiquette?
A
d. the office policy manual
19
Q
What is the meaning of the term litigious?
A
d. increase in the number of lawsuits
20
Q
What is the purpose of formalized codes of ethics in the health care professions?
A
e. to increase the competence within the profession
21
Q
Which of the following is a synonym for “good manners”?
A
d. etiquette
22
Q
Which of the following is an example of a health care practitioner displaying compassion for a patient?
A
b. A physician sits down with a patient and addresses all the patient’s concerns.
23
Q
Which of the following is considered a technical skill?
A
d. computer literacy
24
Q
Which of the following is/are not enacted by government?
A
e. etiquette rules
25
Written codes of ethics for health care practitioners:
b. evolved primarily to serve as moral guidelines for those who provide care
26
A child life specialist caring for children in the pediatric ward plays a game with a young patient who is enjoying the game, but makes up the rules as she goes along. This behavior is characteristic of what stage of moral development?
a. preoperational stage
27
A child tells a nurse that he stole money from his mother's purse because he needed money to buy some candy. He also states that he knows what he did was wrong and will not do it again. Based on this conversation, what stage of moral development would this child be experiencing?
c. formal operational stage
28
A doctor prescribes a placebo for a patient who he feels is complaining of pain that is not there. This is an example of a violation of what principle of health care ethics?
a. veracity
29
A health practitioner is interviewing a 6-year-old male child who is in Piaget's preoperational stage. Which of the following is characteristic of this stage?
b. The child views the world from his own perspective.
30
A healthcare facility administrator considers the principle of utility when making decisions that affect the employees of the facility. Which of the following describes this principle?
a. It brings about positive results when generalized to a wide variety of situations.
31
A lab technician is speaking loudly about the reason a patient is having a blood test outside the patient's door. What principle of health care ethics has the tech violated?
e. confidentiality
32
A nurse caring for older adults in a nursing home has a paternalistic view about telling patients the truth about their conditions. Which of the following best describes the practice of paternalism?
a. acting like a parent to the patient
33
A nurse practitioner is also a manager in a small practice with three physicians. One of the medical assistants comes to her and says that another employee is falsifying her work hours. The nurse practitioner knows that the two employees don't get along. What would be the next step the nurse would take if following the problem-solving process?
b. Collect the facts.
34
A patient undergoing surgery signs an informed consent for the procedure. Which of the following principles of health care ethics does informed consent protect?
e. autonomy
35
A patient who was injured in a fall in a health care facility due to the negligence of the nurse is filing a medical malpractice lawsuit. Which ethical principle applies in this situation?
d. justice
36
A person who makes a commitment to universal principles such as social justice, equal rights, and respect for the dignity of all people is in what stage of Kohlberg's developmental theory?
d. post-conventional morality, Stage 2
37
A physician running a busy practice makes decisions for his employees on a regular basis. The physician would describe himself as "moral man with common sense, a sense of justice, and courage who makes the right decisions in life by focusing on these moral traits." What theory of decision making is being employed by this physician?
e. virtue ethics
38
According to MacIntyre's theory of virtue ethics, what principle helps the decision maker arrive at a decision?
c. loyalty to the role he or she plays
39
An X-ray technician witnesses a nurse diagnosing a medical problem for a patient. Which of the seven principles of health care ethics has this nurse violated?
b. role fidelity
40
Immanuel Kant defined categorical imperative as the guiding principle for all decision making. What is the meaning of this principle?
b. there are no exceptions to the rule
41
In Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of human needs, the need for basic life (food, shelter), a safe environment, and to belong and be loved are designated "D" needs. What does "D" stand for?
deficiency
42
Virtue ethics focuses on the traits, characteristics, and virtues that a moral person should have. Who is the most well-known ethicist to write about this ethical decision making process?
b. Alasdair MacIntyre
43
What basic flaw do critics cite as the major problem with using value ethics as a decision-making tool?
c. The past may not provide the right answer.
44
What is the unique focus of health care providers that challenges them to make sound ethical decisions?
a. the health and well-being of the patient
45
Which of the following theorists believed that human behavior is based on specific human needs that must often be met in a specific order?
a. Abraham Maslow
46
A copayment is
b. a set amount that each patient pays for each office visit.
47
A health care provider is explaining to staff members about the accreditation process. Which of the following may be accredited?
a. a hospital
48
A method used by a health plan to measure the amount and appropriateness of health services used by its members is called a(n)
d. utilization review.
49
A patient portal is
c. online access to a variety of health care services and communications with providers.
50
A physician is entering a residency to complete her education. Which of the following accurately describes this process?
a. a period of practical postgraduate training in a hospital
51
A physician is undergoing professional peer review related to an incident of fraud in his practice. Which federal law requires that professional peer review action be taken in this case and also limits the damages for the professional review?
e. Health Care Quality Improvement Act
52
A remote consultation with physicians or other health care professionals is called
c. telemedicine.
