Misc Review From Drive

Question 1

____ set out clear standards for integrated community services for individuals with severe, chronic psychiatric illness who had, to that point, been largely cared for in state hospitals; credited with sparking the move towards deinstitutionalization of patients with chronic, severe mental illness.

Answer 1

The 1999 Olmstead decision

Question 2

The Trail Making Test is a good indicator of ___

Answer 2

executive functioning

Question 3

The MMPI assesses ___

Answer 3

personality traits

Question 4

The Benton Facial Recognition test assesses for ___

Answer 4

visuoperceptual problems

Question 5

___ is assessed in the California Verbal Learning test

Answer 5

memory

Question 6

According to Piaget, cause and effect thinking, logical thinking and think about thoughts, make deductions are elements of the ___ (11-16 years) where deductive reasoning can be used

Answer 6

formal operations stage

Question 7

According to Piaget, the ___ (ages 2 to 7 years) is marked by immanent justice and magical thinking

Answer 7

preoperational stage

Question 8

Alcohol withdrawal tremulousness (the shakes or the jitters) usually begins ___ after cessation of drinking

Answer 8

6 to 8 hours

Question 9

Psychotic and perceptual symptoms begin ___ after cessation of drinking

Answer 9

8 to 12 hours

Question 10

Withdrawal seizures usually occur between ___ after the last drink

Answer 10

12 and 24 hours

Question 11

The onset of alcohol withdrawal delirium, if it is going to happen, will occur between ___ after the last drink

Answer 11

72 hours and 1 days

Question 12

___ hallucinations occur when waking up from sleep

Answer 12

Hypnopompic

Question 13

___ hallucinations occur when falling asleep

Answer 13

Hypnogogic

Question 14

___ on polysomnography would be most consistent with rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder (RBD)?

Answer 14

Loss of muscle atonia during REM sleep

Question 15

The ___ is the most commonly-used, 4-item screening questionnaire for delirium

Answer 15

confusion assessment method (CAM)

Question 16

Sleep change observed in normal 75 year old patient

Answer 16

Decreased Non-REM sleep

Question 17

EEG findings (8-14 Hz) while awake

Answer 17

Alpha waves

Question 18

EEG findings in stage 1 of sleep (N1)

Answer 18

Theta waves (4-7 Hz), slowing of alpha activity

Question 19

EEG findings in stage 2 of sleep (N2)

Answer 19

Sleep spindles and K complexes on EEG (50%),dec temp RR, and BP

Question 20

EEG findings in stage 3 of sleep (N3)

Answer 20

Delta waves

Question 21

___ is a projective test assessing the person’s interpretation of illustrations of ambiguous interpersonal situations; sheds light on a person’s interpersonal function and can also identify psychotic processes in the case of idiosyncratic interpretations.

Answer 21

The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)

Question 22

___ deficiency is the most common cause of pellagra. In addition to diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia, it may involve photosensitivity, glossitis, ataxia, and dilated cardiomyopathy

Answer 22

Vitamin B3, or niacin

Question 23

___ deficiency can cause Wernicke encephalopathy, which involves truncal ataxia, confusion, and ophthalmoplegia, and Korsakoff syndrome (amnestic-confabulatory syndrome)

Answer 23

Vitamin B1 (thiamine)

Question 24

___ deficiency can cause peripheral neuropathy, pellagra-like skin changes, anemia, depression, confusion, and seizures

Answer 24

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)

Question 25

___ deficiency can cause anemia and subacute combined degeneration, which involves peripheral motor weakness, paresthesias, and spasticity.

Answer 25

Vitamin B12

Question 26

If TSH is low and you suspect hypothyroidism then ordering ___ could help with diagnosis of secondary hypothyroidism (due to disease of pituitary)

Answer 26

free T4

Question 27

Anorexia nervosa complicated by purging may present with what electrolyte abnormalities?

Answer 27

hypochloremic alkalosis and with elevated serum bicarbonate levels; hyponatremia, hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia

Question 28

Narcolepsy is characterized with significantly lower CSF levels of ___

Answer 28

hypocretin

Question 29

Sleepwalking disorder, or somnambulism, usually occurs in the first third of the night in ___ and frequently progresses to leaving bed and walking about without full consciousness or later memory. It usually begins between 4 and 8 years of age, has peak prevalence at ___

Answer 29

deep NREM (stages III and IV) sleep; 12 years

Question 30

MDD causes what effect on sleep?

