Misc. SOP Flashcards
(132 cards)
1
Q
Truck high rise tool set off?
A
TIC Rope bag 2 Air cylinders Pike pole Sound phone
Keys
Irons
Lights
2
Q
Engine Set off for High Rise?
A
Bundles Lights Axe Cylinders Keys Sound Phone
TIC
Bag
3
Q
How much brush clearance must there be around ground solar panels?
A
At least 10 feet
4
Q
Alert 1 (Ground Emergency)
A
A condition in which a potential emergency or minor mechanical abnormality exists that requires dispatch of ARFF units.
5
Q
ALERT 2 (Airborne Emergency)
A
An unsafe flight or operational condition exists requiring immediate dispatch of ARFF equipemnt to appropriate staging postitions.
6
Q
ALERT 3 (Aircraft Accident)
A
A condition in which a crash has actually occured, a crash in imminent, or there is a fire on board an aircraft.
7
Q
Class A Confined Space
A
An environment which is immediately dangerous to life or health (entry by permit only; shall have a posted sign).
8
Q
Class B Confined Space
A
An environment that has the potential for causing injury and illness if preventative measures are not used, but is not immediately dangerous to life or health.
9
Q
Class C Confined Space
A
An environment that has potential hazards which would not require any special modifications of the work procedures.
10
Q
Confined Space Definition
A
Is large enough and so configured that an employee can bodily enter and perform assigned work; and
Has limited or restricted means for entry or exit; and
Is not designed for continuous employee occupancy.
11
Q
Permit Required Confined Space(also meets on of the following
A
Contains, or has a potential to contain, a hazardous atmosphere;
Contains a material that has the potential for engulfing an entrant;
Has an internal configuration such that an entrant could be trapped or asphyxiated by inwardly converging walls or by a floor which slopes downward and tapers to a smaller cross-section; or
Contains any other recognized serious safety or health hazards.
12
Q
Confined Space Hazardous atmosphere
A
10% of LEL,
O2 <19.5, >23.5
Dust with visibility <5 feet
13
Q
Confined Space Response
A
First Due Engine 2 Truck Co USAR (all on duty team members) HAZMAT Ambulance (pt and rescuers) BC
14
Q
RTF Treatment Procedure Priorities
A
M- Massive Bleeding: Control life threatening bleeding
A- Airway: Establish and maintain a patent airway
R- Respiratory: Seal any open torso wounds
C- Circulation: Control other bleeding and cover all wounds, IV/IO
H- Head Injury/Hypotension: Prevent/treat hypotension and hypoxia for traumatic brain injuries. Prevent/treat hypothermia.
15
Q
High Threat Tactical Response run card
A
1 BC 4 ME 1 Truck with utility EOD 131 4 AMR 1 AMR supervisor 1 Airship on standby Level 1 page Fire Investigator
16
Q
High Threat Tactical Response 1st Engine PDA
A
Perform Size up, identify staging area and consider line of sight.
Primary obj. is START within the warm zone.
Secondary obj- perform only stabilizing treatment in accordance to the TECC guidelines.
Verbalize # of victims to IC/RGS
Advance to stop point and then extract the furthest immediate patients.
17
Q
High Threat Tactical Response 2nd/3rd Engine PDA
A
Primary objective- Triage stabilize if not done by first RTF
Secondary objective- eval/extract the first critical patient they encounter
Verbalize possible safe refuge areas.
If zone changes from warm to hot due to threat eval RTF to cover. A red light condition will be declared.
18
Q
High Threat Tactical Response 4th Engine PDA
A
Check in with IC for assignment. Consider establishing Med Comm and Triage/treatment groups.
19
Q
Helispot Manager
A
is a person assigned to the landing site, by the Incident Commander, for the purpose of assisting the pilot as a ground guide and safety coordinator.
20
Q
Rear Guard
A
is a person assigned to the rear of the helicopter, after it has landed, to ensure that no person or vehicle approaches the aft portion of the helicopter
21
Q
RTSMP
A
Registered Trauma Scene Management Practitioner
22
Q
Who can authorize the use of a RTSMP?