53
A valid out-of-state license is accepted as the basis for issuing a license in a second state without reexamination. This is called:
a. reciprocity
54
As a provision of the Accountable Care Act, health care insurers were encouraged to unite with health care providers to form what type of an organization?
e. accountable care organization
55
Both Doctors of Medicine (MDs) and Doctors of Osteopathy (DOs) follow requirements to obtain a degree in their field. Which of the following is the basic difference between these two degrees?
a. MDs are trained in allopathic medicine.
56
Coinsurance is
b. a percentage of the fee for services provided that the patient pays.
57
Facebook, Twitter, and blogs are examples of
e. social media
58
Medical practices are being consolidated in many forms. Which of the following is not one of those forms?
b. sole proprietorship
59
The most popular mobile medical app function is
e. drug references.
60
The National Practitioner Data Bank may disclose information to which of the following groups?
e. state licensing boards
61
The statutes in all 50 states that govern the practice of medicine are called:
e. medical practice acts
62
Under the provisions in the Affordable Care Act, insurance companies must cover dependent children up to age ________.
d. 26
63
Under this type of plan, a patient may see providers outside the plan, but the patient pays a higher portion of the fees.
a. preferred provider plan.
64
What federal legislation created health insurance exchanges that provide individuals with an ability to purchase insurance?
d. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
65
What federal legislation provided employees the ability to keep health insurance coverage when transferring to another job?
a. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
66
Which of the following credentials is a voluntary, national examination that shows the level of competency for an individual?
d. certification
67
Which of the following is not sufficient grounds for revoking a medical license?
d. misdiagnosis
68
Which of the settings below provides limited liability for the providers?
c. professional corporation
69
Which of these credentials is mandatory for certain health professionals to practice in their field?
a. licensure
70
Which practice management system allows for a sharing of expenses without sharing profits and liability?
c. associate practice
71
A court of last resort is commonly known as a:
c. supreme court
72
A felony is:
b. a more serious criminal act
73
A misdemeanor is
d. a less serious criminal act.
74
A nurse who steals drugs from a medication cart is committing an offense under what kind of law?
a. criminal law
75
A physician assistant provides treatment to a person who has come to the emergency room for treatment of a painful rash. This is an example of a(n)
d. limited contract.
76
Amanda is a nurse in Dr. Smith's pediatric practice. She accidently gives a patient the wrong medication. Dr. Smith is held responsible under:
c. respondeat superior
77
Assault is defined as:
b. the open threat of bodily harm
78
Battery is defined as:
a. the action that causes bodily harm to someone
79
Both parties in the physician-patient relationship have certain rights and responsibilities. Which of the following is a physician responsibility?
a. Exercise his or her best professional judgment in all cases.
80
Broad enabling statutes defining an agency's powers and procedures are known as
b. administrative laws
81
Dr. Giles and his practice manager are considering charging interest on unpaid balances. Which law says the doctor must first tell the patients of this change in policy?
e. Regulation Z of the Consumer Protection Act
82
For which of the following actions would an employer be responsible under respondeat superior?
a. An employee accidently prescribes the wrong medication.
83
From which of the following does an implied contract result?
b. the actions of the parties involved
84
Laws enacted by state or federal legislatures are called:
e. statutes
85
Practicing medicine without a license is an example of which of the following types of laws?
a. criminal law
86
The Easy Collection Agency continues to call Susan at work to talk to her about her past due account at St. John's Hospital. The Easy Collection Agency is violating which law?
e. Fair Debt Collection Practices Act
87
The highest law in our country is:
d. the U.S. Constitution
88
The law of ________ makes employers liable for the actions of their employees.
b. agency
89
The President of the United Sates exercises limited legislative powers when issuing:
e. executive orders
90
There are ________ branches of the federal government.
c. three
91
Those responsibilities not set by the United States Constitution are left to the states. Which of the following is an exclusive power of state governments?
b. issue licenses
92
Unintentionally, a health care provider fails to exercise what is considered ordinary care. This is called ________ and the provider may be sued by the patient.
e. negligence
93
When entering into a contract, certain conditions must pertain to the offer. Which of the following accurately describes one of these conditions?
a. It must be communicated.
94
Which list describes the elements of a contract?
d. agreement, consideration, legal subject matter, and contractual capacity
95
Which of the following must be in writing?
a. third-party contract for health care coverage
96
A deposition may be taken in which phase of the lawsuit?
b. interrogatory
97
A jury is selected in the ________ stage of a lawsuit.
a. trial
98
A medical assistant takes universal precautions while drawing blood for analysis. This is an example of:
c. standard of care
99
A medical assistant who is recording data in a patient's medical record maintains confidentiality at all times. Which of the following describes this practice?
e. not releasing patient information to unauthorized individuals
100
A patient is properly cared for by the nurse practitioner. Which of the following describes one of the elements that the nurse practitioner has successfully met?
a. duty
101
A physician is a specialist in obstetrics. Which of the following is true regarding the standard of care expected of this physician?
b. The physician will be held to the same standard of care as other obstetricians.
