Miscellaneous

Question 1

What 3 components are involved in Kobasa’s definition of hardiness?

Answer 1

1) Commitment - a sense of purpose and involvement in one’s life
2) Challenge - an openness to new experiences and change
3) Control- the belief that one has the ability to influence one’s life or events

Question 2

What are the 4 steps of a needs analyses and why do them?

Answer 2

Needs analyses are done to determine training needs. The simplified steps include:
1) Identify if training is needed
2) Identify what needs to be done well
3) Identify who needs training
4) Identify if different people have different needs

Question 3

What are Super’s 5 Career Development Life Span stages?

Answer 3

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1) Growth (0 to 14 years)
2) Exploration (14 to 25) - specify, crystalize, and implement career choice
3) Establishment (25 to 45) - cultivate career
4) Maintenance (45 to 65) - securing position and remaining competitive
5) Disengagement (65 and over)

Question 4

What assessment can be used to assess Super’s job maturity?

Answer 4

Career Development Inventory

Question 5

What is Super’s career development theory?

Answer 5

Super’s career maturity (career adaptability) describes a person’s ability to cope with the developmental tasks of their stage and focused on the self-concept job fit

Question 6

What are Holland’s 6 personality/work types?

Answer 6

Holland focused on personality/job fit using RIASEC occupational themes:
1) Realistic (R for railroad worker): Preferences are technical, physical, mechanical, and outdoor activities.
2) Investigative (I for investigator): Preferences are scientific, mathematical, analytical, and scholarly activities.
3) Artistic (A for artist): Preferences are music, art, writing, drama, and other creative activities.
4) Social (S for social worker): Preferences are activities that involve working with and helping others.
5) Enterprising (E for entrepreneur): Preferences are activities that involve competition, management, sales, and public speaking.
6) Conventional (C for accountant): Preferences are structured, unambiguous activities that involve organizing data, attending to detail, and following through on others’ instructions.

Question 7

What are Roe’s 8 basic job fields?

Answer 7

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1) Service
2) Outdoor
3) Organization
4) Technology

5) Business Contact
6) Arts and Entertainment
7) General Cultural
8) Science

Question 8

How many levels are there to Roe’s job complexity range?

Answer 8

6 levels of complexity that range from unskilled to professional and managerial.

Question 9

What is Krumboltz’s career counseling approach and which assessment is associated with him?

Answer 9

Krumboltz’s approach focuses on continual learning and self-development, which enable the individual to respond to changes in work requirements.

He is associated with the Career Belief Inventory which can be used to identify irrational, illogical beliefs that affect an individual’s career-related decisions.

Question 10

What are Brousseau and Driver’s 4 dynamic career models?

Answer 10

Brousseau and Driver’s ideal career paths:
1) Linear career concept - progressive upward movement in terms of authority and responsibility
2) Expert career concept - lifelong commitment to an occupational specialty and focus on developing knowledge and skills
3) Spiral career concept - periodic moves across occupational specialties or disciplines
4) Transitory career - frequent job changes to unrelated fields

Question 11

What are the 2 tenants of Dawis and Lofquist’s theory of work adjustment?

Answer 11

1) Satisfaction - the degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond to needs and values
2) Satisfactoriness - the extent to which the worker’s skills correspond to the skill demands of the job

Question 12

What assessment is associated with Dawis and Lofquist’s theory of work adjustment?

Answer 12

The Work Values Assessment helps identify occupations that fit needs and values and assesses 21 work needs that correspond to six work values – achievement, independence, recognition, relationships, support, and working conditions

Question 13

What are the 7 career theorists and their associated career theory?

Answer 13

1) Holland - personality/job fit
2) Brousseau and Driver - career-concept/job fit
3) Super - self-concept/job fit
4) Roe - basic needs/job fit
5) Tiedeman and O’Hara - ego identity development/job fit
6) Dawis and Lofquist - personal & work values/job fit
7) Krumboltz - social learning/job fit

Question 14

What are the premises of Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership styles?

