Misc Flashcards

(306 cards)

1
Q

CFTR is what type

A) Voltage gated

B) ATP-gated

C) Ca2+ gated

E) cGMP gated

A

ATP gated

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2
Q

Ovarian vessels and nerves delivered via what vessel?

A

suspensory ligament

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3
Q

Elevated aPTT, PT with no change in TT suggests what anticoagulant

A

Direct Xa inhibitor

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4
Q

Excessive athlete in non-teenage athlete

A

steroids

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5
Q

adrenergic receptor block causing postural hypotension

A

alpha-1

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6
Q

This artery courses with radial nerve in the arm

A

deep brachial

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7
Q

Splenic artery infarct: blood flow will decrease more in short gastric or left gastroepiploic?

A

short gastric

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8
Q

Absence of T tubules will cause what

A

uncoordinated myfibril contraction

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9
Q

Diminished ankle reflex: L5 or S1

A

S1

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10
Q

Diminished patellar reflex: L4, L5, or S1

A

L4

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11
Q

How many half lives to reach steady state concentration of continous infusion w/ first order kinetics

A

4-5

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12
Q

Don’t take this drug with levodopa

A

B6 – increases peripheral metabolism

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13
Q

Food stuck in piriform recess injures what nerve with what effect

A

internal laryngeal nerve (branch of CN X), injures afferent limb of cough reflex

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14
Q

Testicular tumor + hyperthyroidism: what tumor marker?

A

beta-hCG – analog of TSH

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15
Q

chloramphenicol toxicities

A

pancytopenia and aplastic anemia

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16
Q

Vitamin deficiency causing squamous metaplasia of pancreatic and exocrine ducts to a keratinizing epithelium

A

Vitamin A

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17
Q

Why is skeletal muscle resistant to Ca channel blockers

A

Calcium doesn’t actually flow through the calcium channels – their opening mechanically opens the Ryanodine receptors inside

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18
Q

Pathologic change preceding aortic calcification

A

cell necrosis

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19
Q

Low alveolar PaCO2

High alveolar PaO2

Poor perfusion or poor duffusion

A

Poor perfusion – diffusion problems don’t usually affect CO2

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20
Q

4 year old with bounding pulses and palpable thrill at LUSB

A

PDA

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21
Q

PDA arises from which aortic arch

A

6

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22
Q

HbA 60%

HbS 40%

What’s the genotype

A

Heterozygote for sickle cell

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23
Q

Renal artery stenosis will result in hypertrophy of what renal cells

A

Juxtaglomerular cells (modified smooth muscle cells of afferent arterioles)

