Session 5-Law And Ethics Part 1 Flashcards
(209 cards)
1
Q
_______ define the schedule of the drug based on the likelihood of abuse and the________ create an enforces multiple regulations about exactly how each schedule drug must be handled
A
Controlled substances act
DEA
2
Q
What year was the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) established?
A
1973
3
Q
What is the primary responsibility of the DEA?
A
Combatting the abuse of controlled substances
4
Q
What does the Controlled Substance Act require from manufacturers, distributors, or dispensers of controlled substances?
A
Must register with the DEA
5
Q
Can veterinarians working at more than one location prescribe controlled drugs?
A
Yes, if registered at a principal place of business
6
Q
What classification must relief veterinarians have to administer or dispense controlled drugs?
A
Must be classified as an employee of a registrant or register at each facility
7
Q
Can non-veterinary staff legally prescribe any drug?
A
No
8
Q
Under what conditions can non-veterinary staff administer controlled drugs?
A
- They are agents or employees of the registered practitioner
- Performing the task in the usual course of business
- Acting under the direction of a licensed veterinarian
- Under the direct supervision of a licensed veterinarian
9
Q
Do state laws regarding the administration of controlled drugs by non-veterinary staff vary?
A
Yes
10
Q
Fill in the blank: The DEA provides interpretation of federal law, but _______ may vary.
A
state laws
11
Q
What does under direct supervision of a vet mean?
A
Veterinarian on premises
12
Q
What is the law’s stance on the administration of controlled drugs by Independent Contractors?
A
The law is less than clear on this topic.
13
Q
What should practitioners do if they have doubts about Independent Contractors being covered by the employee exemption?
A
Contact the appropriate DEA divisional office for interpretation.
14
Q
What is recommended if there is doubt regarding an independent contractor’s DEA coverage?
A
Require that the independent contractor veterinarians maintain a separate DEA registration.
15
Q
Why is it important for independent contractors to have a separate DEA registration?
A
It assures compliance with the Controlled Substances Act.
16
Q
How does maintaining a separate DEA registration support independent contractor status?
A
It helps to support the independent contractor status to the tax authorities.
17
Q
True or False: The relationship between independent contractors and the employer is always clear.
A
False.
18
Q
To order controlled substances from distributors the practitioners must
A
Be licensed in the state where they are practicing and have a valid DEA registration
19
Q
What program allows DEA practitioners to order all classes of controlled substances online?
A
CSOS program
CSOS stands for Controlled Substance Ordering System.
20
Q
What advantage does the CSOS program provide regarding ordering errors?
A
Reduces the number of ordering errors
21
Q
How does the CSOS program affect the accuracy of orders?
A
Increases the accuracy of orders
22
Q
What is one benefit of using the CSOS program related to paperwork?
A
Decreases paperwork
23
Q
List the five areas that must be focused on when managing Controlled Substances.
A
- Registration
- Security and Protection
- Record Keeping
- Reporting Losses
- Substance Disposal
24
Q
True or False: The CSOS program allows for just-in-time ordering.
A
True
25
What is required of employers when hiring new team members?
Employers must take reasonable guard, including:
* Background check
Random drug testing
* Drug test all new hires
26
What is meant by a Drug-Free Workplace?
An environment where drug use is prohibited and employees are subject to random drug testing
27
Where must controlled substances be stored?
In a substantially constructed, security locked cabinet or safe bolted to the wall unless over 750 pounds
28
How should Schedule II drugs be stored in relation to Schedule III, IV, or V drugs?
Schedule II drugs must be kept separately, either on a different shelf or in a box
29
What must a practitioner who dispenses or administers controlled substances keep?
Records of each transaction
## Footnote
This includes detailed records for all controlled substances dispensed or administered.
30
How must Schedule II drugs be stored in relation to patient medical records?
Recorded and stored separately
## Footnote
Schedule II drugs have stricter regulations due to their potential for abuse.
31
Where can records for Schedule III, IV, and V drugs be stored?
In the medical record or kept separately
## Footnote
Records must be stored to ensure they can be readily retrieved.
32
What is the common belief regarding the storage of records in the medical record for controlled substances?
