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STI > MISCELLANEOUS > Flashcards

MISCELLANEOUS Flashcards

1
Q

What approach category is the B777?
What are the speed range to be in that category?

A

Category D
141-166 kts

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2
Q

Can you line up on the rwy without a “cabin ready” message?

A

Yes, if Captain is satisfied no traffic is inbound to land within a reasonable timeframe

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3
Q

Do you have to wake up the Captain before a doctors kit is used?

A

No, he just needs to be informed but not immediately

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4
Q

How long is the validity of your licence?

A

10 years

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5
Q

What countries requires you to maintain heading when instructed to “fly rwy heading”?

A

Canada, USA and Australia

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6
Q

When is a headcount required onboard?

A
  • If specified by CX
  • If transit passengers remains onboard
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7
Q

Above what speed should you not use the tiller steering?

A

30kts

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8
Q

What is Vx for the B773?

A

Found on VNAV page 1 in FMC
Almost same as Vref 30+80

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9
Q

What is Vy for the B773? When is Vy to be used?

A

Vref 30+140, (min clean speed +60) (Vref 30+80+60)
Used for minimum time to altitude, i.e expedite climb

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10
Q

What documents are found on the flight deck wall?

A
  • AOC
  • Certificate of Registration
  • Certificate of Airworthiness
  • Certificate of maintenance review
  • Noise certificate
  • Radio certificate
  • Insureance documents
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11
Q

J/FO landing limits?

A
  • 15 kts cross winds
    With BTC up to aircraft limit
    With STC up to 25 kts
    Cloud base 300ft and visibilty 1’500m
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12
Q

How far in from the threshold is the touchdown point as defined by Cathay?

A

1’500 ft

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13
Q

What happens to thrust de-rate as you climb?

A

CLB 1, 10% to 10’000ft and linear to 30’000 ft
CLB 2, as above but 20%

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14
Q

What will happen to pressurization if you get a Dual Pack failure?

A

Slow loss of cabin pressure

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15
Q

What does a white flashing light from the tower mean?

A

Return to starting point

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16
Q

500kg difference between the preliminary and final loadsheet is ok, where does that number come from?

A

It equates to 4 males + standard luggage

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17
Q

What are the cross wind limits for LVO approaches in USA and Canada?

A

15 kts

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18
Q

When will the RAT deploy automatically?

A
  • Both engines failed and C HYD SYS low
  • Both AC transfer busses are unpowered
  • All three HYD systems are low
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19
Q

Which tyre is #8?

A

Middle section outer tyre on starboard side

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20
Q

How much Dry Ice can we carry and in which compartments?

A

FWD 800 kg
AFT 670 kg

Total 1470 kg

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21
Q

In which compartment can Durian fruit be carried?

A

Only the AFT compartment

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22
Q

What is the buffer between TTL and TM time on the flightplan?

A

20 min

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23
Q

If you get a PRSOV problem for both engines in flight, what are your initial actions?

A

Descend in FLCH to 22’000 ft so APU bleed can be used

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24
Q

When will the APU and RAT automatically come online?

A

When both X-transfer buses are off line

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25
Q

What could be the VERY first indication of an engine failure?

A

The GEN LIGHT illuminates on the overhead panel

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26
Q

What are the tolerances on the FINAL LOADSHEET regarding TOW and CG before you have to request new RTOW data?

A

500kg
+/- 1% MACTOW

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27
Q

When do you have to do the “Runway/Takeoff Data Change”checklist?

A

If the Before Start Checklist has been completed prior to receipt of the FINAL LOADSHEET and new RTOW data is required

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28
Q

What is the definition of max altitude for the B777?

A

Absolute max is 43’100 ft
Service ceiling is when ROC is 300 ft or less

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29
Q

How much can the QNH change on the RTOW?

A

Assumed temp has a 2hpa padding
Max thrust has no padding, has to be equal or greater

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30
Q

What backup procedures do we have if ACARS system fails?

A
  • ALT SEND function
  • Perf TOLD app
  • WEB RTOW
  • SMS RTOW
  • SIMPLIFIED RTOW DATA
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31
Q

How will a complete electrical failure affect the CAPT and FO flight displays?

A

CAPT will be powered by the battery and the F/O:s will come alive as soon as the the RAT provides sufficient power to the C1 and C2 TRU:s

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32
Q

Does the FMC use Totalizer or Calculated fuel to predict arrival fuel?