102
A physician working in an emergency room is obligated to treat all the patients who come through the door. This is an example of which of the following concepts?
e. duty of care
103
A plea made for a case to be reviewed by the higher court occurs in the ________ phase of a lawsuit.
c. appeal
104
A provider breaches duty of care to a patient. This element of negligence is defined as:
b. dereliction
105
A surgeon removes the wrong kidney from a patient. The patient can sue under which of the following legal doctrines?
e. res ipsa loquitur
106
A(n) ________ is issued by the clerk of the court and is delivered with a copy of the complaint to the defendant.
c. summons
107
Alternative dispute resolution has become increasing popular over the years. What is the reason for this increase?
c. overcrowding of court calendars
108
As employers, physicians have general liability for many aspects of their business. Which of the following does not fall under the responsibility of the employers?
e. employees driving to and from the workplace
109
If a patient is injured because a health care professional failed to exercise the care and expertise that under the circumstances could reasonably be expected of a professional with similar experience and training, then that professional may be liable for
b. reasonable person standard.
110
In a hospital, a certain standard of care is expected of health care practitioners. Which of the following best describes this concept?
c. an expected level of performance
111
In an informal proceeding of arbitration, each side presents evidence and witnesses. In the dispute resolution method referred to as med-arb, who resolves the dispute if the two parties are unable to reach an agreement after mediation?
b. the mediator
112
Instead of going to court, two parties in dispute agree to a neutral third party listening to both sides of the argument and helping to resolve the dispute. What is the term for this type of dispute resolution?
b. mediation
113
Some states require mediation and/or arbitration for certain civil cases, while in other states alternative dispute resolution methods are voluntary. Under the terms of a written contract, who chooses an arbitrator?
d. the American Arbitration Association
114
The definition of liability is:
a. the legal responsibility of competent adults for their own acts
115
The failure to act when one should is called:
c. nonfeasance
116
Those damages awarded by the court to punish the defendant are called:
a. punitive
117
What is the difference between a subpoena and subpoena duces tecum?
b. A subpoena duces tecum requires that documents and records be brought to court.
118
When no written contract exists, who chooses an arbitrator to resolve disputes?
d. The two parties select an arbitrator and the two arbitrators select a third to act.
119
Which of the following is an example of a privileged communication?
b. A patient tells her physician that she uses illegal drugs.
120
Which of the following is not a violation of patient confidentiality?
d. An office clerk calls a patient by name at the check-out desk.
121
A certified medical assistant is constantly updating her knowledge and skills by attending in-services and seminars. This person is practicing which of the "4 Cs of medical malpractice prevention"?
c. competence
122
A medical malpractice lawsuit has been decided under the doctrine of res judicata. What does this Latin term mean?
c. The thing has been decided.
123
A patient sues a physician for negligence and loses. The patient then sues the physician for breach of contract. The second suit is dismissed under what doctrine?
e. res judicata
124
A physician joins a group practice and is applying at the local hospital for admission privileges, also known as credentialing. Which of the following is the final step in verifying the physician's credentials?
d. A peer review committee completes the process.
125
A physician who owns a medical practice decides his malpractice insurance is too expensive and drops the policy. Which of the following aspects of this physician's practice will impact the physician the most?
d. having hospital privileges
126
For legal purposes, the health care professional should know that if it isn't in writing and explained completely and accurately, it wasn't done. To which of the following "4 Cs of medical malpractice prevention" does this statement refer?
a. charting
127
If the patient knew the ________ before treatment, the defendant may use contributory negligence as a defense in a lawsuit.
e. inherent risk
128
By providing informed consent for the patient, the inherent risks are presented to the patient before care is provided.
d. an explanation and apology
129
Medical malpractice insurance that covers the insured only for any claims arising from an incident that occurred, or is alleged to have occurred, during the time the policy was in force, regardless of when the claim is made is called:
c. occurrence coverage
130
Medical malpractice insurance that covers the insured only for those claims made while the policy is in force is called:
b. claims-made coverage
131
Methods used to manage risk are considered a part of which of the following?
c. quality assurance
132
One of the most common occurrences for marking the beginning of the statutory period for medical malpractice includes:
b. the day the alleged negligent act was committed
133
Patients sue for a variety of reasons. Which of the following is not one of the top recurring reasons patients sue?
a. correction of the mistake
134
Release of tortfeasor is a(n):
e. technical defense
135
Risk management is a process to
b. minimize danger, hazard, and liability.