They are not readily retrievable
## Footnote
Therefore, it is recommended to store them separately, especially for Schedule II drugs.
33
What is the minimum duration for which records must be kept after the date of use?
2 years
## Footnote
This is necessary for agency inspection purposes.
34
What must a veterinarian do when acquiring an existing practice?
Take an initial inventory of controlled substances
## Footnote
This is a regulatory requirement to ensure compliance with controlled substance regulations.
35
What documentation is required when transferring drugs?
An invoice prepared by the transferring practitioner, dated and signed by both the transferor and receiver
## Footnote
The invoice should indicate whether the count was taken at the beginning or close of the day.
36
What is required for the count of all Schedule II substances?
An exact count is required
## Footnote
This is a stricter requirement compared to other schedules.
37
What type of counts are permitted for Schedules III, IV, & V?
Estimated counts are permitted unless the container holds more than 1000 tablets or capsules
## Footnote
In such cases, an exact count is needed.
38
How long must records of controlled substances be maintained?
Records must be maintained for 2 years
## Footnote
This includes all receipts from distributors.
39
How often must a registrant take new inventory of all controlled drugs?
Every two years following the initial inventory date
## Footnote
This ensures ongoing compliance with regulations.
40
What is the requirement for registrants in case of theft or loss of controlled drugs?
Registrants must notify the regional office of the DEA verbally immediately and in writing using a DEA form 106 within 15 days.
## Footnote
This includes notifying the local police department and possibly the State Board of Pharmacy.
41
What form is used to report theft or loss of controlled drugs?
DEA form 106
## Footnote
This form is required for both verbal and written notification to the DEA.
42
In addition to notifying the DEA, whom else should be notified in case of theft or loss of controlled drugs?
The local police department
## Footnote
A copy of the DEA form 106 may also need to be sent to the State Board of Pharmacy.
43
True or False: The same reporting rules apply for loss, breakage, or spillage of controlled drugs.
True
## Footnote
The same procedures for notification and record-keeping apply.
44
Fill in the blank: Registrants must store an additional copy of DEA form 106 with the _______.
Controlled Substance records
## Footnote
This is a requirement to ensure proper documentation.
45
True or false in effect or loss of controlled drugs a copy of the DEA form 106 may need to be sent to the state Board of pharmacy
True
46
What is the consequence for employing an individual with a revoked or denied DEA application?
The practice cannot employ that individual if they will have access to controlled drugs while on duty.
## Footnote
This policy is in place to ensure the safety and compliance with regulations regarding controlled substances.
47
What are employees required to do regarding drug diversions?
Employees are responsible for reporting drug diversions of any fellow employees.
## Footnote
This requirement ensures that any potential issues with drug handling are addressed promptly and confidentially.
48
What is the employer's responsibility concerning employee reporting of drug diversions?
Employers are responsible for informing all employees about the policy of reporting drug diversions.
## Footnote
This communication is crucial for maintaining a transparent and compliant workplace.
49
What can be a determining factor in an employee's ability to continue working in a drug secure area?
Failure to report drug diversions or theft by fellow employees.
## Footnote
This emphasizes the importance of accountability and vigilance in environments handling controlled substances.
50
True or False: An employee can remain in a drug secure area even if they fail to report a drug diversion.
False.
## Footnote
Failure to report is considered a serious breach of responsibility in a drug secure environment.
51
What is the purpose of a DEA inspection?
To copy and verify the accuracy of records, reports, and other documents related to controlled substances
## Footnote
Inspectors cannot inspect financial, sales, and pricing data without permission.
52
What must DEA inspectors do before conducting an inspection?
Identify themselves, state their purpose, present their credentials, and provide a written notice of authority to inspect
## Footnote
Informed consent of the business owner or an administrative warrant is also required.
53
When must a DEA inspection be conducted?
At a reasonable time and conducted in a reasonable manner.
54
Fill in the blank: Inspectors must provide a written notice of authority to inspect with ________ of the business owner.
[informed consent]
55
The_______ states that a representative of the DEA is authorized to enter controlled premises and conduct inspections for the purpose of copying and verifying accuracy of records reports and other documents related to the controlled substances
Code of Federal Regulations
56
What agency regulates controlled substances in the United States?