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24
Q

Huntington’s caused by deficiency in what neurotransmitter

A

GABA

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25
Renal efferent arteriole vasoconstriction has what effect on GFR and FF
FF goes up GFR goes up with mild to moderate vasoconstriction, goes down with severe vasoconstriction
26
Management of somatic symptom disorder
Regularly scheduled visits
27
Brain lesion causing pure motor symptoms and spasticity
internal capsule
28
Malleus and incus: what pharyngeal arch
1st -- same as CN V
29
Injecting this buttock quadrant risks superior gluteal nerve
superior medial
30
IL that stimulates growth and differentiation of eosinophils in asthmatics
IL-5
31
32
CMV retinitis tx
gangiclovir
33
pharm therapy for gestational diabetes
insulin
34
albuminuria with minimal concentrations of other proteins refers to what kind of proteinuria
selective
35
Cause of portal HTN with no liver injury
portal vein thrombosis
36
List medial to lateral: gonadal vessels, internal iliac vessels, ureter
internal iliac / ureter / gonadal vessels
37
Which antilipid med has greatest effect on lowering TGs
fibrates
38
Most common cause of lacunar infarct
small vessel lipohyalinosis 2/2 HTN
39
Physostigmine, Neostigmine, Edrophonium: Which is centrall acting
Physostigmine
40
Best screening test for undifferentiated malabsorption
Sudan stool stain
41
Niacin mechanism
inhibit hepatic VLDL production
42
Lead or iron poisoning: colicky abdominal pain constipation headaches bluish pigmentation at the gum line
lead
43
Clasp knife spasticity: putamen, caudate, internal capsule, or globus pallidus
internal capsule
44
Symptom of hyper aldosteronism: Diarrhea and flushing OR Paresthesia and muscle weakness
Paresthesias and muscle weakness (low K)
45
Does insulin cross placenta
No
46
Electrolyte abnormalities in amphotericin B therapy
low K and Mg
47
Ab for neutrophil myeloperoxidase is another way of saying what?
p-ANCA positive
48
Nitroprusside acts on arteries or veins
Both
49
Middle aged female with DM and borderline HTN is most likely to die of what
MI
50
Ab targets alpha3 chain of collagen 4: another way of saying what
anti-GBM positive
51
Does hemochromatosis cause cirrhosis
yes
52
triptan mechanism
serotonin agonists
53
Cholestasis will cause gastric atrophy or osteomalacia
osteomalacia
54
Converts androgen to estrogen in women
aromatase in granulosa cells
55
scrotal abscess drains to what lymph node
superficial infuinal (only the testis itself goes to para-aortic)
56
Hydralazine and procainamide are metabolized how
Liver acetylation These drugs cause drug induced lupus
57
Colchicine mechanism
inhibit microtubule formation Acute gout treatment causing diarrhea --\> think colchicine
58
Iron studies in iron deficiency anemia Fe: Ferritin: Transferrin:
Fe: low Ferritin: low Transferrin: high
59
Patients with significant prior atheroscerotic disease Consider what before prescribing ACE-I
possibiliy of bilateral renal artery stenosis
60
Permanent central DI hypothalamus or posterior pituitary
hypothalamus (In pituitary lesions, the hypothalamus can eventually compensate)
61
Pelvic fracture most likely to injure what portion of urethra
posterior membranous (just distal to prostate)
62
Unilateral swelling of face and arm in patient with risk factors for malignancy
brachiocephalic vein syndrome (not SVC!)
63
Which nervous system terminal output uses NE
sympathetic visceral innervation
64
How does squatting help in Tet spells
increase SVR (doesn't affect PVR)
65
Arteriolar vasodilators such as hydralazine have what complication
salt retention and edema | (they activate RAAS)
66
NE administered: what's second messenger system Blood vessels: Heart:
Blood vessels: IP3 Heart: cAMP
67
Rapid bilateral cerebral necrosis in young person
HSV encephalitis
68
Direct hernia: breakdown of transversalis fascia or weak rectus muscle
transversalis fascia breakdown
69
Hives: epidermal spongiosis or dermal edema
dermal edema
70
Method of INH metabolism
acetylation
71
List 5 insulin types in increasing duration of action
aspart regular NPH detemir glargine
72
Reperfusion injury causing rise in CK is best explained by: glutathione peroxidase pruduction OR Cell membrane damage
cell membrane damage
73
Describe buspirone muscle relaxant effects
none
74
Most common cause of spontaneous PTX in healthy individual
ruptured subpleural apical blebs
75
Serotonin syndrome: tryptophan or tyrosine
tryptophan
76
serotonin syndrome antidote