Answer 14

Preferred leadership style (task and relationship orientations) depends on job maturity (ability and willingness to accept responsibility)

Question 15

According to Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership styles, what is a telling leader and when are they most effective?

Answer 15

A telling leader has a high task, low relationship style and is most effective for employees who are low in both ability and willingness

Question 16

According to Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership styles, what is a selling leader and when are they most effective?

Answer 16

A selling leader has a high task, high relationship style and is most effective for employees with low ability and high willingness

Question 17

According to Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership styles, what is a participating leader and when are they most effective?

Answer 17

A participating leader has a low task, high relationship style and is most effective for employees with high ability and low willingness

Question 18

According to Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership styles, what is a delegating leader and when are they most effective?

Answer 18

A delegating leader has a low task, low relationship style and is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and willingness

Question 19

According to Simon, what does bounded rationality mean and when does it happen?

Answer 19

Bounded rationality occurs when decision-makers make irrational decisions due to limitations to abilities, time, and resources.

Question 20

What are Hofstede’s 5 dimensions of national culture?

Answer 20

1) Power distance - acceptance of unequal distributions of power
2) Uncertainty avoidance - willingness to tolerate ambiguity
3) Individualism - extend to which individuals or groups are the basis of the social system
4) Masculinity - priority on assertiveness, independence, and competitiveness
5) Long-term orientation - focus on future versus past/present

Question 21

What 3 factors contribute to variability in a study’s DV?

Answer 21

1) Experimental variance - the effect of the IV
2) Systematic error - error due to confounding variables
3) Random error - error due to random fluctuations in subjects, experimental conditions, methods of measurement, etc.

So an investigator wants to (a) maximize variability in the DV that is caused by the IV, (b) control variability that is due to extra variables, and (c) minimize variability caused by random error

Question 22

What is the definition of a nominal scale?

Answer 22

A nominal (categorical) scale divides variables into unordered categories where the numbers merely act as labels and do not provide information about the categories.

Ex: Gender, religion, political affiliation, DSM diagnosis

Question 23

What is the definition of a ordinal scale?

Answer 23

An ordinal scale not only divides variables into categories but also provides information on the order of those categories. They do not tell you how MUCH of a difference there is between scores though (e.g., Likert rating 1 vs 2 doesn’t mean 2 is 50% more than 1).

Also, zeros are arbitrary and cannot represent an absolute lack or absence of something.

Ex: Rankings and Likert scales

Question 24

What is the definition of a interval scale?

Answer 24

An interval scale provides information about the order AND degree of difference between points of the scale. However, zeros are arbitrary again and cannot represent an absolute lack of absence of something. This lack of 0 means mathematic calculations can’t be performed.

Ex: IQ scores or temperature

Question 25

What is the definition of a ratio scale?

Answer 25

A ratio scale provides information about the order and degree of difference between points. Additionally, they have absolute zero points to represent a complete absence of the characteristic being measured. An absolute zero point makes it possible to multiply and divide ratio scores and to determine more precisely how much more or less of a characteristic one person has compared to another. Ex: Number of products sold, money raised, calories consumed

Question 26

In a normal distribution, what percentages correspond with +/-1 standard deviation, +/-2 standard deviations, and +/-3 standard deviations from the mean?

Answer 26

1 standard deviation - 68% 2 standard deviations - 95% 3 standard deviations - 99%

Question 27

What is the standard deviation?

Answer 27

The standard deviation is the square root of the variance.

Question 28

What is the standard error of the mean?

Answer 28

The standard error of the mean is equal to the standard deviation of a sampling distribution of the mean. It provides an estimate of the extent to which the mean of any one sample randomly drawn from a population can be expected to vary from the population mean as the result of sampling error. In other words, it is a measure of variability that is due to the effects of sampling error.