DEA
## Footnote
DEA stands for Drug Enforcement Administration
57
What is one reason employees may be screened and rejected in a controlled substance environment?
Pre-employment questions surrounding controlled drugs
## Footnote
Screening may be related to past convictions or substance use
58
What type of convictions can be asked about during pre-employment screening?
Felony convictions within the past 5 years and misdemeanor convictions in the last 2 years
## Footnote
The screening may also include current charges
59
What is one question that can be asked regarding past substance use?
Have you ever knowingly used any narcotics, amphetamines, or barbiturates in the past 3 years?
## Footnote
This does not include substances prescribed by a physician
60
Fill in the blank: Employees may be rejected for reasons described by the _______.
DEA
61
True or False: An employee can be screened for using prescribed narcotics.
False
## Footnote
The question specifically refers to knowingly using substances not prescribed
62
What is the Controlled Substances Act (CSA)?
Title II of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970
## Footnote
The CSA was enacted to regulate the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of controlled substances.
63
What does the CSA regulate?
All persons involved in the legitimate chain of manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of controlled drugs by way of federal registration 
## Footnote
This includes manufacturers, distributors, and dispensers of controlled substances.
64
What was the primary purpose of the CSA?
To provide a 'closed system' for legitimate handlers of controlled drugs and reduce opportunities for controlled drugs entering the illicit drug market
## Footnote
The closed system aims to prevent misuse and illegal distribution of controlled substances.
65
How do state drug control laws interact with federal law?
If state drug control regulations are more stringent than federal law, the state regulations will take precedence
## Footnote
This ensures that more protective measures are upheld at the state level.
66
Who should veterinarians contact for information about state drug control regulations?
Their state boards of examiners or state veterinary associations
## Footnote
These organizations can provide guidance on individual state requirements for drug control.
67
What is the primary criterion for classifying controlled substances under the Controlled Substance Act?
Potential for abuse
## Footnote
The Act divides substances into five schedules based on their potential for abuse.
68
What schedule of controlled substances has the highest potential for abuse?
Schedule I
## Footnote
Schedule I substances have the highest potential for abuse and severe dependence.
69
Name an example of a Schedule I substance.
Heroin or LSD
## Footnote
Schedule I substances have the lowest potential for accepted medical use.
70
What is the potential for abuse and medical use of Schedule II substances?
High potential for abuse and currently accepted medical use
## Footnote
Examples include Morphine, Hydromorphone, and Fentanyl.
71
Which schedule includes substances that may lead to low to moderate dependence?
Schedule III
## Footnote
Schedule III has less potential for abuse than Schedules I & II.
72
Provide an example of a Schedule III substance.
Tylenol® with Codeine or Nalline®
## Footnote
These substances contain limited quantities of narcotic drugs.
73
What is the potential for abuse of Schedule IV substances?
Low potential for abuse
## Footnote
Schedule IV substances may lead to limited dependence.
74
Name an example of a Schedule IV substance.
Diazepam or Tramadol
## Footnote
Schedule IV substances have currently accepted medical use in the United States.
75
What is the potential for abuse of Schedule V substances?
Low potential for abuse
## Footnote
Schedule V substances may lead to limited dependency.
76
Provide an example of a Schedule V substance.
Robitussin A-C® or Lomotil®
## Footnote
These substances have currently accepted medical use in the United States.
77
Who has the authority to reschedule a drug under the Controlled Substances Act?
Drug Enforcement Agency and the Attorney General
## Footnote
They have broad powers to control or remove controls on drugs.
78
What agency is responsible for regulating animal foods/feeds and most animal health products?
Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM)
## Footnote
The FDA CVM oversees the regulation of veterinary drugs and animal food products.
79
What are Adulterated Drugs?
Drugs that contain unsanitary components, lack adequate control in manufacture, differ in strength from official compendium, or are mixed with another substance
## Footnote
Mixing two or more FDA-approved drugs in one syringe constitutes adulteration.
80
What constitutes a Misbranded Drug?
Drugs with false or misleading labeling, or lacking adequate directions for use
## Footnote
A label must include the name and place of business of the manufacturer and an accurate statement on quantity.
