Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Microbiology minimal questions > Minimal questions 1-99 > Flashcards

Minimal questions 1-99 Flashcards

(99 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What does sterilisation mean?

A

Killing procedure of any kind of germs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does disinfection mean?

A

Procedure where the number of the germs are reduced to a safety level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which parameters can influence the effectivity of the sterilisation?

A

The number of the germs, the resistance of the germs,
the concentration of the disinfectants, the presence of the organic materials, the initial time, the presence of the biofilm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Parameters of the hot-air sterilisation cupboard protocol?

A

a. 180 degrees C; 1 hour
b. 160 degrees C; 2 hours
c. 140 degrees C; 3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Parameters of the autoclaving?

A

a. +1 atm overpressure, 121 degrees C, 20-30 minutes,

or

b. +2 atm overpressure, 134 degrees C, 10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chemical agents used for gas sterilisation?

A

Etilene oxide, formaldehyde, beta-propiolacton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The theoretical background of plasma sterilisation?

A

Hydrogen-peroxide in high electrical field will form plasma stage. The produced free radicals will kill the microbes. At the end of the procedure will be produced water, oxygen and other nontoxic products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Biological method used for checking effectivity of the sterilisation?

A

By Bacillus/Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores. If the procedure was performed in correct way, the spores cannot be cultivated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Detection of the presence of pyrogenic material in drugs?

A

LAL test; The blood of the horseshoe crab will coagulate in the presence of LPS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the disinfectants?

A

Chemical agents used on inanimate/non-living surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the antiseptic agents?

A

Chemical agents used for disinfection animate (tissue, skin, mucous membrane) surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does serological reaction mean?

A

Reaction based on the antigen-antibody reaction performed in vitro.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does agglutination mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is cell mediated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the bacterial cell surface antigens?

A

O: Cell wall
H: Flagella
K: Capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does antibody titre mean?

A

The highest dilution fold or the lowest antibody concentration where we can see in vitro antigen-antibody reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does precipitation mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is soluble (enzyme, toxin or virus particle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does iatrogenic infection mean?

A

Infection caused by medical staff during the investigation or treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does nosocomial infection mean?

A

Infection occurred in hospital after 48 hours of the hospitalisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the contents of the vaccines?

A

Live attenuated microbe; killed microbe, toxoid, antigens of the microbe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does native examination of the microbe mean in microbiology?

A

The microbe is examined without killing procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What kind of information can we get by light microscopically examination?

A
  • Size of microbe
  • Shape of microbe
  • Motility
  • Staining can be examined
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The solutions of Gram-stain?

A

Sodium oxalate, crystal violet, iodine solution, 96% ethanol, fuchsin or safranin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What kind of devices can be used for anaerobic cultivation?

A

Anaerostate
Gas-pack jar
High agar
Anaerobic chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Definitions: Bacteriostatic, Bactericide