Question 29

What is the formula for the standard error of the mean (SEM) ?

Answer 29

SEM = Population's SD / Square Root of the Sample Size Example: 10 pop SD / square root of sample size 25 = 10/5 = 2 The standard error of the mean (SEM) decreases as the sample size increases.

Question 30

What are the 2 types of tests for nominal data?

Answer 30

Only 2 nonparametric tests exist for nominal, there are no parametric tests. They are either single sample or multiple sample chi-square tests depending on if there are 1 or 2+ variables.

Question 31

What are the 3 tests for ordinal data?

Answer 31

Only 3 nonparametric tests exist for ordinal data, there are no parametric tests. 1) Mann-Whitney U test (2 independent groups) 2) Wilcoxon matched-pairs test (2 correlated groups) 3) Kruskal-Wallis test (2+ independent groups)

Question 32

What 3 t-tests, 7 analyses of variance tests, and 1 extra test are available for interval or ratio data?

Answer 32

Interval and ratio data get parametric tests that are grouped as t-tests or analyses of variance with or without M/Cs. 1) T-tests for single, independent, or correlated samples 2) One-way ANOVA (1 IV, 2+ independent groups) 3) Factorial ANOVA (2+ IVs, independent groups) 4) Randomized block ANOVA (confound is included as an IV) 5) ANCOVA (confound is removed) 6) Mixed ANOVA (independent and correlated groups) 7) Repeated measures ANOVA (2+ correlated groups) 8) MANOVA (2+ DVs) 9) Trend analysis (quantitative IV)

Question 33

How do you calculate the degrees of freedom for a t-test?

Answer 33

Total number of subjects - 1, so N -1 = dF

Question 34

How do you calculate the degrees of freedom for a chi-square test?

Answer 34

Single-sample: Total number of categories - 1, so C - 1 Multiple-sample: Total number of categories by column - 1 x total number of categories by row - 1, so C-1 x R-1 = dF

Question 35

What do the numerator and denominator of the ANOVA's F-ratio represent?

Answer 35

Numerator = MSB (mean square between) (mean variance due to treatment AND error) Denominator = MSW (mean square within) (mean variance just due to error) MSB/MSW = Treatment + Error / Error = F ratio

Question 36

What does Cohen's d represent and what were his effect size descriptors?

Answer 36

Cohen's d represents the different between group means in terms of standard deviations. So an effect size of .2 means one group's mean was .2 SD greater than the other's mean. Small = 0.2 Medium = 0.5 Large = 0.8.

Question 37

What does eta squared represent?

Answer 37

Eta squared represents the percent of variance in the DV that is accounted for by variance in the IV. So an eta squared of .55 means that the IV accounted for 55% of variability in the DV.

Question 38

What are 5 ways to increase power of a statistical test?

Answer 38

1) Increase alpha 2) Increasing sample size 3) Increase effect size 4) Conduct a one-tailed test 5) Decreasing random error

Question 39

What variables are used for the correlation coefficient Pearson r?

Answer 39

Variable 1 & 2: Interval or ratio (IQ, dollars earned)

Question 40

What variables are used for the correlation coefficient Spearman rho?

Answer 40

Variable 1 & 2: Rank-ordered (graduating class rank) **This is the only major correlation coefficient that involves variables that AREN'T interval or ratio

Question 41

What variables are used for the correlation coefficient Biserial and Point Biserial?

Answer 41

For the Point Biserial, one variable is a true dichotomy (gender), whereas for the Biserial, one variable is an artificial dichotomy (favorable/unfavorable). Then with both, the second variable is interval or ratio (IQ, dollars earned)

Question 42

What variables are used for the correlation coefficient Eta?

Answer 42

Variable 1 & 2: Interval or ratio (IQ, dollars earned)

Question 43

What are the 3 assumptions associated with correlation coefficients?

