Misc Quiz Questions Flashcards

(113 cards)

1
Q

What is a significant aspect of human resource management?

A

People’s emotions

This includes understanding one’s own emotions and the emotions of others.

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2
Q

What does EQ stand for?

A

Emotional Intelligence

EQ is considered equally important as IQ in life success.

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3
Q

What are the five levels of competence in emotional intelligence?

A

The following 5 levels:
* Self-Awareness
* Self-Control
* Self-Motivation
* Empathy
* Effective Management of relationships

These levels focus on personal improvement in emotional skills.

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4
Q

True or False: IQ is the only predictor of achievement according to Goleman.

A

False

Goleman suggests that emotional skills (EQ) are also crucial for success.

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5
Q

Fill in the blank: Learning to manage emotions is an important element in managing _______.

A

employee development

This involves both understanding and teaching emotional management.

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6
Q

What is self-awareness in emotional intelligence?

A

Understanding one’s own emotions

It is the first level of competence in emotional intelligence.

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7
Q

What does self-control refer to in the context of emotional intelligence?

A

The ability to manage one’s emotions

It is the second level of competence.

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8
Q

What is self-motivation in emotional intelligence?

A

The drive to improve and achieve goals

It is the third level of competence.

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9
Q

Define empathy in the context of emotional intelligence.

A

The ability to understand and share the feelings of others

This is the fourth level of competence.

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10
Q

What is meant by effective management of relationships in emotional intelligence?

A

The ability to build and maintain healthy relationships

This is the fifth level of competence.

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11
Q

What are the 12 Cs for team building?

A
  1. Clear Expectations
  2. Context
  3. Commitment
  4. Competence
  5. Charter
  6. Control
  7. Collaboration
  8. Communication
  9. Creative Innovation
  10. Consequences
  11. Coordination
  12. Cultural Change

These elements are essential for effective team building and collaboration.

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12
Q

What are the three elements that must exist for intrinsic motivation to occur?

A

Mastery, Autonomy, Purpose

These elements are essential according to David Pink.

Blackwell’s page 100

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13
Q

How does David Pink define motivation?

A

The desire to do things because they matter.

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14
Q

What is an important factor in determining the responsibilities of a veterinary practice under various acts and regulations?

A

Whether an individual is classified as an employee or an independent contractor.

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15
Q

Since 1987 the IRS has used 20 common law factors test, which are groups into three categories. What are those three categories?

A

Behavioral control

Financial control

Relationship between the parties.

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16
Q

What are the four common law factors indicating an independent contractor relationship?

A
  • Investment
  • Profit and Loss
  • Number of clients
  • Service offerings
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17
Q

What are the two common calculations for identifying a practice’s ‘trade area’?

A

Radius Rings and Drive Times.

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18
Q

Which calculation is considered the best for identifying a practice’s ‘trade area’?

A

Drive Times.

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19
Q

Define the CRAFT formula for compliance.

A

C = R + A + FT

C = Compliance Standards,
R = Recommendation,
A = Acceptance,
FT = Follow-through.

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20
Q

What does the C in the CRAFT formula represent?

A

Compliance Standards

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21
Q

What does the R in the CRAFT formula represent?

A

Recommendation

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22
Q

What does the A in the CRAFT formula represent?

A

Acceptance

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23
Q

What does the FT in the CRAFT formula represent?

A

Follow-through

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24
Q

What study showed that most veterinarians overestimate client compliance?