A

Bacteriostatic: inhibits bacterial growth
Bactericide: kills bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Definition: Selective toxicity
the antibiotic has an effect only on the bacteria, but not on the human host
26
Chemotherapeutic index?
Dosis tolerata maxima (DTM) / Dosis curativa minima (DCM)
27
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor antibiotics?
Penicillin, Cephalosporin, Carbapenem, Glycopeptide
28
Glycopeptide antibiotics
Vancomycin, Teicoplanin
29
Membrane function alternating antibiotics are:
Polymyxines
30
What are the protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics? (3 examples)
``` Aminoglycosides Tetracycline Macrolide Chloramphenicol Linezolid ```
31
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors are: (2 examples)
Quinolones, rifampicin, sulphonamide, trimethoprim
32
Three possible ways of horizontal gene transfer:
Conjugation (plasmid) Transduction (bacteriophage) Transformation (uptake of naked DNA from the environment)
33
Antibiotic resistance mechanism are:
Enzymatic degradation or modification of the antibiotics, efflux pump, modifying of the antibiotic binding site
34
What does MRSA mean?
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
35
What does ESBL mean?
Extended spectrum of beta lactamase enzyme
36
What does MIC mean?
Minimal bacteriostatic concentration of an antibiotic measured in micrograms/ml.
37
What does MBC mean?
Minimal bactericidal concentration of an antibiotic measured in micrograms/ml
38
Definitions: MBL MACI PACI
MBL: metallo-beta-lactamase (=carbapenemase) MACI: Multiresistant Acinetobacter PACI: pan-resistant Acinetobacter
39
Which 3 vaccines contain capsular polysaccharide?
a. Hib (against Haemophilus influenzae type b) b. Prevenar / Pneumovax (against 13/23 serotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae) c. Meningococcus vaccines (against serotypes ACWY) - but not B!
40
What kind of specimen can be sent to the microbiological diagnostic laboratory in case of typical pneumonia?
Sputum and haemoculture
41
What kind of microbiology can be sent to the microbiology diagnostic laboratory in the case of atypical pneumonia?
Blood, urine, broncho-alveolar lavage.
42
What kind of bacterial disease can be treated by antitoxin?
Infections caused by bacterial toxins exotoxins: tetanus, botulism, diphtheria
43
Which bacteria can be differentiated with the catalase test?
Staphylococci (+) and | Streptococci (-)
44
Which bacteria can be differentiated with the coagulase test?
``` Staphylococcus aureus (+) and the other staphylococcus species (coagulase-negative staphylococci) ```
45
Microscopic morphology of Staphylococci
Gram positive cocci | Arranged in grape-like structures
46
Colony morphology of Staphylococcus Aureus on blood agar plate
Average size Round colonies with butter consistency Golden pigment production Beta-haemolysis
47
What are the non-toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus? (3 examples)
``` Protein A Endocoagulase (clumping factor) Adhezins Teicoic acid Hialuronidase Protease Lipase DN-ase ```
48
What are the toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus?
``` Leucocidin Toxic shock syndrome toxin Exfoliative toxin Enterotoxin Haemolysin ```
49
Disease caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
Folliculitis, furuncle, carbuncle, impetigo, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, food poisoning
50
Diseases caused by Staphylococcus aureus exotoxins? (2 examples)
Food poisoning, scalded skin syndrome, toxic shock syndrome
51
List at least 2 coagulase-negative staphylococcus species.
S. epidermidis S. saprophyticus S. haemolyticus S. lugdunensis
52
Diseases caused by coagulase negative staphylococci?
Nosocomial infections, biofilm production on the surface of plastic devices
53
Which bacterium can cause "Honeymoon Cystitis"?
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
54
Colony morphology of Streptococcus pyogenes on blood agar plate?
Small, Pin-point colonies, Surrounded by large, strong beta-haemolytic zone
55
Which streptococci show beta-haemolysis?
Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus agalactiae
56
Which streptococci show alpha-haemolysis?
Streptococcus pneumoniae and viridans group (e.g. S. mutans, S. mitis, S. salivarius)
57
Which species is the Lancefield group A streptococcus?
Streptococcus pyogenes
58
Which species is the Lancefield group B Streptococcus?
Streptococcus agalactiae
59
What is the causative agent of scarlet fever?
Streptococcus pyogenes
60
Which bacterial virulence factor is the causative agent of scarlet fever?
Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxin or erythrogenic toxin
61
What is the capsule of S. pyogenes made of?
Hyaluronic acid
62
Disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes? (3 examples)
``` Pharyngitis Tonsillitis Sinusitis Impetigo Erysipelas Necrotising fasciitis Scarlet fever TSST ```
63
What kind of post streptococcal infections can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?
Acute rheumatic fever, | Glomerulonephritis
64
Which two streptococcus species show 100% penicillin sensitivity still now?
Streptococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus agalactiae
65
What kind of disease can be caused in new-borns by Streptococcus agalactiae?
In new born meningitis, sepsis, pneumonia
66
Which bacterium is the leading cause of neonatal meningitis?
Streptococcus agalactiae
67
Microscopic morphology of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
Gram-positive diplococci
68
How can be prevented the invasive diseases caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
By 23 valent polysaccharide capsule vaccine or 13 valent conjugated vaccine
69
Which two bacteria can be differentiated based on the optochin sensitivity/resistance?
S. pneumoniae (S) and viridans group (R)
70
What kind of disease can be caused by viridans group streptococci?
Dental decay or endocarditis
71
Which are the 2 most frequent human pathogenic Enterococcus species?
E. Feacalis and E. faecium
72
Microscopic morphology of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
Gram-negative, non capsulated diplococci
73
What kind of culture media can be used to cultivate Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
Chocolate agar or Thayer Martin agar
74
Microscopic morphology of Neisseria meningitidis?
Gram-negative, capsulated, diplococci
75
How can Neisseria menigitidis spread?
By respiratory droplets and will colonize the nasopharynx
76
What kind of disease can be caused by Neisseria meningitidis?
Sepsis, meningitis, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
77
What kind of diseases can be caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
Gonorrhoeae, blenorrhoea neonatorum, proctitis, orchitis.
78
What is the causative agent of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?
Neisseria meningitidis
79
What kind of tests can be performed from liquor in case of Neisseria meningitidis infection?
Microscopic examination, Gram-stain, latex agglutination.
80
What can be do prophylactic with the contact person who suffering by Neisseria meningitidis infection?
Chemoprophylaxis by rifampicin or ciprofloxacin
81
What can cause Neisseria gonorrhoeae in newborns?
Ophtalmoblenorrhoea neonatorum
82
Which serotype of Haemophilus influenzae can cause invasive infection?
The Haemophilus influenzae with capsule "b" serotype
83
How can be prevented the invasive infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae strains?
By Hib vaccine
84
What kind of disease can be caused by Haemophilus Ducreyi?
Ulcus molle (chancroid)
85
What is the causative agent of whooping cough?
Bordatella pertussis
86
What are the virulence factor of Bordatella pertussis? (2 examples)
Fimbria, pertactin, pertussis toxin, tracheal cytotoxin, dermatonecrotic toxin.
87
What is the causative agent for tularemia?
Francisella tularensis
88
What are the causative agents of human brucellosis? (2 examples)
Brucella abortus Brucella melitensis Brucella suis Brucella canis
89
What are the diseases caused by Bacillus anthracis? (2 examples)
Cutaneous anthrax, pulmonary anthrax, gastrointestinal anthrax
90
What kind of disease can be caused by Bacillus cereus?
Food poisoning (vomiting, diarrhoea), wound infection
91
What is the causative agent of pseudomembranosus colitis?
Clostridium difficile
92
What kind of bacteria can cause flaccid paralysis?
Clostridium botulinum
93
What kind of bacteria can cause spastic paralysis?
Clostridium tetani
94
What is the treatment of Botulism?
Giving polyvalent antitoxin
95
What is the treatment of pseudomembranosus colitis?
Vancomycin per os Metronidazole Faecal transplantation
96
Which bacteria can cause gas gangrene? (2 examples)
Clostridium perfringens Clostridium histolyticum Clostridium septicum
97
What is the causative agent of diphtheria?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
98
How can be detected the toxin of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
By Elek´s test, Römer-test (in guinea pig)
99
What is the treatment of diphtheria?
Passive immunisation, giving antibiotics, artificial ventilation if it is necessary.

Microbiology minimal questions (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions