Misc Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q
CT abdomen& pelvis is equal to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_CXR
A. 100
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 1500
A

500

Bone scan is 200 X-rays
Mammography is 4 X-rays

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2
Q

Air which can be detected on cxr

A

10-20mL

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3
Q
Doesnot stain mucin?
A. PAS
B. Diastase PAS
C alcian blue
D. Alizarin s stain
A

D

PAS stains glycogen and mucin, fungi
D-PAS - diastase - stains mucin
Pearls Prussian blue - iron (hemochromatosis)
Reticulin stain - fibrosis
Von Geison - collagen
Congo red - amyloid
Elastic stains - also show blood vessels and fibrosis

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4
Q

First line maintenance therapy in pts of crohn’s disease who are steroid dependent

  1. anti tnf agents
  2. methotrexate
  3. thiopurines
  4. cyclosporine
A

Thiopurine

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5
Q

Waterston shunt is connection between

a) Descending aorta to Right pulmonary artery
b) Left subclavian to PA
c) Ascending aorta to pulmonary artery

A

Waterston - ascending to right PA
Pott- descending aorta to right pulmonary
blalock - lt subclavian to right pa

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6
Q

Mustard operation for TGA

a) Arterial switch
b) Atrial switch with native atrial tissue
c) Atrial switch with pericardial baffle

A

Mustard - pericardial baffle atrial switch

Senning - atrial switch with native tissue

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7
Q
Origin of the right pulmonary artery from the aorta – which type of aorto-pulmonary 
window
a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV
A

Type III

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8
Q

Earliest symptom of Aortic stenosis

a) Syncope
b) Exertional dyspnoea
c) Angina
d) palpitation

A

Exertional dyspnea

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9
Q

Zone of neck involving great vessels at thoracic inlet

a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV

A

Zone I

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10
Q

Proximal margin for small bowel adenoca?

A

5cm

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11
Q

Worm associated with appendicitis?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

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12
Q

What is the likely cecal diameter for perforation?

A

Sabi 12

Bailey 14cm

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13
Q

Shock which is associated with acquired adrenal insufficiency

a) Cardiogenic
b) Septic
c) Neuorgenic
d) Hypovolemic

A

Septic

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14
Q
Highest risk of CDC is for
A. Penicillin 
B. Ciproflox
C. Carbapenems
D. Linezolid
A

Ciprofloxacin

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15
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for laparoscopic splenectomy

  1. Height more than 22 cm
  2. Width more than 19 cm
  3. Weight more than 1600g
    4 all of the above
A

All of the above

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16
Q

Which of the following is not a contraindication for laparoscopic splenectomy

  1. Portal hypertension
  2. Trauma
  3. Pregnancy with refractory thrombocytopenia
  4. Malignancy
A

Malignancy

For malignancy laparoscopic splenectomy is better than open

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17
Q

What percentage of spleen must be preserved in partial splenectomy

  1. 15%
  2. 25%
  3. 40%
  4. 50%
A

Answer 25%

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18
Q

Most common primary malignancy of spleen

  1. Hodgkin
  2. NHL
  3. CLL
  4. Adenoca
A

NHL

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19
Q

What % of NHL have splenic involvement

  1. 20-30%
  2. 30-40%
  3. 40-50%
  4. More than 50%
A

50-80% NHL Patients have splenic involvement

20
Q

Indications of splenectomy in NHL

  1. Diagnosis and staging of isolated splenic disease
  2. Massive splenomegaly
  3. Neutropenia, thrombocytopenia and anemia
  4. All of the above
A

All of the above

21
Q

Passaro triangle associated with ?

A. Landmark of Cisterna Chyli
B. Junction of SVC and Azygous vein
C. Warren Shunt
D. Gastrinoma

A

Ans D -

the tumors are most commonly found in the gastrinoma triangle (Passaro) defined by the junction of the cystic duct and CBD, junction of D2 and D3 and the junction of pancreatic neck and body.

22
Q
Rockall score is used for ? 
A. Pediatric renal failure
B. Risk of rebleed after hematemesis
C. Facial Bone fractures 
D. Bladder injury
A

Ans B -

A number of scoring systems have been advocated for the assessment of rebleeding and death after UGI hemmorrhage. Perhaps the most useful of these is the Rockall score. This can be used in a pre-endoscopy format to stratify patients to safe and early discharge.

23
Q

Infant head constitutes ___% of BSA ?

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%

A

Ans C - 20%

Infant’s head constitutes 20% of the BSA as compared to the 9% in adults.

24
Q

Which of the following secretions have the lowest sodium content?

A. Gastric juices
B. Bile
C. Succus Entericus
D. Saliva

A

Ans D - Saliva

Composition of GI secretions (Bailey) in mmol/L
Saliva - Na 10; K 25; Cl 10; Bicarb 30
Stomach - Na 50; K 15; Cl 110; Bicarb -
Duodenum - Na 140; K 5; Cl 100; Bicarb -
Ileum - Na 140; K 5; Cl 100; Bicarb 30
Pancreas Na 140; K 5; Cl 75; Bicarb 115
Bile - Na 140; K 5; Cl 100; Bicarb 35.

25
Five R of radiotherapy does not include ? A. Repair B. Reoxygenation C. Repopulation D. Regression
Ans D Repair - given sufficient time between fractions the cells will repair the radiation induced damage. Repair half times are 3-6 hours. Fractionation offers a means to exploit the differences in repair capacity b/w tumor cells and normal cells. Reoxygenation - hypoxic cells are relatively radioresistant. Tumors are often hyoxic, thus it is a therapeutic disadvantage. Problem can be mitigated if a sequence of daily treatment is used. As more cells die, the hypoxia of remaining tumor cells decreases, making them more susceptible. Repopulation - As radiotherapy kills cancer cells within a tumor, it may provide a stimulus for rapid proliferation of tumor cells. Thus if the duration of treatment is prolonged the production of cells by the tumor may be equal or even more than radiation induced cell loss. Thus duration of the treatment should be kept as small as possible. Redistribution - Susceptibility of a cell to radiation depends on the phase of cell cycle it is in. This may lead to a degree of synchronisation in the tumor. Ideally the fractions of radiotherapy would be timed to co-incide with vulnerable phases of cell cycle (Late G2 and M) Radiosensitivity - Cells derived from tumor differ in their intrinsic sensitivity of radiation. They may be so intrinsically resistant that no viable schedule of radiotherapy would be able to eliminate them. Conversely some cells may be so sensitive that virtually any schedule would be successful.
26
Which of the following congenital malformations has the highest incidence ? A. Hypospadias B. Congenital heart disease C. TEF D. Hirschsprung disease
Ans - B Congenital heart disease ``` Congenital Diaphragmatic hernia 1:3000 TEF 1:3500 Congenital heart disease 1:150 Gastroschisis 1:7500 Hirschsprung disease 1:5000 Anorectal malformation 1:4000-5000 Biliary atresia 1:17000 Choledochal cyst 1:50000 Hypospadias 1:300 PUJ dysfunction 1:1000 ```
27
All of the following disease is extra-intestinal manifestation of Crohn's disease not related to disease activity except? ``` A. Primary sclerosing Cholangitis B. Gallstones C. Renal Calculi D. Chronic active hepatitis E. Amyloidosis ```
Ans E - ``` Related to disease activity - Erythema nodosum Pyoderma gangrenosum Arthropathy Eye complications Apthous ulcers Amyloidosis ``` ``` Unrelated to disease activity PSC Gallstones and Renal stones Chronic active hepatitis Sacroilitis ```
28
which artery is responsible for the engorgement of glans during erection ? A. Dorsal B. Bulbouretheral C. Cavernous D. Circumflex
Ans A - Dorsal artery is responsible for engorgement of the glans during erection. Campbell.
29
Leiomyoma of kidney most commonly develops from ? A. Renal veins B. Renal Pelvis C. Renal Capsule D. Renal Parenchyma
Ans C - | In the kidney most of these tumors commonly arise from the renal capsule.
30
Fecal incontinence is defined as recurrent uncontrolled passage of fecale material in A. individual with developmental age more than 5 years for more than 1 month B. Individual with developmental age more than 4 years for more than 7 days C. individual with developmental age more than 5 years for more than 3 months D. Individual with developmental age more than 4 years for more than 1 month.
Ans D - recurrent uncontrolled passage of fecal matter in an individual with developmental age more than 4 years, for more than 1 month.
31
Cut-off value of venous lactate above which Damage control surgery is indicated - A. 2 mmol/L B. 3 mmol/L C. 5 mmol/L D. 8 mmol/L
ans C <2 mmol/L - early total care 2-3 mmol/L - look at the trend - increasing or decreasing. >3 mmol/L - may be under-resuscitated. Should either have further resuscitation or damage control surgery if surgery is urgent. >5 mmol/L - Damage control surgery. Bailey 27e
32
which of the following is not a covert injury in lap belt or flexion distraction injuries? A. Chance fracture of the lumbar spine B. Duodenal rupture C. Popliteal artery disruption D. Cervical spine fracture
Ans A - Obvious features - Chance fracture of the lumbar spine, Dislocated Knee, Head injury. Covert injuries - Duodenal rupture, popliteal artery disruption, cervical spine fracture.
33
Posterior dislocation of shoulder can be a covert injury in A. Electric shock B. Left sided impact from RSA C. Dashboard impact D. Flexion distraction
Ans A - Posterior dislocation of shoulder may be seen as a covert injury in electric shock. Left sided impact from road traffic accident can have splenic injury and EDH as covert injuries whereas lateral pelvic compression and left sided pneumothorax are obvious injuries. Posterior dislocation of the hip can be covert injury in the dash board impact. Bailey 27e
34
all of the following are landmarks used to identify facial nerve except - A. Inferior portion of cartilaginous canal B. upper border of posterior belly of digastric C. Petrotympanic fissure D. Styloid process and mastoid process proximally
Ans C - Inferior portion of the cartilaginous canal is termed as Conley's pointer or Tragal pointer. Indicates position of the facial nerve which lies 1cm deep and inferior to its tip. Upper border of the posterior belly of digastric. Identification of this muscle not only helps to mobilize the parotid gland, but also exposes an area immediately superior in which the facial nerve is located. sqaumotympanic fissure, styloid process (nerve is superficial to it) and mastoid process (can be drilled to identify the nerve) are other landmarks. Bailey 27e
35
What is the average life span of paneth cells? 1. 7 days 2. 14 days 3. 20 days 4. 28 days
Ans 3. 20 days
36
All of the following are true regarding spigelian hernia except 1. Incidence is 0.1-2% 2. Most of them are congenital 3. Equal gender distribution 4. Most often seen in 6th-7th decade
Ans -2 | Nearly 50% of the spigelian hernia are acquired.
37
Which of the following is true regarding spigelian hernia 1. Fascial defect covered by internal oblique 2. Repair done using longitudinal incision 3. Pain is the most common initial symptom 4. Rate of incarceration is 60%, therefore elective repair recommended
Answer - c - pain is the most common initial complaint - fascial defect is covered by external oblique aponeurosis - repair is done using transverse incision - incarceration rate is 20-30% and therefore elective repair is recommended upon diagnosis
38
Which of the following is the most common histological subtype of stromal Tumors 1. Epitheloid 2. Fusiform 3. Mixed 4. Equal in distribution
Ans B fusiform is the most common (77%)
39
Which of the following is not expressed by stromal tumors 1. CD117 2. CD34 3. Actin 4. Desmin 5. S100 6. Vimentin
Ans 6. Vimentin Cd117 - expresses by >95%, c-kit CD34 - human progenitor cell antigen - 70-90% Actin - 20-30% S100 and desmin - 2-4%
40
Which of the following is true regarding stromal tumors 1. Most commonly found in jejunum and ileum 2. Malignant GIST are 3-4 times more common than Benign 3. More common in women 4. Most common in fifth decade
Ans D Most common location is stomach (60%), followed by jejunum and ileum (30%) Benign stromal tumors are 3-4 times more common than malignant Distribution is equal among men and women Most commonly seen in fifth decade
41
An increased risk of local recurrence is implied by a mitotic index greater than 1. 2 mitosis per 50 hpf 2. 5 mitosis per 50 hpf 3. 15 mitosis per 50 hpf. 4. 20 mitosis per 50 hpf
Even mitotic counts higher than 2 per 50 hpf imply and increased risk of local recurrence Although low mitotic index is defined as <5 per 50 hpf, where as high mitotic index is >5 per 50 hpf
42
Which of the following is the most common indication for surgery in benign stromal tumors 1. Local invasiveness 2. Obstruction 3. Pain 4. Bleeding
Ans 4. Bleeding is the most common indication of surgery in benign stromal tumors
43
True regarding congenital venous anomalies 1. Aplasia is most common in femoral veins 2. May Thurner syndrome is associated with membranous occlusion of right common iliac vein 3. Duplication of ivc, femoral vein and renal vein is quite common 4. All of the above
Ans C Aplasia is most common in ivc May Thurner syndrome is membranous occlusion of left common iliac vein. Often develops where the vein travels behind the right common iliac artery (iliac vein compression syndrome) Duplications are quite common
44
Most common gynaecological malignancy is - A. Uterine B. Ovarian C. Vaginal D. Vulval
Ans A - Endometrial cancer is the most common gynaecological malignancy. Also the 4th most common cancer among women. Devita 1048.
45
Collagenous colitis - false statement A. Affects women older than 50 years B. Presents with profuse watery diarrhea C. There is loss of normal vessel pattern secondary to edema in mucosa D. There is marked subepithelial basement membrane thickening
Ans Collagenous colitis is a condition that generally occurs in women older than 50 years of age. Typical presentation is profuse watery diarrhea. There is marked thickening of the colonic sub-epithelial basement membrane. The mucosa appears normal in most patients, and the diagnosis is made by endoscopic biopsy. Treatment of collagenous colitis is medical. Sabiston 20e 1342.
46
Lymphangioma less than 5cm is known as - A. Lymphedema ab igne B. Lymphangioma diffusum C. Lymphangioma circumscriptum D. None of the above
Ans C If lymphangiomas are less than 5cm in size they are named lymphangioma circumscriptum, and if they are more widespread they are termed as lymphangioma diffusum. If they have a reticulate pattern of ridges then they are termed as Lymphedema ab igne Bailey 999.