A

The AAHA Compliance Study The Path to High Quality Care

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25
What is a Bailment?
A delivery of something of a personal nature by one party to another to be held according to the purpose of the delivery and to be returned or delivered when the purpose is accomplished
26
When a veterinarian accepts custody of client's pet, which party is the Bailor and which is the Bailee
Bailor is the client and the veterinarian is the Bailee
27
What are the two essential elements for the creation of a bailment?
* Physical delivery of the property from the Bailor to the Ballee * Knowing acceptance of possession of the property by the Bailee
28
What is the primary duty of the Bailee in a veterinary example?
To return the animal in at least as good condition as it was when it was received.
29
Can a bailment be oral as opposed to written?
Yes
30
Whenever a veterinarian assumes custody of the client's animal, a bailment takes place. true or false
True
31
What is an example of a bailment?
A written boarding agreement
32
The aha compliant study, the path of high-quality care, show that most veterinarians overestimate client compliance by at least ______, and that the level of care they provide their patience is not as high as they thought it was
25%
33
What is negligence defined as?
The doing of some act that a person of ordinary prudence would not have done under the same or similar circumstances or the failure to do what a person of ordinary prudence would have done under the same or similar circumstances.
34
What type of legal actions are veterinarians most likely to incur liability from?
The law of negligence.
35
What is the law of malpractice an extension of?
The law of negligence.
36
What are the four essential elements required to prove negligence?
* Establishing that the defendant had a duty to prevent an injury * Establishing that the defendant violated that duty by failing to act in accordance with the standard of care expected of other Dvm's under the same circumstances * Showing a reasonably close causal connection between the defendant's conduct and the injury * Proving that actual damage or harm occurred
37
What is the doctrine that shows a causal connection exists between the Dvm's conduct or lack of conduct and the resulting injury in negligence?
Doctrine of proximate cause.
38
What is the underlying principle of federal and state anti-trust legislation?
To ensure economic freedom for competitors and consumers.
39
When was the Sherman Antitrust Act enacted?
1890.
40
What is the goal of the Sherman Antitrust Act?
To guarantee the freedom to compete.
41
Who is responsible for the interpretation and application of the competitive objectives of the anti-trust laws?
The courts, the Department of Justice, and the Federal Trade Commission.
42
What are the two rules the courts use regarding Antitrust Laws?
* The Per Se Rule * The Rule of Reason.
43
What must be proven to be in violation of the Sherman Antitrust Act?
There must be proof of a contract, combination, or conspiracy that restrains interstate trade or commerce. ## Footnote This includes local activities that affect interstate commerce.
44
Can two local veterinary practices be found guilty under the Sherman Antitrust Act if they conspired to set fees?
Yes, they could still be found guilty even if the activity is purely local but affects interstate commerce. ## Footnote Refer to the Oklahoma case in Law and Ethics.
45
What is a key strategy in creating an efficient and profitable inventory system?
Maximizing inventory turnover. ## Footnote Effective turnover rates can lead to various positive outcomes.
46
List four results from having effective turnover rates.
* Practice profitability increases * Decreased expired product * Decrease shrinkage * Lower holding and ordering costs ## Footnote These results contribute to overall business efficiency.
47
Fill in the blank: Maximizing _______ turnover is a key strategy in inventory management.
[inventory]
48
What is the legal theory that supports the requirement for owners to pay for services rendered to their pets in medical emergencies?
The Law of Unjust Enrichment ## Footnote Under this theory, it would be wrong and against public policy for defendants to retain any benefit from the treatment without consent.
49
What are the four steps of drug intervention?
Time the intervention for when the addict is not impaired, Be specific State consequences Listen.
50
True or False: The Law of Professional Provision requires payment for services rendered without owner consent.
False ## Footnote The correct legal theory in this context is the Law of Unjust Enrichment.
51
Fill in the blank: The legal theory that requires repayment for services rendered despite lack of consent is called _______.
The Law of Unjust Enrichment
52
What should team members do if they suspect a co-worker has problems with drugs or alcohol?
Get involved Intervention is the first step.
53
What is the first step in addressing a suspected addiction problem among team members?
Intervention ## Footnote Professional treatment is the second both steps are necessary 
54
List one important aspect of timing during a drug intervention.
* Time the intervention for when the addict is not impaired ## Footnote This helps ensure that the individual can fully engage in the conversation.
55
What is another name for the hazard chemical standard?(HCS)
Right to know law It is a regulation design to ensure that workers exposed to chemicals are adequately informed of the dangers of their jobs and what precautions they must take to protect themselves prior to exposure
56
Who is often responsible for refusing unjustified unemployment claims 
The manager This is why it's important to maintain excellent employee records
57
How frequently should staff meetings be held?
On a regular basis Staff meeting should be held regularly, approximately once a month or once a quarter, depending on hospital size. Larger hospital to have more departmental meetings than general interest meetings.