Answer 30

reduced REM sleep latency, increased REM sleep activity and reduced slow wave sleep

Question 31

Organophosphate pesticides are powerful acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. Poisoning leads to excessive cholinergic activity and SLUDGE signs (salivation, lacrimation, urination, diaphoresis (or defecation), gastrointestinal motility, and emesis). ___ is an antidote.

Answer 31

Atropine, a muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist which competes with acetylcholine at the muscarinic receptors. The initial dose for adults is 2 to 5 mg IV or 0.05 mg/kg IV for children until reaching the adult dose.

Question 32

___ is a cholinergic agonist that could be used to treat anticholinergic toxicity

Answer 32

Physostigmine

Question 33

Tests of ___ on the MOCA include Trails B, cube drawing, and clock drawing

Answer 33

executive functioning

Question 34

In terms of sleep patterns, ___ and ___ decrease with age

Answer 34

Slow-wave or NREM stage 3 sleep; sleep efficiency

Question 35

___ involves the liver as well as the brain, as copper accumulation in this disorder damages both. Symptoms of Parkinsonism are often present (i.e., masked facies, tremor, and rigidity), along with ataxia, dystonia, or dysarthria. Renal tubular acidosis, cardiomyopathy, and hypoparathyroidism can also complicate the picture. The ___ is only present in two-thirds of patients

Answer 35

Wilson's disease; Kayser-Fleischer ring

Question 36

Both ___ and ___ are characterized by decreased REM latency, frequent arousals, and periods of wakefulness on polysomnography, suggesting that their pathophysiology may be related in ways as yet unappreciated.

Answer 36

major depressive disorder and narcolepsy

Question 37

___ is a type of disinhibition, particularly of executive function, associated with brain damage, where the patient has difficulty resisting the impulse to operate or manipulate objects in the visual field and within reach.

Answer 37

Utilization behavior

Question 38

___, named after the defendant in a murder trial who had suffered from delusions for many years before killing one of his perceived persecutors, holds that a person is not guilty of a crime by reason of insanity if they had a mental illness that made them unaware of the nature, quality, and consequences of their acts or if they were incapable of realizing that their acts were wrong

Answer 38

The M'Naghten rule

Question 39

Manifestations of ___ include anemia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, muscle weakness, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Treatment is ___

Answer 39

Adrenal insufficiency (or Addison's Disease); Corticosteroids such as prednisone

Question 40

A ___ trial of a new drug is conducted to determine how a new drug should be given, how often it should be given, what dose is safe, and what the side effects are

Answer 40

phase I

Question 41

In ___ trials, researched give a new drug to a group of people with a certain disease to assess the drug's side effects and efficacy for treating the disease

Answer 41

phase II

Question 42

In ___ trials, researchers compare the efficacy and side-effects of a new drug with the current treatment for a certain disease

Answer 42

phase III

Question 43

___ trials are carried out after a drug is approved by the FDA and allow data to be collected about the efficacy and side-effects of a drug in a wider variety of populations and over a longer period of time than earlier trial phases allowed

Answer 43

Phase IV

Question 44

___ is done for: (1) evaluation of suspected narcolepsy to confirm the diagnosis or (2) evaluation of suspected idiopathic hypersomnia to differentiate it from narcolepsy.

Answer 44

Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT)

Question 45

___ are useful in monitoring a patient's abstinence

Answer 45

CDT and GGT

Question 46

___ is the compulsive utterance of obsecene words, as seen in Tourette's

Answer 46

Coprolalia

Question 47

Group of patients are looked at with regard to risk for heart disease. They are divided into those who have the TF and those who do not. These groups are followed for a number of years to see who does and who does not develop heart disease. THis is an example of a ___

Answer 47

Cohort Study

Question 48

A ___ is a retrospective study that examines persons w/o a disease

Answer 48

Case-control study

Question 49

___ describe the prevalence of a disease in a population at a particular point in time

Answer 49

Cross-sectional surveys

Question 50

___ developed stages of separation-individuation to describe how children develop identity that is separate from their mothers

Answer 50

Mahler

Question 51

Chronic schizophrenic takes his medication daily. This is an example of ___ prevention (reducing deficits caused by an illness to obtain highest possible level of function)

Answer 51

tertiary

Question 52

___ prevention is when a clinician does something to prevent the onset of a disease by reducing causative agents, reducing risk factors, etc