cyproheptadine
77
What's Kussmaul sign
paradoxical inspiratory rise in JVP: impaired RV filling
78
INH mechanism against mycobacterium
inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
79
Acanthocytes on peripheral smear imply what
abetalipoproteinemia
80
Impact of myocardial ischemia on intracellular Na, Ca, K
Na: increased Ca: increased K: decreased
81
This med is given for PAH while patient is waiting for transplant What's the mechanism
bosentan: endothelin receptor antagonist
82
What's Cheyne-Stokes breathing
apnea then period of crescendo-decrescendo tidal volumes then apnea and repeat Seen in cardiac and neurologic disease
83
Which anti-mycobacterial agent works best in acidic environments (e.g. intracellular)
pyrazinamide
84
flutamide mechanism
blocks testosterone receptors
85
Integrins bind what 3 things
fibronectin collagen laminin
86
Side effects of typical antipsychotics Low potency: High potency
Low potency: anti cholinergic and antihistaminergic High potency: EPS
87
First dose side effect of ACE-I
hypotension
88
Reason nitrates are taken morning and noon but not night
need a nitrate free interval to avoid tolerance development
89
Moldy substance causing p53 mutation What is it and what cancer does it cause
aflatoxins that cause HCC
90
What causes the iron buildup in patients with hemochromatosis
abnormal intestinal absorption
91
cromolyn and nedocromil mechanism
inhibit mast cell degranulation
92
HF patient w/ slow heart rate, nausea, vomiting, hyperkalemia. What's the drug responsible?
digoxin
93
beta blocker mechanism in glaucoma
decreased aqueous humor production by ciliary epithelium
94
colonic diverticuli: traction or pulsion
pulsion
95
daytime sleepiness more common in short acting or long acting benzos
long acting
96
1st line treatment for these seizures myoclonic: tonic-clonic: simple partial: complex partial:
myoclonic: VPA tonic-clonic: phenytoin, carbamezapine simple partial: carbamezapine complex partial: carbamezapine
97
Tomoxifen more likely to cause osteoporosis or endometrial hyperplasia
endometrial hyperplasia -- tomoxifen actually increases bone mass
98
Findings in congestion, red hepatization, and gray hepatization
congestion: exudate containing mostly bacteria red hepatization: exudate contains erythrocytes, neutrophils and fibrin gray hepatization: exudate contains neutrophils, fibrin, and disintegrated RBCs
99
What 2 substances are responsible for osteoclast differentiation?
RANKL and M-CSF
100
Multinucleated cells in Paget's disease represent what
osteoclasts
101
confluent erythema, LAD, fever, and facial swelling after recently starting phenytoin
DRESS -- remember the eosinophilia
102
bisphosphonates are analog of pyrophosphate or hydroxyproline
pyrophosphate
103
What is substance P?
pain neurotransmitter in PNS and CNS. levels are lowered by capsaicin
104
infant with growth retardation and teeth discolorations cause by maternal use of what substance
tetracycline
105
Name the signaling pathway: nicotinic receptors: muscarinic receptors: beta-1 and beta-2: alpha-1:
nicotinic receptors: ligand-gated ion channels muscarinic receptors: IP3 beta-1 and beta-2: cAMP alpha-1: IP3
106
chlorpheniramine is what class of drug
1st generation anti-histamine
107
72 kD enzyme present only in inflammatory tissues is bound by which of the following: allopurinol, aspirin, colchicine, infliximab, prednisone
aspirin
108
Matching: gp120 and gp41 adherence and fusion
gp120: adherence gp41: fusion
109
hyperglycemia and lipodystrophy in HIV patient. what drug class likely responsible
protease inhibitors, e.g. idinavir
110
elevated phenobarbital level in patient with essential tremor. what's he taking?
primidone
111
best long term tx for CF-associated diarrhea
pancreatic lipase -- CF causes pancreas obstructive fibrosis and insufficiency
112
pinworm treatment
albendazole
113
Wegener's: crescentic glomerulonephritis or membranous glomerulopathy
crescentic
114
Half life formula in terms of clearance and Vd
t = 0.7Vd/Cl
115
6MP metabolized by what enzyme
xanthine oxidase -- that's why you must be careful when using with allopurinol
116
advanced HIV CMV retinitis given drug causing hypomag and hypocalcemia what's the drug
foscarnet (note that ganciclovir is first line but can't be given because of neutropenic side effects)
117
1st or second gen antihistamine benadryl chlorpheniramine promethazine fexofenadine hydroxyzine
benadryl: 1st chlorpheniramine: 1st promethazine: 1st fexofenadine: 2nd hydroxyzine: 1st