81
What is a Prescription/Legend drug?
A drug used only by or under the supervision of a veterinarian
## Footnote
These drugs must be in possession of a licensed veterinarian or their agent.
82
What is required on the label of prescription drugs?
• Statement 'Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian'
• Recommended dose and route of administration
• Quantity or proportion of each active ingredient
• Names of all inactive ingredients if drug is for non-oral use
• Identifying lot or control number
## Footnote
These requirements ensure safe and effective use of prescription drugs.
83
Fill in the blank: A drug is ______ if the label does not include adequate directions for use.
Misbranded
## Footnote
Adequate directions are defined as those that allow a lay person to use the drug safely.
84
True or False: A practitioner can legally mix two FDA-approved drugs in one syringe.
False
## Footnote
Mixing drugs in this manner leads to adulteration and is a violation of the FD&C Act.
85
Define adequate directions for use
Directions by which a person can use a drug safely and for the purpose for which it was intended
86
If a drug does not contain what it is considered, Misbranded
Name and place of business of the manufacturer/packer/distributor, and an accurate statement on quantity. Adequate directions for use.
87
What are over the counter drugs (OTC)?
Directions for use can be readily understood and followed by the ordinary individual
## Footnote
Examples include Essential Fatty Acid products or Joint Supplements.
88
What is extra label use?
The use of FDA approved drugs in a manner other than what is approved on the label
## Footnote
Many human drugs are used for animals in veterinary practice.
89
What are generic drugs?
FDA approved drugs that require a demonstration of bioequivalence of safety and efficacy with the original pioneer drug product.
90
What are the four conditions under which compounding of drugs for animal use is allowed?
* The veterinarian believes there is a need to alter the approved drug to adequately medicate a non-food animal with a diagnosed medical condition.
* There is an established Veterinary-Client-Patient-Relationship (VCPR).
* The individual patient has a medical condition for which a prescribed medication is needed.
* The veterinarian determines that a compounded drug is needed for the animal.
## Footnote
These conditions ensure that the compounding is necessary and appropriate for the specific medical needs of the animal.
91
Can veterinarians purchase compounded drugs from a pharmacy and resell them to clients?
No, veterinarians cannot purchase compounded drugs from a pharmacy and then resell that compounded drug to a client.
## Footnote
Veterinarians must either compound the drug themselves or have the pharmacy sell the compounded drug directly to the client.
92
What is required for a veterinarian to alter an approved drug for a non-food animal?
The veterinarian must believe there is a need to alter the drug to adequately medicate the animal with a diagnosed medical condition.
## Footnote
This requirement emphasizes the veterinarian's professional judgment in treating the animal.
93
What relationship must be established for compounding medications?
A Veterinary-Client-Patient-Relationship (VCPR) must be established.
## Footnote
This relationship is crucial for ensuring appropriate medical care and legal compliance.
94
Fill in the blank: A compounded drug is needed when the veterinarian determines that __________.
a compounded drug is needed for the animal.
## Footnote
This highlights the veterinarian's role in assessing the necessity of compounded medications.
95
What is the main purpose of compounding medications for animals?
To adequately medicate a non-food animal with a diagnosed medical condition.
## Footnote
Compounding allows for tailored treatments when standard medications are insufficient.
96
True or false most state laws and FDA regulations allow the compounding of drugs for animal use under certain conditions
True
97
What must drug companies in the United States inform the FDA/CVM about?
Any adverse events involving their marketed products.
98
How do drug companies typically receive adverse event information?
From professionals and consumers.
99
What are two ways an adverse event can be reported to the FDA?
Via a phone call to the FDA (1-888-FDA-VETS) or by filling out FDA form 1932a and mailing it in.
100
What information must be included in the adverse event report?
* The reporter or person familiar with the event who can provide additional information
* Clinical sign or symptom occurring right after product exposure (regardless of perceived causality)
* Product name and lot number if available
* Patient, an identifiable animal or human.
101
True or False: Adverse events must be reported regardless of perceived causality.
True.
102
Fill in the blank: An event can be reported via a phone call to the FDA at _______.
1-888-FDA-VETS.
103
What is FDA form 1932a used for?
Reporting adverse drug events.