136
The cost of malpractice liability insurance is based upon which of the following?
e. physician specialty and dollar amount covered by the policy
137
The employer physician puts a plan in place to ensure that all government regulations are enforced in the practice. What is the term for this plan?
c. compliance plan
138
The health care practitioner who comes to the aid of an accident victim at the scene may not be held liable under which type of defense?
b. emergency
139
Using the process of comparative negligence, a judge determines that the patient contributed 35% to the injury and the physician contributed 65%. Which of the following is the outcome of the case?
a. The patient's damage award would be reduced by 35%.
140
What are two limitations to a physician choosing to be covered by a self-insurance malpractice plan?
b. Hospitals not allowing privileges to physician with this type of insurance policy plan and the AMA
141
When a physician has malpractice insurance, who should they contact first when faced with a malpractice lawsuit?
c. The insurance company
142
When the defense claims that the patient's actions caused or contributed to the injury, this is called a(n)
c. contributory negligence defense.
143
Which doctrine says a lawsuit cannot move forward if a certain period of time has elapsed?
d. statute of limitations
144
Which of the following insurance policies covers incidents that occurred before the beginning of the new insurance relationship but that have not yet been brought to the insured's attention as a claim?
a. prior acts coverage
145
Which of the following is a recommended communication technique to prevent medical malpractice lawsuits?
a. Avoid statements that could be construed as an admission of fault.
146
A hospital maintains medical records on all patients treated in the hospital. Who owns the information in the hospital records?
the patient
147
A medical clinic does pre-employment physicals for a local employer. The employer pays for the physical exams. Who is the owner of the medical record in this case?
the medical clinic
148
A medical malpractice case has gone to trial. Which of the following types of testimony will prevail?
the written documentation in the medical record
149
A nurse stops by the scene of an auto accident. She helps a conscious patient to remain calm and provides basic first aid to the patient. The patient later sues the nurse for malpractice. What state law will probably be used in the nurse's defense?
Good Samaritan Act
150
A patient brings a medical malpractice suit against a hospital. The hospital claims that they have lost the records. What is the likely decision on the part of the court?
A default judgment will be issued in favor of the plaintiff.
151
A physician has a private practice employing a physician assistant, a nurse, and a medical assistant. The physician also has hospital privileges at a nearby facility. Who owns the medical records generated by both and him and the staff at the practice?
the physician
152
A physician has an obligation to his or her patient based on trust and confidence. What is the term for this obligation?
fiduciary duty
153
A physician stops to aid the driver of a truck that overturned on the side of the road. Which of the following actions may negate the immunity that would otherwise be provided by the Good Samaritan Act?
billing for services delivered at the site of the accident
154
A plastic surgeon routinely photographs patients to document care. Which of the following accurately describes information that should be included on the consent form for this type of photography?
The patient understands that authorization must be given to release photos outside the facility.
155
Allison is required to have a physical before starting her job as a nurse. Her employer pays for the physical. The employer should:
keep the physical exam records in a separate file from general personnel records
156
An addendum to an electronic health record (EHR) is a:
significant change or addition to the EHR
157
A subpoena duces tecum is issued for medical records of a patient who is suing the physician for malpractice. Which of the following is a guideline for sending this information?
Offer sworn testimony regarding the record if instructed to do so by the court.
158
For which of the following examples would implied consent not be legally appropriate?
a. a patient agrees to a test for HIV
159
In which of the following examples would patient authorization for release of his or her medical record be waived?
when a subpoena duces tecum is issued
160
Jennifer's computer monitor is easily viewed by patients while they are sitting at her station. She notices that a patient is making an intent effort to read the information on the computer screen. The information concerns another patient that Jennifer had just talked with. What should Jennifer do?
c. Immediately switch to the current patient's screen.
161
Medical records are:
legal documents
162
Medical records should be kept until the applicable statute of limitations period has elapsed. What is the usual timeframe for this period of time?
2 to 7 years
163
The doctrine of informed consent is the legal basis for advising patients regarding certain aspects of care. Under which of the following is this doctrine usually outlined?
a. state medical practice acts
164
The doctrine of professional discretion pertains to medical record keeping. Which of the following describes this doctrine in more detail?
It is up to the discretion of the physician whether or not to allow all patients access to their medical records.
165
The five Cs are used to describe the attributes of entries into patients' medical records. Which of the following is not one of the five Cs?
clean
166
The law that mandated electronic health records and provides the rules for patient access to their records is:
HIPAA
167
The person in charge of medical records for a physician's office is preparing to release medical records requested by an insurance company. Which of the following is a recommended guideline for this procedure?
a. Include the patient's name, address, and date of birth on the authorization.