Answer 43

1) Linearity - straight line relationship 2) Unrestricted range 3) Homoscedasticity - equal DV ranges between groups

Question 44

Regarding scatterplots, what does "the range of Y scores at every value of X is equal to the total range of Y scores" indicate?

Answer 44

There is a 0 or near-0 correlation between X and Y.

Question 45

What is the coefficient of determination?

Answer 45

It is essentially an effect size for correlations and represents shared variability. The squared correlation coefficient indicates the proportion of variability in Y that is explained by, or accounted for by, variability in X. For example, if the correlation coefficient for sales success and product knowledge is .60, then 36% (.60 squared = .36) of variability in sales success is accounted for by product knowledge.

Question 46

What are the three approaches to healthcare?

Answer 46

The Private Model (private funds), Beveridge Model (public funds), and Bismarck Model (mixed private and public funds)

Question 47

What are the 5 most common complaints processed that results in revocation of licensure?

Answer 47

1) Loss of licensure in another jurisdiction 2) Sexual misconduct with an adult 3) Inappropriate practice involving child custody 4) Nonsexual dual relationship 5) Inappropriate practice involving insurance or fees

Question 48

What do specialty guidelines about forensic psychology say about using case material for teaching, training, or research?

Answer 48

Such information can be used but only in a fair, balanced, and respectful manner. Additionally, the psychologist must: 1) De-identify information and use only information available in the public domain 2) Or obtaining consent from the relevant person(s)

Question 49

What is the privacy/confidentiality rule regarding employers and employee assistance programs?

Answer 49

Employers have the right to know about attendance but information beyond that requires a release of information or for the work to be part of a fitness for duty evaluation

Question 50

What is an example of a high ratio?

Answer 50

1:1

Question 51

What is an example of a low ratio?

Answer 51

1:100

Question 52

What is specificity?

Answer 52

Specificity refers to probability that a test will correctly identify people WITHOUT the disease from the pool of people WITHOUT the disease. True negatives/(true negatives + false positives)

Question 53

What is sensitivity?

Answer 53

Sensitivity refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify people WITH the disease from the pool of people WITH the disease. True positives/(true positives + false negatives)

Question 54

What is positive predictive value?

Answer 54

The positive predictive value is the probability that a person identified by the test as having the disease actually has the disease. True positives/(true positives + false positives)

Question 55

What is negative predictive value?

Answer 55

The negative predictive value is the probability that a person identified by the test as not having the disease does not actually have the disease. True negatives/(true negatives + false negatives)

Question 56

How is a reliability coefficient interpreted?

Answer 56

A reliability coefficient is interpreted directly as a measure of true score variability. So a reliability coefficient of .60 = 60%

Question 57

What are key considerations for working with African American clients?

Answer 57

1) Interconnected and collectivist worldview 2) Extended kinship network (including church) 3) Family roles may be flexible 4) Healthy cultural paranoia 5) Clinical recs: Ecological/multisystem approach, time-limited, directive, goal-oriented, problem-solving, empowerment, and egalitarianism

Question 58

What are key considerations for working with Native clients?

Answer 58

1) Spiritual/holistic worldview with emphasis on harmony 2) Personal perception of time 3) Cooperative and generous 4) Emphasizes listening 5) Emphasizes extended family 6) Collectivist and democratic decisions/social organizations 7) Clinical recs: Respect culture, be collaborative, problem-solve, client-centered approach, avoid highly directive or confrontational techniques, and incorporate tradition/others (e.g., network therapy)

Question 59

What are key considerations for working with Asian American clients?

Answer 59

1) Collectivistic 2) Hierarchical families 3) Traditional gender roles 4) Emphasizes harmony, interdependence, mutual loyalty, and obligation 5) Values stoicism 6: Clinical recs: Be directive, structured, goal-oriented, problem-solving, focused on symptom reduction, formal, and emphasize expertise

Question 60

What are key considerations for working with Hispanic/Latino clients?