104
Where should veterinarians report adverse drug reactions?
Manufacturer or FDA/CVM
105
True or false drug companies in the US are required to report any adverse events involving their marketed products
True
106
What are veterinarians and animal owners encouraged to report?
Adverse experiences and product failures of FDA approved drugs
## Footnote
Contact information for reporting is found on product packaging and in the Compendium of Veterinary Products.
107
Who should reporters ask to speak with when reporting adverse experiences?
The technical services veterinarian
## Footnote
Reporters should be prepared to answer questions that help the company report to regulatory authority.
108
What should reporters provide to ensure a thorough report?
A detailed medical history of the patient including:
* All exam findings
* Lab work
* Concurrent medications
## Footnote
This information facilitates a comprehensive report to the regulatory authority.
109
What is the purpose of reporting adverse events involving unapproved or off-label drugs?
To build a database on non-FDA approved products for practitioners' reference
## Footnote
This data helps establish safety profiles for these products.
110
Is there mandatory reporting for adverse events involving unapproved products?
No
## Footnote
Manufacturers are not required to report adverse events for unapproved or off-label drugs.
111
Where can one access the Compendium of Veterinary Products?
https://bayerall.cvpservice.com/
## Footnote
This website provides access to important veterinary product information.
112
What is an Animal Medical Device?
An instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, implant, in-vitro reagent, or similar article used in the diagnosis of disease or condition, and/or the treatment of such.
## Footnote
This includes various types of devices used in veterinary medicine.
113
Who is responsible for ensuring the safety and effectiveness of Animal Medical Devices?
Manufacturers and distributors.
## Footnote
They must also ensure proper labeling and that the devices achieve their intended purpose.
114
What should you do to report an adverse event or defect associated with an Animal Medical Device?
Contact the device manufacturer or report the case directly to the FDA.
## Footnote
This is crucial for maintaining safety standards in veterinary practices.
115
Fill in the blank: An Animal Medical Device is used in the diagnosis of _______ or condition.
[disease]
116
True or False: Only the FDA is responsible for the safety of Animal Medical Devices.
False.
## Footnote
Manufacturers and distributors also share this responsibility.
117
What should complaints regarding Pet Food and Animal Dietary Supplements be reported to?
The manufacturer or the FDA via its Safety Reporting Portal
## Footnote
https://www.safetyreporting.hhs.gov
118
How does USDA's Center For Veterinary Biologics (CVB) define an event?
Any undesirable occurrence after the use of an immunobiological product whether or not the event was caused by the product.
119
Where should adverse events related to animal biologics be reported?
To the manufacturer or directly to the CVB
## Footnote
https://www.aphis.usda.gov/aphis/ourfocus/animalhealth/veterinary-biologics
120
What organization should pesticide-related incidents involving domestic pets be reported to?
National Pesticide Information Center (NPIC) and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
## Footnote
https://www.epa.gov/pesticide-incidents/incident-reporting-pesticide-manufacturers-registrants
121
What is the purpose of the FDA's Safety Reporting Portal?
To report adverse events or complaints related to Pet Food and Animal Dietary Supplements.
122
True or False: An event as defined by USDA's CVB is only considered if it was caused by the immunobiological product.
False
123
Fill in the blank: Adverse events related to animal biologics should be reported directly to the _______.
CVB
124
What type of incidents can be reported to NPIC and EPA?
Pesticide related incidents involving domestic pets.
125
What does CVB stand for?
Center for veterinary biological
126
What are considered animal biologic?
Vaccines, doctrines, and diagnostic kits 
127
Who is responsible to ensure that pesticide sold in the US do not cause unusual risk to animal health when used properly
EPA
Environmental protection agency 
128
What does NPIC stand for?
National pesticide information center
129
What is the role of pharmacovigilance specialists in drug manufacturing?
To track and analyze data for trends and make recommendations to authorities
## Footnote
This ensures the safety and efficacy of prescribed drugs.
130
Why is it important to report adverse drug events?
To maintain current, complete, and relevant labels for informed veterinary practices
## Footnote
This helps veterinarians make informed choices for their patients.
131
Who benefits from the adverse event reporting system?