118
Uremic bleeding What labs will you see
normal aPTT, PT, Plt count elevated bleeding time
119
What non-psych drugs can contribute to serotonin syndrome
linezolid ondansetron triptans tramadol
120
severe hyperK after administering muscle relaxant
succinylcholine
121
Check what lab before initiating therapy with canagliflozin and other SGLT1 inhibitors
BUN and Cr
122
benzo mechanism
bind allosterically to GABA\_A receptor increasing frequency of ion channel opening
123
comedocarcinoma is subtype of what cancer
DCIS
124
Patient in MVA given med to relieve cerebral edema and subsequently develops pulmonary edema and dies. What's the med?
mannitol or other osmotic diuretic
125
Does colchicine inhibit leukocyte production or function
function
126
INH requires processing by what enzyme to be activated
catalase peroxidase
127
Med treats HTN emergency, increases renal perfusion and promotes sodium excretion
fenoldopan
128
Effect of fluorinated anesthetics on cerebral and hepatic blood flow
increased cerebral decreased hepatic
129
if someone is experiencing anticholinergic side effects, is it due to muscarinic or nicotinic receptors
muscarinic
130
antiarrhythmic that targets ischemic myocardium
lidocaine and other 1B drugs
131
leurolide mechanism effect on testosterone and DHT levels after initiation of therapy
GnRH agonist initial increase in both followed by decrease in both
132
Alveolar cells containing golden cytoplasmic granules that turk dark blue on Prussian blue staining. What are the granules and what is the disease
hemosiderin heart failure
133
anti-TB drug causing red body fluids what's the mechanism of action
rifampin inhibits DNA transcription
134
impact of statins on LDL receptor density
increases
135
what two antifungals bind ergosterol
amphotericin B nystatin
136
oseltamivir mechanism
neuraminidase inhibitor decreases release of virions
137
thiopental levels in brain rapidly decrease. why?
redistribution to skeletal muscle and fat
138
Antiarrhythmics causing torsades name 4
dofetilide and sotelol procainamide and quinidine
139
TB drug causing vision changes What's the mechanism
ethambutol inhibits carbohydrate polymerization
140
Which cell count increases following glucocorticoid administration
neutrophil
141
Left or right side CRC manifests as obstruction? How does each side typically present?
left left side presents with constipation, distention, nausea, etc right side presents with anemia, fatigue, weight loss
142
Which lipid med increases triglycerides
cholestyramine
143
doxorubicin causes what specific cardiac abnormality
DCM
144
how to prevent doxorubicin cardio-toxicity
dexrezoxane
145
what lipid med can reduce warfarin effectiveness
cholestyramine
146
What drugs increase lithium toxicity
ACE-I Thiazides NSAID "ATN"
147
Class I antiarrhythmic affinity for sodium channel
C \> A \> B
148
Protein production in what organ increases in response to glucocorticoids
liver
149
Adding this to a statin increases risk of myopathy
fibrate
150
combination of what two lipid drugs most increases risk of gallstones
fibrate and bile acid sequestrant
151
etanercept mechanism
TNF-alpha decoy receptor
152
How to distinguish succinylcholine from other muscle relxants using train of 4
if all the bars are initially equal in height, it's succinylcholine
153
TB stops being acid fast after exposure to what drug
INH (stops mycolic acid synthesis)
154
Beta agonist smooth muscle signaling mechanism
cAMP
155
Never use what to treat alcohol withdrawal
carbamezapine
156
hypothyroidism is side effect of what psychiatric drug
lithium
157
stimulation of this pancreatic receptor decreases insulin secretion
alpha (everything else increases it)
158
electrophoresis of bug exposed to ceftriaxone in presence of beta-lactamase shows how many bands
0
159
atropine affects muscarinic, nicotinic or both
muscarinic
160
antidote for organophosphate poisoning
pralidoxime
161
Lung cell responsible for regeneration of alveolar epithelial lining after injury
Type II pneumocytes
162
p24 associated with what HIV gene
gag
163
DNA methylation responsible for what genetic phenomenon
imprinting
164
Do neural crest cells migrate to the rectum
yes
165
Last cell type to disappear in as airway progress distally along the respiratory tube 1. cilia 2. goblet cells 3. mucous glands 4. serous glands 5. cartilage
cilia
166
RPGN: which substance forms the crescent? A) IgE B) C4 C Fibrin D) Thyroglobulin E) Pyrogenic exotoxin B
Fibrin
167