Answer 60

1) Emphasizes family welfare over individuals 2) Emphasizes allegiance to family 3) Prefers to handle intimate problems within the family or other natural support system 4) Adopts concrete, tangible approach to life 5) Attributes life events to external factors 6) Patriarchal family structure 7) Traditional gender roles 8) Stronger child-parent vs other bonds 9) Clinical recs: Be active, directive, multimodal, respect familismo, formal at first, and informal later

Question 61

What is Herek's definition of sexual stigma?

Answer 61

Societal negativity toward sexual minorities that creates power differentials

Question 62

What is Herek's definition of heterosexism?

Answer 62

Cultural ideologies that promote hostility and violence against sexual minorities

Question 63

What is Herek's definition of sexual prejudice?

Answer 63

Negative attitudes that are based on sexual orientation

Question 64

What factors are associated with greater sexual prejudice?

Answer 64

Research on the correlates of sexual prejudice has generally found higher levels of prejudice associated with: 1) Heterosexual men (versus heterosexual women) 2) Older 3) Lower levels of education 4) Southern or Midwestern states 5) Rural areas 6) Have limited personal contact with sexual minorities 7) Authoritarianism 8) Fundamentalist religious denomination 9) Conservative political views

Question 65

What is retroactive interference?

Answer 65

Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned (new) material interferes with the recall of previously learned (old) material. Think of textbooks stacked on top of each other. The new textbooks block access to the old textbooks.

Question 66

What is proactive interference

Answer 66

Proactive interference occurs when prior (old) learning interferes with the learning or recall of subsequent (new) material. Think of trying to write on previously used paper. The old writing (indentations, leftover lead) would interfere with the new writing.

Question 67

What are prevalence vs incidence rates?

Answer 67

Incidence is the measure of NEW cases in a given time period, whereas prevalence is the measure of TOTAL cases in a given time period.

Question 68

What is disorganized thinking?

Answer 68

Disorganized thinking is usually inferred from the individual’s speech and involves a loosening of associations (incoherence), answers or comments that are unresponsive to questions, and “slipping off the track” from one topic to another

Question 69

What is grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior?

Answer 69

Grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior may look like agitation, a disheveled appearance, inappropriate sexual behavior, or catatonia

Question 70

What are negative symptoms?

Answer 70

Negative symptoms involve a restriction in the range and intensity of emotions and other functions (e.g., blunted emotions, anhedonia, asociality, alogia, and avolition)

Question 71

What is alogia?

Answer 71

Diminished speech output

Question 72

What is avolition?

Answer 72

Restricted initiation of goal-directed behavior

Question 73

What is a manic episode?

Answer 73

A manic episode is a distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood and abnormally and persistently increased goal-directed activity or energy

Question 74

What is depersonalization?

Answer 74

A sense of unreality, detachment, or being an outside observer of one’s thoughts, feelings, etc. (body focused dissociation)

Question 75

What is derealization?

Answer 75

A sense of unreality or detachment involving one’s surroundings (surrounding focused dissociation)

Question 76

What are hypnogogic hallucinations?

Answer 76

Vivid hallucinations GOING to sleep

Question 77

What are hypnopompic hallucinations?

Answer 77

Vivid hallucinations just after awakening (popping up)

Question 78

What is House's Path-Goal theory?

Answer 78

House proposed that motivation, satisfaction, and performance are maximized when employees believe the leader is helping them achieve their own personal goals.

Question 79

What are House's 4 Path-Goal leadership styles?

Answer 79

1) Instrumental leaders provide specific guidelines 2) Supportive leaders focus on rapport and satisfying workers' needs 3) Participative leaders include subordinates in decision making 4) Achievement-oriented leaders set challenging goals and encourage workers

Question 80

According to expectancy theory, what does instrumentality refer to?

Answer 80

Good performance will be rewarded

Question 81

According to expectancy theory, what does expectancy refer to?

Answer 81

High effort will lead to successful task performance