Veterinarians, pet owners, drug companies, and the FDA
## Footnote
Ultimately, this benefits the animals by ensuring drug safety and efficacy.
132
Fill in the blank: Drug manufacturers appoint teams of _______ specialists to track and analyze data.
[pharmacovigilance]
133
True or False: The primary purpose of pharmacovigilance is to ensure that drugs are both safe and efficacious.
True
134
What does OSHA stand for?
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
135
What is the primary purpose of OSHA?
To enact and enforce safety rules (standards) for the American workplace
136
Is OSHA applicable to all workplaces in the United States?
Yes
137
Do states have their own versions of OSHA standards?
Yes, many states have their own state version of OSHA standards
138
What is the requirement for state OSHA standards?
They are expected to be minimally as effective as the federal standards
139
What document is required for hospitals according to OSHA?
A Hospital Safety Manual
140
What does Hazard Communication (The Right to Know) require?
Requires that all team members who come into contact with potentially hazardous materials in the workplace are aware of those hazards and be instructed on how to protect themselves.
141
What is one requirement for a practice under OSHA regulations?
A designated Safety Manager or Officer.
142
What is a requirement regarding inspections for practices under OSHA?
An annual hazard analysis inspection.
143
What must be in place for all identified hazards?
Safety plans.
144
What must a practice maintain for Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health chemicals?
A chemical list and safety plans.
145
What documentation is required for all chemicals and components?
Safety Data Sheets.
146
What is required regarding labeling of chemicals?
Secondary labeling as needed and explanation and training on the labeling system.
147
What protocol must be in place for emergencies?
A protocol for emergency evacuation.
148
What should the training program focus on for practices with 11 or more employees?
PPE, monitoring devices, and hazards of the practice.
149
What are the requirements for a practice under Hazard Communication (The Right to Know)?
* Designated Safety Manager or Officer
* Annual hazard analysis inspection
* Safety plans for all identified hazards
* Chemical list and safety plans for Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health chemicals
* Safety Data Sheets on all chemicals and components
* Secondary labeling as needed and training on the labeling system
* Protocol for emergency evacuation
* Training program focusing on PPE, monitoring devices, and hazards of the practice (11 or more employees)
## Footnote
These requirements ensure workplace safety and compliance with OSHA standards.
150
What is required by regulation regarding hazard assessment in the workplace?
A formal assessment of every workplace to determine the nature of the hazards present
## Footnote
This assessment helps in identifying potential risks and necessary protective measures.
151
What must leadership do based on the hazard assessment?
Determine tasks requiring additional protection and select appropriate PPE
## Footnote
PPE stands for Personal Protective Equipment.
152
In a multi-employer workplace, what must separate businesses do?
Create a hazard assessment for the entire area
## Footnote
This is essential for shared spaces to ensure safety across different entities.
153
What must each entity in a multi-employer workplace provide to others?
Safety Data Sheets (SDS)
## Footnote
Or they can be stored in a central location
154
Fill in the blank: The regulation requires a formal assessment of every workplace to determine the nature of the _______.
hazards present
155
True or False: Each separate entity within a hospital can ignore the hazard assessments created by other entities.
False
## Footnote
Each entity must be aware of hazards to ensure safety.
156
What are the key OSHA standards related to workplace safety?
* First Aid Kits
* Hazard Assessment
* Personal Protective Equipment
* Safety and Hazard Training
* Sanitation and Housekeeping
* Waste Disposal
* Egress and Emergency Exits
* Fire Extinguishers and Sprinklers
* Electricity
* Stairs
* Vehicles
* Ergonomics
* Indoor Air Quality
Safety data sheet library
Container label
Noise hazards
Radiology
Chemotherapy
Hazardous chemical plan 
## Footnote
OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) sets and enforces standards to ensure workplace safety and health.
157
Hazardous chemical plan format
-Must be in writing
-A complete list of all hazardous chemicals must be maintained
-safety data sheets library
-all containers properly labeled
-staff training
158
What is required to be displayed in a common area according to OSHA standards?
It's The Law poster
## Footnote
If available, the state poster should be displayed instead of the federal poster.
159
How long must inspection citations be posted?
For 3 days or until corrected, whichever is longer.