168
To correct an error discovered after the patient's written copy of his or her medical records has been recorded, a medical assistant should:
draw a line through the mistake, make and label it as a correction, initial and date it
169
Which of the following aspects of patient care is the most vital factor in the issue of informed consent?
d. patient education
170
Which of the following cases, decided at the Supreme Court level, legalized abortion?
. Roe v. Wade
171
Which of the following describes the proper protocol for the release of medical records?
When medical records are subpoenaed, the patient should be notified in writing.
172
Which of the following information is not usually included in the process of the doctrine of informed consent?
reputation of the physician performing the procedure
173
Which of the following information is the federal statute known as the Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse, Patient Records designed to protect?
patient treatment
174
Which of the following is a public health benefit that will occur with expanded use of health information technology (HIT) in the medical industry?
b. early detection of infectious outbreaks around the country
175
Which of the following is a result of the promotion of health information technology (HIT) in the medical industry?
expanding access to affordable care
176
Which of the following is an example of a patient who usually cannot give informed consent?
an adult who is mentally incompetent
177
Which of the following is not a best practice guideline for maintaining confidentiality?
Discard faxed copies in the recycle bin.
178
Which of the following observations should not be included in a patient's medical record?
notes regarding patient's participation in a rally
179
A breach under HIPAA:
d. is an unauthorized acquisition, access, use, or disclosure of personal health information
180
A patient believes her privacy rights have been violated by a local hospital. Under HIPAA, the patient:
c. must first file a written complaint with the Secretary of Health and Human Services through the Office of Civil Rights
181
A permission is defined as:
a. a reason under HIPAA for disclosing patient information
182
A provider may release information about a victim of abuse, neglect, or domestic violence under which permission of HIPAA?
c. public interest and benefit activities
183
According to the GAO, the amount of improper payments to providers from Medicare fee-for-service plans in 2011 was:
d. $28.8 billion
184
An orthopedic surgeon refers his patients to a radiology facility owned by his brother. What law is potentially being violated?
c. Stark Law
185
From October 2009 through November 2013, how many complaints about security breaches were filed with the Office of Civil Rights?
a. 768
186
How many HIPAA defined permissions exist?
c. six
187
In a physician's office, a sign-in sheet is permissible to use as long as
c. you do not ask for the reason for the visit.
188
The difference between an electronic medical record (EMR) and an electronic health record (EHR) is:
c. the EMR is a record from a single provider, an EHR is a more comprehensive record from all providers of care
189
The federal agency charged with fighting waste, fraud, and abuse in Medicare, Medicaid, and 300 other Health and Human Services programs is the:
e. Office of the Inspector General
190
The first federal law to specifically deal with the privacy of health care records was:
d. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
191
The use of the EHR to improve quality, engage patients, improve care coordination and maintain privacy and security is known as:
a. meaningful use
192
Under the Federal False Claims Act, a citizen may:
d. file a claim on behalf of the federal government for false claims made for payment of health services
193
Under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010, insurance companies must do all of the following except:
c. cover children up to age 30 on their parents' health insurance policy
194
What is the reason for most breaches of confidentiality?
b. lost or stolen computer device
195
Which HIPAA standard requires providers and their business associates to put in place policies and procedures that ensure privacy of the health record?
a. Standard 2
196
Which HIPAA standard requires providers to protect electronically transmitted and otherwise stored personal health information?
d. Standard 3
197
Which HIPAA standard requires providers to use specific code sets?
d. Standard 1
198
Which HIPAA standard requires that all providers secure a national provider number?
b. Standard 4
199
Which of the following court cases first declared that a constitutional right to privacy was implied?
e. Griswold v. Connecticut
200
Which of the following is not a reason that Medicare fraud is difficult to estimate?
b. Health care claims are destroyed after two years.
201
Which of the following is the term used to describe the protection that should be in place to protect the electronic health or medical record from outside intrusion?
c. firewall
202
Which of the following statements is true about HIPAA Standard 2?
c. Protected Health Information (PHI) is any written, spoken, or electronic form.
203
While privacy is not directly expressed in the amendments to the Constitution, which of the following is one of the amendments that the U.S. Supreme Court has used to cover privacy issues?
d. Third
204
A division of medicine that incorporates law and medicine and involves medical issues or medical proof at trials having to do with malpractice, crimes, or accidents is called:
a. forensic medicine
205
A person dies as a result of a carjacking. Who is responsible for signing the death certificate for this individual?
a. the coroner
206
A physician issues a medical prescription for a patient. The correct term for this practice is:
e. prescribe
207
A physician prescribes pentobarbital for a patient who is experiencing seizures. Pentobarbital is an example of what schedule of drug?
b. Schedule II
208
An obstetrician who delivers babies knows that all live births need to be recorded. To which of the following agencies should these births be reported?
b. state registrar
209
Certain sexually transmitted infections (STIs) must be reported whenever diagnosed. Which of the following is not a reportable STI?
e. cervical cancer
210
General regulations mandated by the Controlled Substances Act require physicians who purchase, prescribe, dispense, administer, or in any way handle controlled drugs to follow certain procedures. Which of the following accurately describes one of these procedures?
c. The physician must keep records concerning the administering or dispensing of a controlled drug on file for two years.