A
Only a Duty BC
23
Q
What are the four types of drug and alcohol tests under the DOT program?
A
- Pre-employment
- Random
- Post-Accident
- Reasonable Cause
2/3/4 are all on done on City time and at their expense
24
Q
If an employee has a positive Drug/alcohol test how long do they have to request a retest and at who’s expense?
A
72 hours and at the employees expense
25
With a positive drug screen/analysis of a medication how long does the employee have to produce a prescription?
24 hours and it must be in their name
26
What examples are given that could constitute "reasonable suspicion" for a drug test?
* Slurred speech
* Alcohol on breath
* Inability to walk a straight line
* Accident involving city property where it appears that the employee is at fault
* Physical or verbal altercations initiated by the employee
* Behavior which is unusual for that employee which warrants summoning a supervisor
* Possession of alcohol or drugs
27
What should a supervisor document in writing if employee under the influence of drugs?
The facts constituting reasonable suspicion
28
If possible the supervisor should get the approval from who prior to ordering an employee to submit to a drug/alcohol analysis?
```
Personnel Director(in the case of disciplinary action)
Risk Manager(in the case of accident)
```
29
In regards to Drug/Alcohol analysis what can a supervisor not do?
Force an employee refusing the test to submit to testing or
| Shall not physically search employees.
30
What shall a supervisor do if they encounter an employee refusing to submit to a drug analysis?
Remind them of the requirements and consequences of this policy. Refusal when requested by City Management or law enforcement may constitute insubordination and may be grounds for discipline up to and including termination.
31
Per the City policy on harassment: harassment includes the following four actions:
Verbal
Physical
Written/Visual
Environmental
32
Complaint procedure for harassed or witness of harassed:
* If appropriate, let the offending party know and request that it stops immediately
* If not resolved report to immediate supervisor
* If not resolved, follow the chain of command: BC, Department head, Agency head.
* Complaint can also be made to HR department
* a complaint can also be made to the CA Department of Fair Employment and housing (DFEH) or the US Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
33
Any supervisor who receives information regarding discrimination or harassment must...
immediately report that information to Human Resources Director or the City Manager. And, take immediate action to stop the offensive behavior as appropriate.
34
Hotline to call to anonymously report tips of unethical behavior, 24/7
Ethics Hotline 837-534-0382
35
BARS (Probationary Firefighter evaluation instrument)
Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale
36
The BARS instrument is divided into three dimension clusters:
Personal traits
Station duties
Emergency Duties and training
37
SMART objectives
```
Specific
Measurable
Attainable
Relevant
Time based
```
38
What must be done prior to above grade training sessions with the PES?
Everyone connected to a "Life safety belay system" and class 3 safety harness. Be performed under the direction of qualified trainer or Captain. And Notify the on-duty BC.
39
When should a PES be inspected?
Quarterly
After exposure to heat
or any other suspected damage
(Training devices-before and after training)
40
The Rehabilitation team will consist of:
1. ALS company
2. 40 hour personnel if available or needed
3. Hazmat 133
41
What 3 things does the ALS crew pay close attention to in the rehab unit?
1. Pulse
2. BP
3. Body Temperature
42
What channels does Ontario dispatch not have access to on their consoles?
Zone 21 (there use use would be for direct contact from unit to unit only)
43
Radio Code for Hijack?
Hotel-Juliet
44
Radio code for bomb threat?
Bravo-Tango
45
Radio code to respond all available PD units code 3?
Code 999
46
Radio code to notify media?
Code 20
47
Radio code to dispatch coroner?
Code 10
48
Radio code to dispatch a PD unit code 3? (Violent 5150, Narcotics involved, Suspicious circumstances, Weapons)
Code 9 (C,N,S,W)
49
Radio code for a riot condition?
Condition X
50
Phase 1 mode of operation for elevators is used to...?
Recall elevators during an emergency(can be activated by heat or smoke detectors in or around elevators or manually)
51
What does the safety circuit shunts do?
A water flow alarm in the elevator hoist way, elevator pit, or elevator machinery room will cause the elevator to immediately stop. May cause subject to become trapped in the elevator.
52
Petroleum(Oil) Discharges reportable conditions?