160
What types of signs must be posted according to OSHA standards?
Appropriate warning or identification signs such as:
* Exits
* Radiation
* Other hazards
161
What is required for workplaces with 10 or more employees?
Written Plans for:
* Preventing fire
* Handling hazardous chemicals
* Preventing injury with PPE
* Informing workers of dangers
162
True or False: Notices of pending inspections must be displayed until the inspection is complete.
True
163
What rights do employers have regarding safety rules in the workplace?
Employers can set and enforce safety rules and conduct for the workplace.
## Footnote
Employers have the authority to create a safe working environment according to their standards.
164
What is one right of employers during an OSHA inspection?
Be present or designate a representative during any inspection or investigation.
## Footnote
This ensures that employers can oversee the inspection process.
165
What can employers require before a compliance officer enters their business?
Require that the compliance officer obtain a warrant before entering or inspecting the business.
## Footnote
This right protects the employer's property and privacy.
166
Can employers request a postponement of an OSHA inspection?
Yes, employers can request the inspection be postponed to a reasonable time.
## Footnote
This allows employers to prepare for the inspection.
167
What assurance do employers have regarding trade secrets during an inspection?
Expect that trade secrets will not be divulged to competitors as a result of an inspection or investigation.
## Footnote
This protection is crucial for maintaining competitive advantage.
168
Are employers allowed to consult with an attorney during an inspection?
Yes, employers can consult with an attorney or advisor before, during, or after an inspection and before responding to any inquiry.
## Footnote
Legal counsel can help navigate compliance and protect rights.
169
What right do employers have regarding complaints made against their business?
See any complaint that has been alleged against the business.
## Footnote
This ensures transparency and allows the employer to address issues.
170
What right do employers have concerning staff interviews during an inspection?
Insist that staff members be interviewed at a time that does not interfere with that staff members duties.
## Footnote
This helps maintain workplace operations.
171
What right do employers have regarding OSHA findings?
Right to appeal findings.
## Footnote
This allows employers to contest any unfavorable outcomes from inspections.
172
Does an employer have the right to require that an OSHA compliance officer obtain a warrant before entering or inspecting the business?
Yes, but it rarely benefits the employer to do so
173
What is the responsibility of employers regarding workplace hazards?
Provide a workplace free from recognized or unnecessary hazards
## Footnote
This includes taking measures to identify and mitigate risks in the work environment.
174
What must employers do to ensure safety rules are effective?
Set and enforce safety rules and communicate them clearly
## Footnote
Clear communication helps ensure that all staff understand the safety protocols.
175
What is an employer's responsibility regarding PPE?
Provide PPE and proper instructions for its use
## Footnote
This ensures that employees are adequately protected while performing their duties.
176
What type of training must employers provide to staff members?
Training and instruction to understand job hazards and protection steps
## Footnote
This training is crucial for employee safety and compliance with regulations.
177
True or False: Employers have the right to appeal findings.
True
## Footnote
This right allows employers to contest safety violations or penalties imposed by regulatory agencies.
178
What is one right of staff members under OSHA?
A workplace free from recognized hazards
## Footnote
This ensures that employees are not exposed to unsafe conditions.
179
What must staff members be informed of under the OSHA Act?
Their rights under the OSHA Act (OSHA poster 3165 - It's the Law)
## Footnote
This poster outlines employees' rights and responsibilities regarding workplace safety.
180
What training should staff members receive in relation to workplace hazards?
Training to safely perform their duties regarding known hazards
## Footnote
This training is essential for ensuring employee safety and compliance.
181
What type of equipment should staff members be provided with?
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
## Footnote
PPE is crucial for protecting employees from workplace hazards.
182
What rights do staff members have concerning OSHA standards?
View and receive copies of all applicable OSHA standards
## Footnote
This access allows employees to understand the regulations that govern their safety.
183
What access do staff members have to medical and exposure records?
Access to all medical and exposure records maintained as part of the business
## Footnote
This right helps employees monitor their health and exposure to hazards.
184
What right do staff members have during safety testing or monitoring?
Be present in the workplace when safety testing or monitoring is performed
## Footnote
This ensures transparency and accountability in safety practices.