Answer 52

primary

Question 53

___ is when one identifies a disease in its early stages and seeks prompt treatment

Answer 53

secondary

Question 54

Use of positive and negative reinformcenet is part of operant conditioning developed by ___

Answer 54

Skinner

Question 55

___ is associated with low levels of CSF hypocretin (orexin)

Answer 55

Narcolepsy

Question 56

___ test helps find the location of brain lesions as well as differentiating between those who are brain damaged and those who are neurologically intact

Answer 56

Halstead-Reitan battery

Question 57

___ is Malaysian cultural syndrome that consist of a sudden rampage including homicide and/or suicide, which ends in exhaustion and amnesia

Answer 57

Amok

Question 58

___ is an Asian delusion that the penis will disappear into the abdomen and cause death

Answer 58

Koro

Question 59

Complete loss of the gag reflex would be expected only in devastating stroke involving ___

Answer 59

the brain stem or complete brain death

Question 60

You would expect to find ___ on EEG for normal adult drowsiness

Answer 60

Frontocentral beta activity

Question 61

On EEG, you would find ___ when eyes are closed

Answer 61

Posterior alpha rhythm

Question 62

"___ pioneered the concept that different mental health disorders have different outcomes; used the term ""dementia praecox"""

Answer 62

Kraepelin

Question 63

EEG showing bilaterally synchronous triphasic slow waves indicates ___

Answer 63

Hepatic encephalopathy

Question 64

What are EEG findings in MDD?

Answer 64

Shortened latency of REM sleep, decreased stage IV sleep, increased REM density

Question 65

Type I error occurs when ___

Answer 65

Null hypothesis is rejected when it should have been retained

Question 66

___ is the probability of finding the difference between two samples

Answer 66

Power

Question 67

PCP stays in urine __; Cocaine up to ___; Heroin up to ___

Answer 67

PCP-8 days; Cocaine-8 hrs; Heroin-72 hrs

Question 68

___ is electrolyte abnormality to watch out for in bulimic patients

Answer 68

hypokalemic, hypochloremic alkalosis

Question 69

___ focused on social interaction. This person defined each stage of life through the need to interact with certain individuals, shaping the development of the personality.

Answer 69

Harry Stack Sullivan

Question 70

___ is characterized by inability to repeat, relatively normal spontaneous speech, and possibility of paraphasic erros/hesitancy. Naming may be impaired by auditory comprehension is intact. This results from damage to ___.

Answer 70

Conduction aphasia; left-hemispheric (dominant) lesion --> arcuate fasciculus

Question 71

___ is characterized by broken, stuttering staccato speech with inability to repeat and phonemic and paraphasic errors. Reading is often impaired, although auditory comprehension is usually intact. This involves lesion to ___.

Answer 71

Broca's aphasia; Left posterior inferior frontal gyrus

Question 72

___ is characterized by fluent speech but impaired comprehension; speech may also be logorrheic or overproductive. Repetition, naming, auditory comprehension, reading comprehension are impaired. This results from lesion in ___

Answer 72

Wernicke's aphasia; superior temporal gyrus

Question 73

___ is characterized by speech that is nonfluent or mute; impaired comprehension; naming, reading, repetition, and writing are all poor; results from damage to ___

Answer 73

Global aphasia; large lesion involving superior, temporal, inferior frontal, and parietal lobes

Question 74

___ is characterized by telegraphic, stuttering speech, sparing of comprehension, and fluent repitition; fluent paraphasic speech, paraphasic naming, and impaired reading/auditory comprehension, normal repetition; lesion localizes to ___

Answer 74

Transcortical motor aphasia, Frontal lobe

Question 75

___ is the method of predicting the value of one variable in relation to another variable based on observed data

Answer 75

Regression analysis

Question 76

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a rare late complication from ___. P/w personality and cognitive changes, myoclonic seizures, spasticity, choreoathetoid movements, difficulty swallowing

Answer 76

Measles virus

Question 77

Konrad Lorenz, during his work with animals, demonstrated the concept of ___, which may be used to understand early human psychological development

Answer 77

Imprinting

Question 78

___ was first to give a comprehensive study of the defense mechanisms

Answer 78

Anna Freud

Question 79

In the case of ___, the US Supreme Court determined that, to have the competence to stand trial, a criminal defendant must be able to have the ability to consult his lawyer with a reasonable degree of rational understanding and must have reaasonable and rational understanding of the proceedings agianst him/her

Answer 79

Dusky vs United States