58
True or false. Under malpractice law, the duty place on the veterinarian to practice medicine in a manner that meets expected professional standards. And malpractice case is the omission of a medically indicated diagnostic procedure or treatment maybe just a serious as an act of commission in regards to violation of duty.
True
59
For essential elements that require proof for the law of negligence
Establishing the Dvm had a duty to prevent injury Establishing the duty was violated There was reasonable causation between the Dvm's conduct and the resulting injury  proof that actual damages occurred
60
Radiography dentistry and lab diagnostics are all an example of what kind of income
Passive income
61
_______ income is described as income generated directly by veterinarians. _______ income is that which can be generated by a veterinary practice without the direct involvement of the veterinarian.
Active Passive
62
Employee income taxes, as well as the employee and employer portions of FICA, are paid to the IRS through______
A federal tax deposit system (FTD)
63
What is the economic order quantity mathematical model?
It finds the optimum order quantity by determining the point at which inventory ordering, and holding costs are minimized Beneficial when ordering regularly products 
64
Sending a copy of the pets lab results to the owner is a form of________ marketing
Internal marketing
65
The key and business continuity for veterinary practice is having a well conceived, fully communicated business contingency plan, which addresses which four areas
Mitigation Preparation Response Recovery
66
Employer should maintain five essentially separate recordkeeping systems related to its employees. What are they?
Personnel files Medical record files Equal employment, opportunity data I-9 records Payroll and benefits data
67
Which employee file would the W-4 form be included in?
Personnel file
68
When determining the rules for sick leave factors to count for include
How long a person must be employed before receiving paid sickleave Accrual rate Whether the practice will allow it to accrue year to year And whether it's paid upon termination or resignation
69
Which focus area should be included in written standards of care for the internal hospital image
Merchandising, sterility, cleanliness, and function
70
Who owns the patient medical record?
The attending medical professionals or the hospital in which they are employed or practicing Not the client
71
Which act passed by Congress regarding extra label drug use that was aimed to alleviate some of the barriers of veterinarians faced when they prescribe human drugs for patients, and when they must use a drug that was not approved for a particular species of patient
The animal medical drug clarification act
72
This act made it legal to prescribe a human drug, such as insulin, for a veterinary patient. It also made it acceptable to use a veterinary specific drug on a species of animal, for which it has not been approved by the FDA when no other veterinary drug for the same condition is available.
The animal medical drug clarification act
73
Individual development plans are documents created by
The employee with input of their managers These help define specific goals to which the employee would like to strive for or over a period of time typically one year
74
When expenses are stated as a percentage of gross revenue, it is called what
Common sizing
75
Stating expenses as a percentage of revenue allows for
Consistent measurement of experience for the current year in previous years
76
When expenses are stated as a percent of gross or net revenue or net collections, depending on the accounting basis used
Common sizing
77
Inventory turnover ratio formula
Total number of purchases divided by average inventory value on hand (DMSP)/AI
78
How to calculate average inventory on hand
Beginning inventory plus ending inventory divided by two (BI+EI)/2
79
What is an acceptable number of terms per year for inventory turnover ratio
Both six through 10 and 8 to 12 have been cited Your goal should be 8 to 12 terms per year, depending on the product 10 to 12 would be your highly selling products
80
In general, the__________ the turnover ratio for a given period of time the tighter the inventory control
Higher 
81
Average shelflife of inventory in days
365 divided by inventory turnover ratio 
82
The difference between the cost of a product and the revenue it generates is called what
Gross profit margin
83
Which expenses are more controllable, direct or indirect
Direct expenses are usually more controllable because they relate directly to specific income production
84
An organization's debts or other obligations, which must be discharged within a short time, usually within the earning cycle, or one year, are what
Current liabilities
85
As a general rule, it is good business practice to keep_________ days worth of cash on hand to ensure liquid liquidity issues do not
 20 to 30 days 
86
Days cash on hand formula
Cash/(annual operating expenses/260) 260 is the estimated per working days days. The practice is actually operating.
87
In regards to changing organizational culture, there are five key steps in making a cultural change with any practice. What are they?
Define the culture Align behaviors with desired culture Commit to change Support the shift Grow the team
88
Of the five key steps in making a cultural change which step states that the bottom line is that if a leader wants to create a different culture, the leader has to go first
Commit to change
89
When accepting personal checks for payment, what are six elements of a good check acceptance policy
Adequate identification Payers address Payers account Written for the amount owed Written from an established account Pre-authorization by a check verification service
90