211
Generally, birth and death certificates are not required for fetal deaths occurring prior to what week of gestation?
b. 20th
212
If a patient dies of natural causes while under his or her physician's care, who is responsible for completion of the medical portion of the death certificate?
a. attending physician
213
In most states, which of the following cases is not mandated as a reportable injury?
c. A physician suspects spousal abuse, however the patient does not admit it occurred.
214
In which of the following cases would it be legal for a physician to sign a death certificate?
a. if the physician attended to the deceased before the death
215
Samantha lives next door to a ninety-year-old woman named Ruth. She usually sees Ruth every couple of days in her garden. Recently, Ruth's son Joseph moved in with his mother. Samantha has heard yelling and screaming coming from Ruth's house and has not seen Ruth in several weeks. When she goes over to visit Ruth, Joseph answers the door and will not let Samantha in the house. What should Samantha consider as a first step?
e. Report the problem to the elder abuse hotline.
216
The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986 created the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP). Which of the following was this legislation created to protect?
e. vaccine manufacturers
217
The power of the states to initiate public health statutes is inferred from which amendment to the U.S. Constitution?
d. Tenth Amendment
218
The public official who investigates and holds inquests concerning those who die from unknown or violent causes is the:
e. coroner
219
The state of Virginia checks all restaurants to make sure the conditions are sanitary. This is an example of which of the following?
b. public health statutes
220
The states and the federal government collect vital statistics in the U.S. that include births, deaths, marriages, divorces and changes in civil status. What is the main purpose for collection of this information?
a. to assess population trends and needs
221
What is the main reason health care practitioners must report sexually transmitted infections (STIs) to the state health department?
c. to treat others who may be infected
222
Which agency tests and approves prescription drugs before releasing them for public use?
a. Food and Drug Administration
223
Which of the following accurately describes the role of the coroner or medical examiner in the event of a violent death?
d. a medical examiner, who is frequently a pathologist, may order and perform an autopsy.
224
Which of the following examples of public health statutes is enforced by citations for noncompliance?
b. smoking bans
225
Which of the following individuals with a sexually transmitted disease would be required by all states to tell a sexual partner of this disease?
c. a person with HIV
226
Which of the following is not a purpose of public health statutes?
a. requiring physicians to take public health courses
227
Which of the following is not required on a death certificate?
d. decedent's complete medical history
228
Which of the following schedule of drugs are used strictly for research?
b. Schedule I
229
A nursing home administrator sets up programs to give preferential treatment for minorities. This is being done because the current workforce at the nursing home is predominantly white. What is the term for this policy?
a. affirmative action
230
A practice manager fires a medical assistant and cannot provide a legal reason for the dismissal. This is an example of which of the following:
e. wrongful discharge
231
A practice manager is interviewing a medical assistant for a new position in the office. Which of the following information can an employer legally ask of a prospective employee?
b. education
232
A practice manager is interviewing medical assistants for several new positions in an expanding medical practice. Which of the following is not a recommended guideline for conducting the interviews?
c. Always ask about child care arrangements.
233
An employee of a hospital is injured on the job and files for workers' compensation. Which of the following type of state compensation benefits would be available to this injured worker?
c. permanent disability indemnity in the form of weekly cash payments
234
An employee of a nursing home is injured on the job while lifting patients. She believes her back has been injured, but not badly. What is the initial action she should be taking after hurting her back.
e. Report the injury to a supervisor.
235
An OSHA inspector finds that a hospital lab is operating under unsafe conditions that could endanger the lives of employees. What is the initial action that would be taken by the inspector?
b. Ask the employer to remedy the situation.
236
Employees in medical facilities often use hazardous materials in their workplace. Which of the following is a guideline for safely handling these materials?
b. The employer must provide a Material Safety Data Sheet for each hazardous chemical.
237
Federal and state workers' compensation laws establish procedures for compensating workers who are injured on the job. Which of the following accurately describes an aspect of these laws?
e. The injured employee can file a claim with the government instead of suing.
238
In 2012, OSHA published the first major revision to the Hazard Communication Standard. What was the main purpose of the revision?
d. Transform the right of employees to know about workplace hazards to the "right to understand" workplace hazards.
239
In the revision to the Hazard Communication Standard done in 2012, OSHA created a second name for Material Safety Data Sheets. What is the new acronym?
c. SDS
240
Many states have right-to-know laws. These laws offer employees:
d. protection from unsafe work environments
241
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) are
e. required in any business that has any hazardous material.