*Any discharge or threatened discharge of oil into state waters must be reported to Cal OES.
53
No notification to Cal OES warning center is required if releases of oil is inland and:
*Not threatening state water
*Does not cause harm or threaten to cause harm to the public health and safety, environment or property.
*And is under 42 gallons
..."If in doubt, report the release!!!"
54
Reportable quantity for sewage spills is...
1000 gallons or more, must be reported to Cal OES
55
CUPA
Certified Unified Program agency- San Bernardino County fire Hazmat regulatory agency.
56
REVAS IO
```
Rescue
Exposure/extension
Ventilation
Attack
Salvage
Investigation
Overhaul
```
57
How many sand bags are available to e the residents and businesses at all Ontario Fire Stations?
15 per visit
58
Where is Sand available to fill the sandbags?
De Anza Park
John Galvin Park
Anthony Munoz Park
59
If dress or work uniforms are not available, a minimum of what must be worn for all interactions with the media?
Helmet
| Brush Coat
60
Minor incidents- If a PIO is not requested to a newsworthy incident, its the responsibility of the IC to ensure that the facts from the attached....
Public information worksheet are relayed to the PIO Coordinator by 0800 on the following morning alone with updated fire loss estimates.
61
Examples of Major incidents in regards to PIO media interest. And necessitate notification of a PIO:
Multiple alarm fires or fires with serious civilian/FF injury or death
Fires with signs of arson
On-duty traffic collision resulting in serious injury
Major EMS incidents-3 or more medic units
Aircraft/train accident
Large evacuation
Veg fire with major potential of growth
Red flag alert
Operational period >1 hour
Other deemed significant by the IC
62
What two ways can a PIO be requested?
Request a Media Notification (Code 20)- they will contact media and the PIO coordinator
Request a PIO from Dispatch
63
Public safety agency may limit access to media to...
protect areas that are part of an investigation or crime scene. Department employees can not give permission to enter private property.
64
What form is used to notify the media?
Public Information Worksheet
65
Where are the only Fire Department areas approved for firearm maintenance and loading/unloading?
Ontario Fire Station workshop/tool rooms
66
Firearms for department approved members(peace officers- PC832) can store their guns in their vehicle if
it is secured out of site with the vehicle locked.
67
Who and under what circumstances can request a Code 2 response per Policy 1405 Incident Dispatching?
All requests for OFD by OPD will be code 3 unless OPD requests Code 2 for scene safety reasons. "Code 2" requests are only accepted by "OFD FIRE/EMS" personnel already on scene.
68
Calls dispatched using the VHF tones are simulcast on what channels?
OTO V1
| FDISP
69
In a swift water incident what agencies do you notify?
All agencies within 5 miles down stream.
70
What is done at the termination of a swift water rescue?
Conduct PAR
Inventory equipment
An exposure report for all who come in contact with water.
Debriefing if needed.
71
Augmented staffing for extreme weather conditions for water rescue incidents?
4 USAR swift water rescue technicians
| Qualified Safety officer
72
Per NFPA 1006- Swift water is defined as water moving at a rate greater than...?
1 Knot
73
Oxygen cylinder minimum and maximum?
1200-2200 PSI
| CPAP cylinders shall have mim. of 2000 at all times.
74
When must an EMS monthly supply order be submitted to the Medical Supply Coordinator?
By the 10th day of the month
75
If the EOC is activated, who has the authority and responsibility for overall management of earthquake incidents according to the Emergency Ops plan adopted by the City Council?
The City Manager
76
Who can formally activate the Emergency Management Organization and the EOC?
Director of Emergency Services(City Manager) or
| Assistant Director of Emergency Services(Fire Chief)
77
Who Conducts radio check with Dispatch in the event of a major earthquake?