Which of the following is stratified squamous? 1. paranasal sinuses 2. laryngeal vestibule 3. false vocal cords 4. true vocal cords 5. tracheal bifurcation
True vocal cords -- all the other are ciliated pseudostratified columnar
168
Tendency for study subjects to change behavior when they know they're being studied
Hawthorne effect
169
Enhancer location relative to transcribed gene
anywhere!
170
Acute rejection: mostly T or B cells
T
171
what structure connects osteocytes
gap junctions
172
CNS cells that lipid-stain most intensely after ischemic infarct
microglia (it's eating up the myelin)
173
parietal cells located in what layer of stomach
upper glandular layer
174
Faster conduction velocity: atria or ventricles
atria
175
Rathke's pouch derived from what embryonal cell line
surface ectoderm
176
radial head subluxation (Nursemaid's elbow) involves stress/tear of what ligament
annular ligament
177
Very long chain fatty acids metabolized in what organelle
peroxisome
178
Patient with ASD: which change is irreversible pulmonary HTN or RVH
pulmonary HTN
179
neutropenic patient with ecthyma gangrenosum has what infection
pseudomonas
180
poison ivy reaction mediated by what cell type
T cell (it's type IV hypersensitivity)
181
water deprivation test: discriminate between central DI and polydipsia
the osmolality will increase in polydipsia before the ADH is given
182
defective gene in ataxia telangiectasia and result
ATM -- defective DNA break repair
183
median nerve goes between what muscles before reaching the wrist
flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus
184
Croup most common cause
paraflu aka paramyxovirus
185
Where in the nephron does uric acid precipitate
collecting tubule (lowest pH)
186
Elastic property of elastin is due to what biochemical structural attribute
lysine cross-linking
187
Most important factor in preventing flu infection despite prolonged exposure to ill contacts
circulating antibodies against hemagglutinin
188
cell origin of melanocytes
neural crest
189
Name the virulence factor for each of these E Coli presentations: Bacteremia: Neonatal meningitis: Bloody gastro: Watery gastro: UTI:
Bacteremia: LPS Neonatal meningitis: K1 capsular polysaccharide Bloody gastro: Shiga-like toxin Watery gastro: Heat-stable/labile enterotoxin UTI: Fimbrial antigen
190
Most common cause of monosomy X
mitotic error causing loss of parental chromosome
191
DNA abnormality causing Fragile X
gene methylation
192
urine H2PO4 in DKA: elevated or depressed
elevated
193
Immune cells responsible for containing TB
CD4+ T lymphocytes and macrophages
194
end product of sorbitol metabolism in healthy individuals
fructose
195
RF is IgM antibody specific for what
Fc portion of IgG
196
Crohn's pt rx w/ infliximab develops joint pains, skin rash, vasculitis ten days after starting med. What's the dx?
serum sickness w/ associated low complement levels
197
Calories per gram of carbs: protein: EtOH: fat:
carbs: 4 protein: 4 EtOH: 7 fat: 9
198
absorption or excretion of bilirubin uses active transport?
excretion
199
Candida antigen test evaluates T or B cell function
T
200
Thyroid hormone receptors are located where (in/on the cell)
in the nucleus
201
what leukocyte predominates in sarcoid
CD4+ T helper cells
202
How does DDAVP stop bleeding: vasoconstriction or increase in endothelial protein release?
increase in endothelial protein release (likely von Willebrand disease)
203
old person with blurry vision and gray sub-retinal membrane What's the dx and tx
Wet macular degeneration Treat with anti-VEGF
204
What substance is required to trigger release of ACh from presynaptic terminal at NMJ
Calcium
205
Vitamin deficiency manifesting as failure to carboxylate glutamate residues in the liver
Vit K deficiency
206
5 yo boy w/ bilateral lens subluxation and multiple infarcts Dx and Tx?
Homocysteinuria Treat with pyridoxine
207
Which has lower oxygen concentration: PA or coronary sinus
coronary sinus
208
cytokine that mediates pus accumulation
IL-8 (responsible for neutrophil chemotaxis)
209
Nitrous oxide is derivative of what amino acid
arginine
210
pantothenic acid is fancy name for what
CoA
211
Anti-convulsant also used in tremor. May lead to elevated phenobarbital levels
primidone
212
Middle meningeal artery is branch of what artery
maxillary
213
Cause of wrinkles in normal aging
decreased collagen fibril production
214
How does silicosis predispose to TB infection
impaired macrophage killing
215
What phases of SA and AV node depolarization involve calcium