242
OSHA has five priorities. Which of the following lists those priorities in order?
d. imminent danger situations, employee complaints, investigating fatalities, programmed inspections, and follow-up inspections
243
OSHA standards for medical settings and healthcare workers are often influenced by, or associated with, guidelines issued by:
c. CDC
244
Quid pro quo is prohibited under the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) definition of sexual harassment. Which of the following is an example of this type of harassment?
d. A surgical resident is offered opportunities to scrub in on a procedure if he dates the surgeon.
245
Sarah is starting a new job as a medical assistant at a local clinic. Under OSHA regulations, what must her employer offer her as part of her employment?
e. no-cost hepatitis B vaccinations
246
The Bloodborne Pathogen Standard is designed to protect health care workers against which of the following:
e. contagious diseases like HBV
247
The OSHA Ionizing Radiation Standard applies to all medical and dental offices that have
c. x-ray machines.
248
The primary source of information for OSHA standards is
b. OSHA Web site.
249
When must manufacturers have all products labeled to be aligned with the United Nations Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS)?
b. 2015
250
Which of the following acts mandated that employers maintain a sharps injury log and involved non-managerial employees in selecting safer medical devices?
d. Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
251
Which of the following federal laws makes it illegal to discriminate in hiring or firing because of union membership or organizational activities?
a. Wagner Act of 1935
252
Which of the following information should not be included on an employee's W-2 form?
d. amounts deducted for life insurance
253
Which of the following is an OSHA guideline for disposal of medical waste material?
c. Dispose of chemicals in a glass or metal container.
254
Which of the following is needed for a claimant to file for unemployment benefits?
b. employers' names and addresses for the past 18 months
255
Which of the following is not a requirement of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)?
b. Follow maximum quality standards for lab testing.
256
Which of the following may be used as evidence of just cause for termination should a wrongful discharge lawsuit be filed against an employer?
a. The employee is sexually harassing another employee.
257
Which of the following occurs when an OSHA compliance officer informs an employer the business is subject to "failure to abate" alleged violations?
c. The business is subject to daily penalties.
258
Which of the following specifically states that any equipment that may pose a health risk is included as a hazard?
b. General Duty Clause
259
The children in a family all have blue eyes. The biological parents also have blue eyes. The science that explains these similarities is called:
a. genetics
260
The process by which traits are passed on to offspring is known as:
d. heredity
261
The combination of proteins called nucleotides that are arranged to make up each human is known as which of the following?
b. DNA
262
How many chromosomes are normally found inside the nucleus of every human cell except egg and sperm cells?
c. 46
263
The Human Genome Project, funded by the U.S. government, was started in 1990. What was the purpose of this project?
d. To locate and map the location of all 46 genes
264
A gene that predisposes a woman to breast cancer has been discovered by scientists. Women who are tested to see if this gene is present are using what type of genetic testing?
e. predictive
265
The medical examiner is attempting to eliminate a suspect in a crime. What type of DNA testing might the medical examiner do?
b. forensic
266
Amniocentesis is what type of genetic testing?
c. prenatal testing
267
A permanent change in DNA is the usual cause of genetic diseases. What is the term for this harmful effect?
a. mutation
268
An obstetrician is caring for a young woman who wants to undergo genetic testing prior to becoming pregnant. What would be the best response to this patient
c. Refer the woman to a qualified genetic counselor.
269
Partially due to a study done by Harvard Medical School's Lisa N. Geller, there are now laws in place to prevent:
a. genetic discrimination
270
In 1996, a federal law was passed that prevents health insurers from denying coverage based on genetic information for individuals moving between group health insurance plans. This federal law is known as:
c. HIPAA
271
In 2008, what federal law was passed that prohibits discrimination in employment based on genetic information?
e. GINA
272
Scientists are able to manipulate DNA within the cells of plants, animals, and other organisms to ensure that certain advantageous traits will appear and be passed on, or that certain harmful traits are eliminated. What is the term for this process?
a. genetic engineering
273
One type of genetic engineering that is extremely controversial is cloning. Which of the following statements accurately describes an aspect of this process?
c. A clone is genetically identical to the parent.
274
Which of the following is an objective of cloning farm animals?
b. to produce medically useful substances
275
Transplanting animal tissues and organs into humans is called xenotransplantation. Which of the following is one difference that makes this process problematic?
e. Animal cells produce sugar that human cells do not produce.
276
Which of the following statements regarding stem cell use is true?
c. Embryonic stem cells have a greater potential to treat a wider variety of diseases.