A

Calculated

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33
Q

How do you disable the GPS updating feature in the FMC is you get a “RWY DISAGREE” message?

A

INIT REF-INDEX-POS 3/3

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34
Q

What documents/equipment do you need to carry as crew for a flight?

A

Flashlight
Licence
Passport
ICAO Crew Card

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35
Q

What is the 90/60 rule regarding EDTO verification flights?

A

Initial segment must be within 60 min of a suitable airfield for 90 min prior to entering the EDTO segment

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36
Q

Under what circumstances can a pilot sign off on maintenance work?

A
  • No 2nd engineer
  • Only a minor adjustment
  • Crew member is qualified on type
  • Recorded in log book
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37
Q

What events will trigger a “CONFIG WARNING” on take-off?

A
  • Any door not closed or locked
  • Flaps not in T/O position
  • Park brake set
  • Rudder trim not centered
  • Speed brake lever not down
  • Stab trim not on in the green
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38
Q

What are the RVR definitions for LVO take-offs and landings?

A
  • Take-off: RVR less than 400m
  • Landing: RVR less than 550m
39
Q

Can a passenger take their own therapeutic oxygen bottle onboard?

A

No, only company supplied oxygen cylinders will be accepted for passenger use in the cabin

40
Q

How fast will the cabin altitude climb if both packs fails without any other faults?

A

300-700 fpm

41
Q

What would the difference in landing distance be if you are not using reverse?

A

Would be the same as autobrake would do more of the work

42
Q

What is the minimum speed above optimum altitude?

A

M0,82

43
Q

What is the minimum amount of cabin crew required?

A

1 per door

44
Q

What should be the holding speed above and below 10’000ft?

A
  • Below: Use FMC best hold speed. Will never be less than Vref+80.
  • Above: Vref 30+120
45
Q

What is the taxi speed that triggers an FDAP report?

A

35 kts

46
Q

Before what speed do you have to press TOGO on the runway? What happens if you don’t?

A

Before 50 kts
If you don’t, A/T is not available until 400ft

47
Q

What is the max difference between CAPT and FO altimeters on the ground?

A

75ft

48
Q
  • What is the transition speed between IAS & Mach?
  • Roughly at what altitude does this occur?
A
  • 310/0.84M
  • Roughly at FL290
49
Q

What is the minimum cooldown time for GE engines?

A

3 min after landing

50
Q

What do you input in the FMC if MACTOW is less than 24% for rwy 07R?

A

F07R

51
Q

If an RNAV approch has a temperature below the chart limit temperature, can you still do the approach?

A

Approach can still be flown but only to LNAV minima. Not to LNAV/VNAV minima

52
Q

What is the meaning of STA on a CFP?

A

Parking time

53
Q

What items does the Ground Handling Bus power?

A

Fueling

Cargo doors

Water

Lavatory

54
Q

Does reverse thrust provide a shorter Landing Distance on a dry rwy?

When will the use of reverse thrust be beneficial?

A

No, as auto brake will do the job

When braking action starts to deteriorate. Good- Medium

55
Q
  • Define “Balanced Field Length”

-What is the purpose of using balance field length?

A
  • ASDA=TODA (with an engine failure at V1 and reach V2 by 35 ft
  • To simplify calculations, otherwise you might have two V1 speeds. One for stopping and one for continuing
56
Q

What is the definition of TODA?

A

Take-off run + available clearway

57
Q

In which Cargo compartments can you carry magnetized materials?

A

Compartments 2 and 3

58
Q

What does a discontinuity on LEGS page mean for how the aircraft will navigate?

A

It assumes a straight line to the next waypoint

59
Q

How does the de-rate taper work on the GE engines?

A

Full de-rate until 10’000 ft and then tapers off until 12’000 ft

60
Q

Why is the cross wind limitaions higher for landing than for take-off?

A

Higher speed for landning makes the rudder more effective.

Also has to do with VMCG on ground and VMCA in the air

61
Q

Why is there a difference in cross wind limitaions for MAC more than 35%?

A

Because of the longer moment arm between the CG and the rudder

62
Q

What is the max flap setting with Alternate Flaps?

A

Flaps 20

63
Q

What is the maximum speed for the B777-300ER?

A

M0.89 or 350 kts

64
Q

With TERR selected on the ND, what does the different colors mean?

