Misc Flashcards

1
Q

Potential complications of mandibular distraction osteogenesis

A

Premature bony consolidation
Open bite deformity
TMJ ankylosis

Complications more common in pts who had trach prior to MDO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the name for non traumatic subluxation if the Atlantis oak joint?

A

Grisel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Symptoms of grisel syndrome?

A

Neck pain, torticollis, pain on head rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Risk of leukemia or brain tumor due to head CT

A

1 case leukemia or brain tumor per 10,000 head CT scans

Relative risk 3.18 for leukemia
2.82 for brain tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What sign is twitching of facial muscles in response to tapping over facial nerve.

A

Chvvosteks sign

Due to acquired hypoparathyroidism postop so hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is name of sign for carpopedal spasm of hand and wrist when BP cuff is inflated over systolic pressure for 3 min-

A

Trousseau signs

Due to hypoparathyroidism /hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When are DPOAEs considered present?

A

When they are at least 6 dB above the level of the noise floor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Most common cause of bacterial tracheitis?

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Definition of EOE

A

15 or more eosinophils per HPF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Definition of persistent bacterial bronchitis

A
  1. Presence wet cough
  2. Response to abics (amox-clav) within 2 weeks of use
  3. Lower airway infection defined as presence of resp pathogens at a density of > 10 to 4th CFUs/ml BAL in absence of evidence of infection with Bordetella pertussis, mycoplasma pneumonia, chlamydia infection (according to PCR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Alkaline agents cause what type of injury when ingested

A

Liquefaction necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most common type of TEF. Second most common

A

EA with distal TEF(85%)

EA alone (8%)

TEF alone (H type) 4%

EA with proximal and distal TEF 3%

EA with proximal TEF (1%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Symptoms of sincipital (frontoethmoidal) encephaloceles

A

15% of encephaloceles
Mass medial to middle turb
Between frontal and ethmoid bones at foremen cecum anterior to cribiform plate
Pulsatilla
Expansion with crying or jugular being compression (Furstenburg sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Survival for malignant salivary gland tumors in kids

A

93%

26% will have recurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What lab should be checked with periodic limb movement disorder

A

Ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

3 stages of skin graft

A

1) imbibition (absorption of nutrients from underlying tissue
2) vascular inisculatiin (graft vessels grow to meet recipient vessels
3) neovascularizatiin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For DISE- which anesthetic agent shows more collapse (and can overestimate obstruction).

A

Propofol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of abic inhibits cell wall synthesis?

A

Cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of abic inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase

A

Fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mechanism of macrolides

A

Inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 50s subunit of bacterial ribosome

21
Q

Mechanism of TMP-SMX

A

Inhibits DNA synthesis by disrupting folic acid synthesis

22
Q

Which class of medications needs to be stopped prior to skin testing

A

Beta blockers

23
Q

Treatment for malignant hypothermia

A

Dantrolene

24
Q

Kasabach Merritt syndrome associated with what lesion

A

Tufted angioma
Or
Kaposiform hemangioendothelioma

Looks like big raised bruise
Need to check CBC to check platelets

25
Q

Melkersen- Rosenthal syndrome

A

Associated with fissured tongue
Facial paralysis- relapsing
Lip swelling/Oro facial swelling

Granulomatous disease

26
Q

Features of NF1

A
Cafe au lairs spots 
Freckles in armpits and groin
Neurofibromas
Lisch nodules in iris 
Optic gliomas

NF1 gene
Autosomal dominant

27
Q

Diagnostic criteria for NF1

A

At least 2 of following

6 or more cafe-au-lait spots > 5 mm in prepubertal and > 15 mm in postpubertal individuals

2 or more NF or 1 plexiform nf
Axillary or inguinal freckling
2 or more lisch nodules
Optic glioma
Bone lesion…
First degree relative with NF1
28
Q

NF2 criteria

A

Bilateral vestibular schwanomas
Fam hi if nf2 plus unilateral vs or any 2 of following… meningitis, Schwann I’m a, glioma, neurofibromas, pst subcapsular lenticular opacity

Etc.

29
Q

What is Holman -Miller sign.

A

Anterior bowing of posterior wall of maxillary sinus with JNA

30
Q

Increased risk if recurrence if jna

A

Vascular supply from internal carotid artery’s

31
Q

Which muscle opens Eustachian tube.

A

Tensor veli palatini

32
Q

On biopsy there are sheets of eosinophils and multinucleated giant cells. Diagnosis?

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

33
Q

Compared to adult T Bone Fx Ped T Bone fx

A

Has lower rate of facial nerve injury

34
Q

NF2 is from which chromosome

A

22

35
Q

Genetics of alport syndrome

A

X linked

36
Q

Most common suture affected in non-syndromic craniosynostosis.

A

Saggital

37
Q

Most common suture affected in syndrome craniosynostosis?

A

Bilateral coronal

38
Q

What is oculocardiac reflex?

A

Decrease in HR due to entrapment of extraocular muscles (trap door deformity). Need to operate immediately. If entrapment but no ovulocardiac reflex the surgery should be within 24-48 hours. If longer then risk of permanent diplopia.

39
Q

Most common cause of infection from cat bite?

A

Pasteurella

40
Q

What antibiotic should be rx for prophylaxis for cat or dog bite?

A

Amox-clav

41
Q

What is most common site of mandible fracture?

A

Condyle

42
Q

Angles classification of malocclusion

A
  1. Intercuspation of the medial cusp of the maxillary first molar with the buccal groove of the mand 1st molar.
  2. Mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary 1st molar occluded mesial to the buccal groove of mand 1st molar
  3. Medial buccal cusp of maxillary 1st molar occludes distal to buccal groove of the mandibular 1st molar.
43
Q

Genetic cause of aminoglycoside-induced hearing loss

A

Maternally inherited 12Sr RNA mutation

44
Q

How many infantile hemangioma (the most common vascular tumor) and needed before one should investigate further

A
  1. If 5 or more then US or MRI to look for liver hemangioma.
45
Q

Time course of i volition of infantile hemangiomas

A

30% involute by 3 years
50% by 5 years
Some last 10 years

46
Q

Mechanism of propranolol for IH

A

Not fully understood

Likely related to VEGF and adrenergic vasoconstriction pathways

47
Q

MEN1

A

Parathyroid glands
Pituitary glands
Pancreas duodenum stomach

48
Q

Men 2a

A

Medullary thyroid cancer
Pheochromocytoma
Parathyroid adenoma

49
Q

Men2b

A

MTC
Pheochromocytomas
Mucosal neuromas
Mafanoid habititus