Mostly phase 0 but also phase 4 (which is mostly about sodium)
216
mifepristone mechanism
anti-progestin
217
morphine effect on ion channels
increases K efflux --\> hyperpolarization
218
tx for acute intermittent porphyria results in downregulation of what enzyme
delta-aminolevulinate synthase
219
Large cell in TB What's the name and what causes it to form
Langhans giant cell formed by CD4+ Th1 cells
220
Where is rRNA produced
nucleolus
221
rubella caused by what virus
togavirus
222
Order DNA base excision repair start to finish ligase, glycosylase, endonuclease, DNA polymerase, lyase
glycosylaste endonuclease lyase DNA polymerase ligase
223
how does glucose down-regulate lac operon
decreased cAMP --\> CAP does not bind the operon
224
Oral vaccine more likely to elicit this class and location of antibody
IgA in the gut
225
eosinophil response to parasites: antibody mediated or not?
antibody mediated
226
Mono-like illness with negative monospot
CMV
227
Can prevent tumor lysis syndrome: probenecid or rasburicase
rasburicase -- probenecid is contraindicated in patients at risk of nephrolithiasis or uric acid nephropathy
228
hyperaldosteronism: bicarb is high or low
high -- aldosterone increases acid secretion which results in increased bicarb resorption (OR, just know the patient is hypoK which almost always implies met alk)
229
Blood type antibody class (e.g. anti-A) by maternal blood type Mom is type A: Mom is type B Mom is type O:
Mom is type A: IgM Mom is type B: IgM Mom is type O: IgG
230
What causes insulin resistance: high LDL or high free fatty acids
high free fatty acids
231
Function and location in ribosomes: 16S rRNA: 23S rRNA:
16S rRNA: complementary to mRNA, located in 30S subunit 23S rRNA: facilitates peptide bond formation, located in 50S subunit
232
acyclovir mechanism
incorporates into viral DNA and terminate DNA synthesis
233
Atypical lymphs in mono: B or T? CD?
CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes
234
anemia, hypercoagulability, pancytopenia suggests what? CD\_ and CD\_ will be deficient
PNH 2/2 complement activation CD55 and CD59 deficient
235
High fructose 2,6-bisphosphate: favors glycolysis or gluconeogenesis
glycolysis
236
The following tissue types have glucose transporters that are insulin-sensitive: What's the name of the glucose transporter:
skeletal muscle and adipocytes contain GLUT4
237
Which luekocyte prevents disseminated candidiasis
neutrophils
238
punch biopsy stellar cells with characteristic intracytoplasmic granules shaped like tennis racket demonstrate some myeloid surface markers and interact closely with T lymphocytes
langerhans cells
239
entacapone and tolcapone mechanism
COMT inhibitors prevent peripheral conversion of DA, increasing the quantity that reaches the brain
240
vWF binds what two substances
platelet glycoproteins and subendothelial collagen
241
Cell lineage anterior pituitary: posterior pituitary:
anterior pituitary: oral ectoderm (Rathke's pouch) posterior pituitary: neuroectoderm
242
2 nitrate side effects
HA and flushing
243
Why is chlamydia is resistant to beta lactams
cell wall doesn't contain peptidoglycan
244
Etoposide targets topoisomerase I or II
II
245
TB drug requiring acidic environment
pyrazinamide
246
Rb gene functions properly when hypo- or hyperphosphorylated
hypo-
247
Distinguish T-cell and B-cell ALL based on clinical presentation
mediastinal mass = T cell
248
radiation kills cancer cells how?
double strand breaks in DNA
249
Stool sample finding suggestive of strongyloides stercoralis
rhabditiform larvae in stool
250
Mature B lymphs exposed to a virus gain the ability to propogate indefinitely in vitro and still secrete immunoglobulins. What's the virus
EBV
251
Most effective at prolonging time to HSV-2 recurrence: short or lifelong acyclovir
LIFELONG
252
Young woman with headaches complains of lump in throat. PE and workup unrevealing
globus hystericus
253
DNA fragmentation into multiples of 180 bases on electropheresis
apoptosis
254
Genetic disease present in offspring but not in parents or relatives
germline mosaicism
255
structure most likely to be injured in A/P knee dislocation
popliteal artery
256
bacteria in endometritis
b frag
257
Reflection vs facilitation
reflection paraphrases what's been said. facilitation encourages continued discussion
258
splenectomy in hereditary spherocytosis prevents what complication
gallstones
259
chemical modification to carboxy-terminal anchor of transmembrane protein
palmitoylation
260
Impact of nitrates on HR and LV end systolic volume