Engineer
78
Fire Engineer responsibilities during an Earthquake
Drive assigned apparatus to safe area
Radio check with dispatch(advise if in service)
Move other essential equipment to safe areas
Check condition of apparatus and equipment
Report status to Capatin
79
Firefighters responsibilities during an earthquake
Check structural integrity of station structures
Check station utilities
Check fuel storage
Assist engineer if needed
Check generator and compressor operational capabilities
Report findings to Captain
80
Building Search marking- Main entrance
Large 2' single slash near main entrance at the start of the search
After complete a second slash made to make a large X
81
Main entrance Building search markings specific information in X
Left- Rescue team identifier
Top- Date time complete
Right- Special hazards
Bottom- # of Dead and live victims
82
Structure Hazard Mark made outside all entry points during the initial building survey consists of....
Safe for search-Large Square(2'x2')-with date, time, Hazards and unit to the right
Significant damage- on slash in box
Not Safe for search or rescue operations- X in box
83
X marking used for individual rooms, what is the only additional info marked?
Significant hazards or number of live/dead
84
In the event of major emergency and contact with the department is not possible within ___________ through normal channels the the employee shall respond to the normal worksite and report for duty.
1 hour
85
Situations that may activate Disaster- Automatic Recall
earthquake 6.5 with epicenter within 10 miles
Major fire within City taxing all resources and requires auto/mutual aid
Major flooding- 25%or more of city evacuated
Sustained major winds with building damage and fires
Tornado impact with damage or significant loss of life
Other reported major situations resulting in a threat to life and property of 50 or more persons
86
Designated alternate worksite reporting locations during Disaster Automatic Recall?
```
Primary worksite
Station 1
Station 3
Station 8
Reported City Manpower staging area
Municipal City Services Facility
```
87
Minimum initial response of Bomb Squad
2 technicians, if on duty and available.
| If none are on duty the one on call tech will be notified
88
Initial evacuation of a potentially hazardous EOD incident?
500 feet
89
Radio and cell silence distance on a IED incident?
1,000 feet
90
TCV device transport to a disposal area procedure
Total Containment Vehicle
| Escorted by two marked PD vehicles, one 200 feet in the front and the other 200 feet to the rear.
91
Class A Confined Space
IDLH (entry by permit only, posted sign)
92
Class B Confined Space
Potential of causing injury and illness if corrective steps not taken. Not IDLH
93
Class C Confined Space
An environment that has potential hazards which would not require any special modifications of the work procedures.
94
Definition of confined space.
*Large enough and so configured that an employee can bodily enter and perform assigned work; and
*Has limited or restricted means for entry or exit; and
*Is not designed for continuous employee occupancy
Configured/Entry-Exit/Occupancy
95
Definition of Permit required Confined Space
```
Atmosphere Hazardous
Engulfing potential
Internal configuration-trap or asphyxiate
Other safety or health hazards
A-E-I-O
```
96
Hazardous Atmosphere for confined space includes....
10% of LEL
O2 <19.5 o >23.5
Combustable dust greater then LEL(visibility <5 feet)
97
Types of confined space
Open topped enclosures
Enclosures with limited opinions
Spaces that have the potential for engulfment
98
These positions must be filled by US&R team members.
Attendant
Authorized Entrant
Entry Supervisor
Safety Officer
99
Common gases in below grade confined space operations.
```
Carbon dioxide
Carbon Monoxide
Hydrogen sulfide
Sulfur Dioxide
Methane
```
100
Confirmed Confined Space Emergency response
```
First due Engine
2 Truck companies
US&R (all on-duty US&R team members)
HAZMAT (on-duty team members)
ALS Ambulance (consider victim and rescuers)
BC
```
101
Confined Space pre entry operations
```
Recognize as confined space
Entry Permit
ICS activated
Information gathering
Monitor Atmosphere
Perimeter
Lockout/Tagout
Ignition elimination
Lighting
```
102
Max distance for rescuers to travel in confined space?
300'
103
Confined space rescuers must have___________if they must descend more than 5 feet.
Retrieval system with fall restraints
104
Confined Space incidents and drills shall have a permit and kept on file for how long?
1 year with the Team Leader
105
What significant events should require a "roll call"?
```
Building Collapse
Abandon Structure
Mayday condition report
Flashover/Backdraft/Explosion
Operational Retreat(Offensive to defensive)
```
106
How often shall a "roll call" be completed?