277
A fertility specialist brings an infertile couple's eggs and sperm together in a test tube and when fertilization occurs, he transplants the resulting embryo back into the female uterus. What is the term for this type of fertilization?
a. in vitro fertilization
278
Which of the following accurately describes the difference between a traditional and gestational surrogate mother?
e. A traditional surrogate is related to the fetus, while the gestational surrogate is not.
279
A young infertile couple asks their physician about adopting a baby. Which of the following statements is true regarding the process of adoption?
a. Any adult who shows the desire to be a fit parent may adopt a child.
280
A state agency removes a 10-year-old male child from the home of parents who abused him. What is the name of the legal doctrine that allows the state to act in the best interest of the child?
e. parens patriae
281
A new mother leaves her infant daughter in a safe place at a nurse's station in a hospital. This mother is protected from legal prosecution or with reduced legal prosecution by what legislation?
b. safe haven law
282
A 17-year-old female lives with her parents and meets the requirements to give informed consent to have a small basal cell carcinoma removed. Which of the following would this teenager be considered?
d. mature minor
283
Which of the following is a right guaranteed to emancipated minors?
e. right to privacy
284
A patient asks his physician "Can you help me die in peace?" The physician agrees to withhold medical treatment for this patient. This is an example of what type of euthanasia?
b. passive
285
A patient dies under suspicious conditions. Which of the following might occur to determine cause of this patient's death?
b. autopsy
286
A patient has been diagnosed with incurable lung cancer and it is determined that death is imminent. What type of care would best serve this patient?
a. palliative
287
A Persistent vegetative state(PVS) exists as a result of severe mental impairment, characterized by irreversible cessation of the higher functions of the brain, most often caused by damage to which of the following organs?
e. cerebral cortex
288
A physician suggests hospice care for a patient with aggressive brain cancer that is not responding to curative care. Which of the following is true about hospice care?
b. It is not designed to target the underlying disease process.
289
According to a 2013 study done by the Association of American Medical Colleges (AAMC), how many of the 125 U.S. medical schools offer courses on death and dying?
c. 5
290
According to the Uniform Determination of Death Act, which of the following is a criteria for death?
d. entire brain ceases to function
291
An early custom for mourners was to go barefoot and to wear sackcloth and ashes. What was the purpose of this practice?
c. to avoid making the dead envious
292
Autopsies must be performed in cases in which the death is suspicious or due to homicide. Which of the following is true regarding current trends in performing autopsies?
d. A reason for fewer autopsies is the unavailability of pathologists in small hospitals.
293
For patients to be eligible for hospice care, physicians usually must certify that they are not expected to live beyond how many months?
e. 6
294
For which of the following reasons did pagan tribes begin the custom of covering the face of the deceased with a sheet?
c. They believed that the spirit of the deceased escaped through the mouth.
295
From which ancient custom do wakes held today originate?
d. keeping watch over the deceased hoping life would return
296
How is a health care proxy different than a durable power of attorney?
e. A health care proxy can only make health care decisions.
297
Increasingly, schools that train health care providers are offering courses in thanatology. What is the focus of this course of study?
a. death and psychological methods of coping with it
298
Palliative care programs are available in hospitals. In the U.S., what is the approximate percentage of hospitals that have palliative care programs?
d. 40%
299
States have their own criteria for determining when death actually occurs, but most have adopted the definition of brain death proposed by which of the following?
c. Uniform Determination of Death Act
300
Technically, it can be said that death results from a lack of:
a. oxygen
301
The l989 Uniform Rights of the Terminally Ill Act serves as a guideline for state legislatures in constructing laws addressing which of the following?
d. advanced directives
302
The right to die first became a matter for the courts to deliberate in 1976, with the death of:
d. Karen Ann Quinlan
303
Traditionally, in educational programs for health care practitioners, courses of study have placed more emphasis on what type of care?
b. curative
304
What aspect of death and dying did the late Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, MD, describe?
d. the coping methods of persons who are grieving
305
What was the purpose of the creation of the Uniform Anatomical Gift Act?
e. to allow individuals to donate their bodies to science after death
306
What was the significance of placing a funeral wreath on a coffin in pagan times?
a. keeping the dead person's spirit within bounds
307
Which of the following correctly describes an aspect of hospice care?
d. Most in-home hospice programs are independently run.
308
Which of the following in not an organ that can be transplanted?
e. brain
309
Which of the following is not a goal of palliative care?
e. using current research studies to find a cure for a terminal illness
310
Which of the following is the legal term for an advance directive that specifies an individual's end-of-life wishes for medical treatment without necessarily appointing a designee to make legal decisions for him or her?
d. living will
311
Which of the following occurs in Stage 5 of Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's grieving process?
d. acceptance
312
Which of the following statements best describes the term "grief"?
c. Grief is the human reaction to loss.
313
Which state law was the first state law passed to permit physician-assisted suicide in certain circumstances?
d. Oregon's Death with Dignity Act