What's represents the determination of financial statement, entry relationships, and the fractional structure that results provides a concise reference for performance they are generally used to assess aspects of profitability, solvency, and liquidity
Ratios
91
Common sizing is also known as
Rightsizing
92
_______ is considered preferable profit for the owner
20 to 30%
93
What is the first alternative to a lawsuit for settling a dispute?
Negotiation: A conversation between the involved parties with or without legal counsel. ## Footnote Negotiation allows parties to discuss issues directly and seek a mutually agreeable solution.
94
What is mediation in the context of dispute resolution?
Mediation: The use of an intermediary who is a neutral party and in whom both sides have confidence. The parties are not required to accept the mediator's findings. ## Footnote Mediation focuses on facilitating communication and finding common ground.
95
What distinguishes arbitration from mediation?
Arbitration: Similar to mediation except that the findings of the neutral arbitrator are generally binding on the parties. ## Footnote Arbitration results in a decision that both parties must adhere to, unlike mediation.
96
Fill in the blank: A conversation between the involved parties with or without legal counsel is called _______.
Negotiation
97
Fill in the blank: The use of an intermediary who is a neutral party in dispute resolution is known as _______.
Mediation
98
True or False: The findings of a mediator are always binding on the parties.
False
99
True or False: Arbitration provides a decision that is binding on both parties.
True
100
List the three alternatives to a lawsuit for settling a dispute.
* Negotiation * Mediation * Arbitration ## Footnote These alternatives provide different approaches to resolving conflicts outside of court.
101
When it comes to medical errors and the silencing of those errors, the AVMA and PLIT developed a model to facilitate discussion and full disclosure what is the model?
TEAM Truth-team-transparency Empathy Apology -accountability Management
102
What does TEAM stand for?
Truth-team-transparency Empathy Apology -accountability Management
103
Some examples of forgotten costs
Staff turnover Continuing education Credit card and merchant fees Pharmacy is not a forgotten
104
Average shelflife of inventory in days
Number of days in the period being measured divided by the inventory turnover ratio for that same. 
105
True or false when the frequency of order placement is high, the ordering costs are high, and the holding costs are low
True Conversely, when order frequency is low, the ordering costs are low and holding costs are high This is optimized by using the economic order quantity formula
106
Economic order, quantity formula
Square root of 2xAxF/HxUC  A is an annual demand in unit F is fixed ordering costs incurred per order H is holding costs expressed on an annual basis as a percentage of unit cost UC unit cost to purchase from vendor or supplier Most management software will do this for you 
107
______aka_______ refers to the interpretation by our court system of written laws as well as the interpretation of previous court decisions
Unwritten law, a.k.a. common law (legal interpretations) Even though it may appear that a particular action is not covered by a given statute, legal counsel must research the unwritten law or legal interpretations of all part of cases before providing a client with opinion
108
Examples of veterinary business practices that could fall under the rule of reason
Agreements by colleagues, a.k.a. competitors to close for a particular holiday and send all their cases to an emergency clinic Agreement to close on Saturday, Saturdays, or in the evening at a particular hour of the day Agreements between members of a professional association or group of non-affiliated practitioners to rotate emergency calls from one hospital to another and set the after hours emergency fee at a specified high cost
109
Per se legality is limited to those practices that like any redeeming virtue and have no purpose except to stifle competition for example
Agreements between competitors, who only purpose is Fixed prices, upward downward, or same Allocate territory or divine markets Limit production Boycott third parties ** Any association participating in the pricing of professional fees, even if it's purely advisory
110
developed to help determine whether a worker is an independent contractor or an employee under the common law rules. These factors assess the degree of control and independence in the working relationship.
The IRS 20-Factor Test from 1987 These factors are guidelines, not a checklist—no single factor is decisive, and the entire relationship must be considered.
111
IRS 20 factor test-----20 factors
Instructions Training Integration Services rendered personally Hiring supervising and paying assistants Continuing relationship Set hours of work Full-time work Work done on premises Order or sequence set Oral or written reports Payment by hour week or month Payment of business or travel expenses Furnishing tools or materials provided by business Significant investment Realization of profit and loss Working for more than one firm Making services available to the general public Right a discharge Right to terminate
112
of the 12 Cs for team building describe context
Do team members understand why they are participating on the team? Can team members define their teams importance to the goal? Does the team understand where it's work fits into the context of the organizational goals, principal vision and values
113
Of the 12 Cs for team building explain charter
Has the team taken? It's assigned the area of responsibility and designed its own mission vision and strategies to accomplish the mission. Has the team defined and communicated with goals it's an anticipated outcomes and contributions and how will measure Does leadership team or other coordinating group support with the team has designed?