Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

Patient Self-Determination Act

A

This Amendment was passed by the United States Congress in 1990 as an amendment to the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990. The purpose of this act to ensure that a patient’s right to self-determination in health care decisions be communicated and protected. Through advance directives–the living will and the durable power of attorney–the right to accept or reject medical or surgical treatment is available to adults while competent, so that in the event that such adults become incompetent to make decisions, they would more easily continue to control decisions affecting their health care.

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2
Q

PDSA Cycle

A

The PDSA Cycle (Plan-Do-Study-Act) is a systematic process for gaining valuable learning and knowledge for the continual improvement of a product, process, or service.

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3
Q

x

A

x

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4
Q

Current legislative issues being addressed at the state level in many states include all of the following except:
a. Do not resuscitate orders.
b. Medicare hospice protection act
c. Physician- assisted suicide.
d. Advance care planning.

A

b - The Medicare Hospice Protection Act was introduced in 2008 on the Federal level within both the Senate and the House as an effort to eliminate the budget neutrality adjustment factors issued by CMS. State level legislative issues include DNR, Physician-assisted suicide, advance care planning, pain and symptom management and reimbursement.

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5
Q

Which of the following actions would best allow a hospice/palliative MSW to remain current on legislative and policy issues important to hospice/palliative care?
a. Routinely review current issues of hospice/palliative care journals.
b. Obtain updates from employer on current issues at staff meetings.
c. Join the NHPCO’s Hospice Action Network to receive important updates.
d. Inquire of senators/representatives in office what the issues are.

A

c - The best action here to remain current on hospice legislation and policy issues would be to join the NHPCO’s Hospice Action Network as it provides routine email updates, has a Facebook page, and website that allows for current, up-to-date information on these issues along with many other resources in an advocacy toolkit.

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6
Q

Which of the following types of evidence-based practice research studies would be considered to be the most rigorous?
a. Case study
b. Randomized control
c. Statistical
d. All of the above.
e. Both b and c only.

A

e - Randomized control and Statistical studies are considered to be the most rigorous in relation to evidence-based research.

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7
Q

OSHA requires which type of precautions to be included in each patient’s plan of care?
a. Contact isolation precautions
b. Droplet precautions
c. Standard precautions
d. All of the above

A

c - The correct answer is standard precautions as these are required for each and every patient. Contact isolation and droplet precautions would be in place for specific types of infections or conditions and not utilized for every patient’s plan of care.

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8
Q

OSHA mandates that employers do which of the following annually for their employees in relation to the blood borne pathogens standard?
a. Update the exposure control plan.
b. Provide Hepatitis B vaccination.
c. Provide training and information.
d. All of the above
e. Both a and c only

A

e - The OSHA blood borne pathogens standard requires the following to be completed annually: Update the exposure control plan and provide training and information to employees. PPE must be routinely available to employees, and replaced as needed. Hepatitis B vaccination is required to be offered within 10 days after blood borne pathogen training is completed, but is not repeated annually.

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9
Q

In which stage of group development is conflict, dissatisfaction and competition likely to arise?
a. Forming
b. Storming
c. Norming
d. Re-forming

A

b - Storming is the stage in which members compete for power and status and roles/relationships are addressed.

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10
Q

The stage of group development in which members define goals and rules of behavior:
a. Storming
b. Forming
c. Performing
d. Norming

A

d - Norming is the stage in which members define goals and rules of behavior.

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11
Q

Homan identified a framework for group process that included three essential elements. Which of the following is not one of those elements?
a. Communication
b. Attitudes
c. Interactions
d. Activities

A

a - The three essential elements identified by Homan’s framework are activities, interactions and attitudes.

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12
Q

Which of the following statements best defines collaboration in hospice/palliative care?
a. Collaboration allows each team member to work independent of one another to provide care to a challenging group of patients.
b. Collaboration can overcome issues related to poor communication and lack of role clarity.
c. Collaboration enables the sustainability of the team to provide care to a challenging group of patients.
d. Collaboration requires a formal leader to be in charge of the group.

A

C

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13
Q

The primary role of the RN Case Manager within the interdisciplinary team (IDT) is which of the following?
a. Ensure proper documentation of all IDT members at each visit.
b. Schedules all visits for IDT members.
c. Supervises and directs activities of IDT members.
d. Coordinates and oversees the IDT plan of care and its implementation.

A

d - The primary role of the RN Case Manager is to coordinate and oversee the IDT plan of care and the implementation of that plan of care. The RN Case Manager is not responsible for documentation of other members, scheduling of visits, or the supervision of any IDT member other than the hospice aide.

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14
Q

The three C’s of outpatient palliative care include which of the following?
a. Cooperation, Communication and Closure
b. Collaboration, Cooperation, and Coordination
c. Coordination, Collaboration and Closure
d. Cooperation, Collaboration and Communication

A

a - The correct answer is Cooperation, Communication and Closure. All of the others are certainly important as well, but these are the key features identified as necessary and at the heart of outpatient palliative care.

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15
Q

The Patient Self Determination Act dates from
A. 1983
B. 2019
C. 1990

A

C

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16
Q

Checklist to eliminate inappropriate answers(Goals of questions is to be reflective of goals and concepts of hospice and palliative care SW

A

Does the answer take the whole person into consideration?
Does the answer consider total pain or suffering?
Does the answer take the entire IDT into consideration?
Does the answer relate to the entire practice , not just a particular organization, county or state?
Does the answer relate to a micro, meso, or macro perscpective–or combinatoin?
Does answer consider the order of of operations?

17
Q

Order of alerts within the team
a. PAIN, SAFETY ON DISCHARGE, SPIRITUAL DISTRESS, HIPAA
B. SAFETY ON DISCHARGE, PAIN, SPIRITUAL DISTRESS, HIPPA
C. HIPPA, PAIN, SAFETY ON DISCHRAGE, SPIRITUAL DISTRESS

A

a. pain–safety/life of Pt in in danger or doubt
Safety on discharge–1st consideration in planning–safety in the home, SI
spiritual distress
Hippa–who has the right to know-alert team to SI and Pt’s preference to who gets included in dx and planning.

18
Q

Strategy for questions that ask What is the FIRST thing to do…

A

consider what needs to be done before any of the other choices–correct choice will determine whether the other alternatives can even be applied

19
Q

Strategy for questions asking BEST next step?

A

best response may incorporate some aspect of the definition of what it is to provide palliative care–addresssing the whole person, the entirety of their distress, and/or interacting with the whole IDT

20
Q

Strategy for questions that ask WHAT IS THE MOST EFFECTIVE?

A

may be searching for your understanding of which approach is
evidence based
an approach that works for this particular application
an alternative that works only temporarily, when a permanent change is sought
a specific technique that addresses specific situation