Every 15 minutes
107
RTF Treatment procedure priorities to include but not limited to:
```
M- Massive Bleeding
A- Airway
R- Respiratory
C- Circulation
H- Head Injury/Hypotension
```
108
Apartments, Hotels, and Motels shall be inspected __________ for compliance with building standards and other regulations of the State Fire Marshal.
Annually
109
Jail or detention facility inspections shall be made at least once every _________________ for compliance with the regulations adopted by the OSFM.
every two years
110
Every building used as a public or private school in the departments jurisdiction not less than _____________ each year.
once each year
111
Company inspections- write on the worksheet if unable to complete due to no building or suite, vacant or nobody present?
"delete"
"Vacant"
"Unable to Complete"
112
Examples of minor inspection violations that a mailback card can be used for:
```
Fire Extinguishers
Extension Cords
Address numbers
Electrical Face Plates
No smoking and Exit signs
```
113
Facilities that are required to submit a Hazardous Materials Business Plan should be inspected no less frequently than once every ______________.
three years
114
The ___________ shall be responsible for scheduling woodland fire shelter deployment training ___________, prior to the anticipated beginning of the main woodland fire season.
Training officer
| annually
115
Annual fire shelter deployment training shall include, but not be limited to , the following:
* NWCG pamphlet entitled Nat. Fire Equip. System
* instructor based fire shelter orientation or NWCG training video
* Performance of practice fire shelter deployment...
116
Forklift- All operators must re-certify every __________. Contact the Training Division if you need to be certified.
3 years
117
Guidelines for probationary examination preparation.- Direct supervision will be considered:
Any Company Officer or Engineer
Any Probationary Instructor
Any personnel designated by department Training Officer as a qualified instructor
118
The Emergency button transmits an emergency message and audible alert to each dispatch console. This emergency alert and emergency message will be received on ______________ no matter what zone or channel it was transmitted on.
19- FDISP
119
Emergency button activation- For personnel not assigned to an incident or to an incident where Command has not been established what occurs?
Immediately attempt to contact the personnel sending the emergency signal; if no response:
1. Dispatch 1 OPD officer code 3
2. Notify the on-duty Battalion Chief
120
A "Fire Department Resource Authorization Form" should be submitted at least ___________ prior to an event for use of apparatus, equipment, facilities and personnel for services other than normally prescribed activities/duties.
2 weeks
121
Hose testing shall be performed at least annually or if it meets any of the following criteria:
1. Has been repaired
2. Has been exposed to excessive heat or hazardous materials.
3. Has been subject to extreme physical abuse
4. Any observations during visual examination, or use, which would question the reliability of the hose.
122
Leaders Intent
Task
Purpose
End State
123
RADEF shall be tested....
Monthly, on the first friday of each month.
124
Personnel wishing to voluntarily withdraw from an authorized Paramedic position should submit a Memo to their __________ at least __________ prior to the desired date.
BC
| 6 Months
125
Probationary firefighters assigned to an Authorized PM position will receive _________ of the full paramedic incentive pay while on probationary status.
1/2
126
Truck companies will be automatically dispatched to the following public service responses within their battalion:
1. Ladder requests
| 2. Persons trapped inside an elevator(including a first-in engine company)
127
Truck companies shall be dispatched, as the sole unit, to the following calls for service within their stations district. They are also available for responses within a neighboring district, when that unit is not available:
1. Hazmat related incidents, where no injuries and/or medical assistance is necessary.
2. Investigations involving unknown odors
3. Fire alarms with reset
4. Carbon Monoxide alarm calls.
5. Water salvages
6. Wires down without a report of fire or injuries.
128
A Pos incident analysis should be completed within _________ days of an incident.
30 days
129
All members should be notified within __________ if a formal PIA is being arranged to allow them to prepare or gather any necessary documentation.
1 week
130
APS report, Verbal and original report?
A verbal report must be made by telephone immediately. The original report must be submitted via fax to the Dept. of aging/adult services within 48 hours
131
CPS report, Verbal and written report?
A verbal report must be made by telephone immediately. The written report must be submitted via fax to the Dept. of child services within 36 hours.
132
How long do you have to make corrections if an EPCr is sent back to you for correction/clarification as part of the QI process?
10 days