185
What can staff members do if they notice a hazard?
Present complaints to employer or OSHA when a hazard or suspected hazard requires attention or correction
## Footnote
This right encourages reporting and addressing safety concerns.
186
What can staff members do during an inspection of the workplace?
Speak with a compliance officer privately
## Footnote
This allows employees to report concerns without fear of retaliation.
187
What does OSHA require from employees under the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
Employees must comply with all occupational safety and health standards and all rules, regulations, and orders issued under the act.
## Footnote
This includes workplace specific rules established by the employer.
188
Does OSHA cite employees for violations of their responsibilities?
No, OSHA does not cite employees for violations of their responsibilities.
## Footnote
Employees are required to comply with safety standards.
189
What should an employer have in place for employees who willfully violate safety rules?
A written disciplinary policy.
## Footnote
This is applicable if the employer has provided proper instruction on the standard.
190
List the responsibilities of staff members under OSHA.
* Read the OSHA poster
* Comply with all applicable standards
* Follow all lawful employer safety and health rules and regulations
-where are used prescribed PPE while working?
-report hazardous conditions to supervisor
-report job related injuries or illness to the employer and seek treatment promptly
-Cooperate with OSHA compliance officer during an inspection or investigation
191
What must employees do if they experience a job-related injury or illness?
Report it to the employer and seek treatment promptly.
## Footnote
Prompt reporting can help ensure proper care and compliance.
192
True or False: Employees must wear or use prescribed personal protective equipment while working.
True.
## Footnote
This is a requirement under OSHA standards.
193
Fill in the blank: Employees must report hazardous conditions to their _______.
[supervisor].
## Footnote
Reporting hazardous conditions helps maintain workplace safety.
194
What should employees do during an OSHA inspection or investigation?
Cooperate with the OSHA Compliance Officer.
## Footnote
Cooperation facilitates the investigation process.
195
What is Form 300?
Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illness
## Footnote
Records every work-related death, or injury/illness involving loss of consciousness, restricted work activity, job transfer, days away from work, or medical treatment beyond first aid.
196
What must be recorded on Form 300?
Every work-related death, injury/illness involving:
* Loss of consciousness
* Restricted work activity
* Job transfer
* Days away from work
* Medical treatment beyond first aid
* Significant injuries diagnosed by a physician
197
What is the purpose of Form 301?
Illness and Injury Incident Report
## Footnote
Must be filled out within 7 calendar days after receiving information about a recordable work-related injury or illness.
198
When must Form 301 be completed?
Within 7 calendar days after receiving information about a recordable work-related injury or illness.
199
What is Form 300A?
Summary of Work-Related Illness and Injury for the year
## Footnote
Must be posted from February 1 to April 30 of the year following the year covered by the form.
200
When should Form 300A be posted?
From February 1 to April 30 of the year following the year covered by the form.
201
What must be done with Form 300A even if there are no recordable injuries?
It must be completed and displayed.
202
How long must OSHA forms be kept?
5 years
203
True or False: All three OSHA forms must be kept for 5 years.
True
204
Which OSHA form for recording work related injuries is a single employee form
301
(300 is multiple employees running log)
300A-is entire year
205
DEA for Relief veterinarian
Must be an employee of a registrant or have a DEA registration for each place. They work at.
206
What is the process for lending a fellow veterinarian a schedule 2 drug?
Use DEA222 form
Copy three stays with the veterinarian who received the drug
Copy one stays with the registered practitioner, supplying the drug
Copy two is sent to the DEA 
207
Regarding the DEA form 222 what is the correct destination for each of the three copies of the form?
Copies one and two of the 222 must be submitted to the supplier
Copy three is retained by registrant
The supplier retains copy one and sends copy to to the DEA
208
In regards to an ocean inspection, do employers have the right to deny access to specific areas of the building to avoid disturbing the business process
No employers have the right to require a warrant or request postponement, but not deny access once inspection has begun 
209
Hint for three page 222 form, when ordering, and when lending
Copy one held by supplier or lending veterinarian
Copy two ends up with the DEA, if ordering copy to is sent to the supplier who sends it to the DEA
Copy three stays with the vet who borrowed the drug or purchased the drug (receiver)