HR increases LVESV decreases
261
function of CFTR in sweat glands and respiratory epithelium
sweat: reabsorb NaCl respiratory: secrete Cl
262
Defn of allelic heterogeneity
different mutations on same locus cause similar presentation classic example: Duchenne and Becker multiple dystrophy
263
prohormone peptide molecule has signal sequence with hydrophobic core. large deletion of the core would result in protein accumulation where
cytosol
264
increased branch-chain alpha-keto acids in blood and urine. what enzyme is deficient and what cofactor does it depend on
maple syrup urine disease: alpha keto acid dehydrogenase requires thiamine
265
abnormal testosterone concentration in seminiferous tubules and epididymis but normal T in rest of body. what structure is messed up
sertoli cells (not leydig)
266
messenger system for glucagon in hepatocytes
Gs and cAMP
267
axillary sweating: cervical or thoracic sympathetic ganglia
thoracic
268
red safranin O stains what
cartilage, mast cells and mucin
269
what connects to the gubernaculum in females
round ligament
270
platelet activating factor effects and messenger system
primary effect: platelet aggregation toxicities: bronchoconstriction, vasoconstriction, thrombi messenger system: Gq / IP3
271
osteogenesis imperfecta decreases synthesis of what
collagen
272
how does lactulose treat hepatic encephalopathy
acidifies intestinal contents by converting NH3 to NH4+
273
bone abnormality in Vit D deficiency: spongy or osteoid
osteoid
274
What nerve fibers are unmyelinated
autonomic postganglionic axons afferent sensory heat and slow-onset pain
275
What HLA II component is digested during antigen presentation
invariant chain
276
pleiotropy vs genetic heterogeneity
pleitropy: one gene has multiple effects genetic heterogeneity: multiple genes (at different loci) have the same effect
277
ergosterol: lipid or peptidoglycan
lipid
278
ATN affects cortex or medulla
medulla
279
Familial hypercholesterolemia: decreased LDL receptors or decreased lipoprotein lipase
decreased LDL
280
GI sx w/ spots around mouth
Peutz Jegher
281
Lithium: central or peripheral DI
peripheral
282
Adding amniotic fluid to ethanol and looking for foam is a test for what substance
surfactant
283
What characteristic of heparin makes it safer than warfarin in pregnancy
Higher water solubility
284
Main bacterial factor responsible for establishing gonococcal infxn
pilus
285
Mechanism by which viruses get transferred from animals to humans
genetic reassortment
286
Which is cause of Graves opthalmopathy: 1) neutrophil infiltration of retrobulbar tissue 2) glycosaminoglycan synthesis by fibroblasts
2)
287
Vitamin C deficiency can cause presentation similar to what genetic disorder
Ehlers Danlos
288
Nodules in liver cirrhosis are due to what cells proliferating
hepatocytes
289
50S methylation promotes resistance to macrolides or chloramphenicol
macrolides
290
What causes lactase deficiency
decreased gene expression
291
flat affect, hypersexuality, hyperphagia: what brain structure
amygdala
292
cyclosporin mechanism
block IL-2 transcription
293
What causes tardive dyskinesia: decreased dopamine sensitivity upregulation of DA receptors
upregulation of DA receptors: results in loss of cholinergic tone
294
What's increased in COPD: residual volume or expiratory reserve volume
residual volume
295
carbonic anhydrase is necessary for what function in bone
osteoclast activity -- needed for bone remodeling
296
eosinophilic round inclusion in hippocampal neurons painful pharyngeal spasms
rabies
297
Matching: Superior rectal vein/IMA and inferior rectal vein Liver mets and lung mets
Liver mets: IMA Lung mets: inferior rectal vein
298
phosphorylation of PFK2-FBPase promotes glycolysis or gluconeogenesis
gluconeogenesis (phosphorylation caused by glucagon)
299
Insulin upregulates or downregulates PFK2
upregulates (promoting glycolysis)
300
Giardia vs E hystolytica on microscopy
both have trophozoites but in E hysto they contain RBCs
301
Solid onc patient found to have nephrotic syndrome. whats the cause
membranous GN
302
site of APO B100 and APO B48 synthesis
100: hepatocytes 48: intestinal cells
303
Methylmalonic acidemia occurs when what reaction type is deficient
isomerization
304
Defective enzyme in maple syrup urine requires what substance as cofactor
thiamine (keto acid dehydrogenase rxn)
305
MCC of recurrent lobar hemorrhages
cerebral amyloid angiopathy
306
opsoclonus-myoclonus associated with what malignancy
neuroblastoma