A

Dotted green = Terrain is from 2000 ft to 500 ft below (within 320nm)

Dotted amber = Terrain is from 500 ft below to 2000 ft above

Dotted red = Terrain is more than 2000 ft above

Dotted magenta = No terrain data available

Solid amber = Terrain Caution Alert

Solid Red = Terrain Warning Alert

Sold/High density/Low densityGreen = Aircraft is more than 2000 ft above terrain

65
Q

The BCF in the cockpit runs out, where is the nearest BCF located?

A

In the doghouse at door L1

66
Q

How many ELT:s do we have on the aircraft and where are they located?

A

3

L2, L5 (portable) and aft aircraft ceiling (fixed)

67
Q
  • What’s the limitation for water on the runway?
  • What is the limitaion for Dry Snow on the runway?
A
  • 13 mm
  • 102 mm
68
Q

What is the normal tyre pressure for the nose wheel and the main gear?

A

200 psi for the nose gear

220 psi for the main gear

69
Q

On approach before selecting gear down, you get HYD PRESS SYS C, what are your actions?

A

Go-around to sort out the problem via the checklist.

Use alternate landing gear system via the C HYD reservoir. Should always have fluid in the lines.

70
Q

Where would you find information if an airport/approach has RNP Approval?

A

In the Port Pages

71
Q

What’s the engine cooldown time for the GE engines?

A

3 min

72
Q

At what speed is the TAC operational?

A

From 70 kts

73
Q

VHHH 18022G34 1000m +RASH OVC 0800 33/29 QNH 999

Prepare a brief for the captain

A

Land 25R
FO crosswind limits
Configure early
Increase Vref
Expect tailwind approach
Consider autoland
Check rwy contaminated
Wind shear
Alternate Fuel Macau or ZGSZ

74
Q

How long is a NOSIG valid for in a METAR?

A

2h

75
Q

NOTAM says:
“ILS Awaiting Flight Check”
Can we fly the ILS approach?

A

Yes

76
Q

Does the Grid Mora on the Paper EDG:s accout for temperature?

A

Yes, enough to cater for LOW TEMP ALTIMETRY

77
Q

What is the limitation for Standing water on the runway for landing?

A

None, 13mm only applies to take-off

78
Q

How can you disconnect the Auto Brake system?

A
  • Manually press the toe brakes
  • Setting brake dail to OFF position
  • Move SPD Brake lever to down position
  • Increase thrust
79
Q

What the formula to calculate when the B777 starts aquaplaning?

A

Square root of the tyre pressure x 9

80
Q

When can you NOT abort a landing?

A

Once you have pulled REV THRUST

81
Q

Thrust levers retard but engine keeps on running normally, what are your actions and what could be the cause?

A

ENG/LIM/SURGE CHECKLIST
Ice Crystal Icing can be the problem

82
Q

What is the difference between:
- Surge
- Stall

A
  • Surge is complete breakdown of airflow
  • Stall is isolated blades that stalls
83
Q

Up to what point is the MEL applicable?

A

Until moving under our own power for the purpose of taking off

84
Q

What is the best Flaps Up holding altitude for fairly heavy weights?

A

FL100 to FL150

85
Q

What colour are the pax and crew life jackets?

A

Crew is Orange
Pax is Yellow

86
Q

At a 180ETOPE CP you suffer an engine failure, how much fuel will you land with according to the OFP?

A

Impossible to say, but more that in the OFP as it is in this case calculated for Depress and Eng Inop.
You will not descend to FL100 with just an Engine Inop

87
Q

Why do you disconnect the A/T with TCAS memory items?

A

A/T will attempt to fly the bug speed and you probably want more flexibility when selecting your speed

88
Q

When would you make your final decision regarding “in-flight fuel reduction”?

A

About 2h before abeam or overhead last suitable ERA as a METAR is good for 2h and can override a TAF

89
Q

Why should you not use a high Autobrake setting on slippery/contaminated runways?

A

Cause it takes a lot of effort to disconnect the brakes

90
Q

Which countries requires departure with “RUNWAY HDG” without drift correction?

A
  • USA
  • CANADA
  • AUSTRALIA
91
Q

When is it strongly suggest to do an Autoland?

A

Cloud base = 300 ft
Visibility = 1500 m

92
Q

What system is used to generate Nitrogen for the NGS?

A

The Bleed Air System

93
Q

Describe the procedure for adding speed to Vref during gusty conditions?

A

Max 15 kts addition

STI (8 decks)

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