Missed Lt Questions Flashcards
Phase B has just been implemented due to Hurricane Jeff that has descended upon the NYC area. All BCs shall evaluate conditions by personal survey and unit advisement in their administrative area and report findings to the Division at what hour intervals?
A: 4
B: 3
C: 2
D: 1
B
Explanation:
AUC 159 sec 5.3.9
Information to be relayed to the Division:
1-Main arteries impassable (by name)
2-Response areas flooded
3-Large areas or special hazards which are inaccessible
4-Action taken to alleviate conditions
5-Possible relocation of units to Host Companies
MAAPS
MAIN ARTERIES
AREAS INACCESSIBLE
ACTIONS TAKEN
RESPONSE AREAS FLOODED
POSSIBLE RELOCATION OF UNITS
The Resource Unit Leader can become one of the most important positions during chaotic and expanding operations. Which of the following statements regarding the assignment of the RUL is Correct?
A: At an All-Hands fire with multiple 1045’s, the IC may special call a BC to serve as RUL if necessary.
B: An Acting Battalion Chief cannot be assigned as the RUL.
C: Upon the transmission of a 3rd Alarm, the dispatcher will notify the Incident Commander of the identity of the RUL.
D: Upgrading a 10-60 to a 10-60 Code 1 will cause the dispatcher to assign a BC as RUL.
A
Explanation:
ICS Chapter 2 Addendum 2 Section 3
A is correct… The IC may special call a BC as RUL if necessary.
B - An Acting Battalion Chief MAY be assigned as the RUL.
C - the RUL is assigned upon the transmission of a 2nd alarm.
D - A RUL is assigned to all 1060 incidents.
An experienced BC would know which description of the following special units to be correct?
A: The IMT Planning Vehicle will only respond when requested by a BC or higher.
B: Hi-Rise Unit 1 and 2 are also designated as Ventilation Support Units.
C: A HMTU may operate alone, but must stay within the limits of its equipment and training. An additional FAST Truck shall be special called for support if an entry into a contaminated area is involved.
D: Collapse PODS (Portable-On Demand Storage) Transport Unit response can be requested by a BC.
B
Explanation:
A) The IMT Planning Vehicle will only respond when requested by a Staff Chief.
C) A HMTU may operate alone, but must stay within the limits of its equipment and training. A second HMTU shall be special called for support if an entry into a contaminated area is involved.
D) Collapse PODS (Portable-On Demand Storage) Transport Unit response can be requested by a Command Chief only.
Comm 7.5
Several Chief Officers were having a discussion following a 5th Alarm fire that extended from a 4-Story frame into exposures 2, 2A, 4, & 4A. Which of the following actions taken at the rapidly expanding fire regarding the positioning of Chief Officers was correct?
A: Upon the arrival of the dedicated Communications Unit Leader, the IC reassigned the RUL as the roof sector to get ahead of the extension.
B: Prior to the arrival of the Safety Operating Battalion, the IC assigned the Safety Officer to the Exposure 4 sector.
C: The RUL continued to monitor the HT for emergency transmissions after the arrival of the dedicated Communications Unit Leader.
D: Upon arrival of Field Comm, the Communications Unit Leader was reassigned to the Exposure 2A sector
C
Explanation:
A. ICS ch 2 Add 2 sec 5.1 - The Resource Unit Leader shall not be used for firefighting purposes.
B. ICS ch 2 Add 5 pg 4 - When the Safety Battalion arrives, the Safety Officer will be designated Assistant Safety Officer, released, or reassigned as determined by the IC
C. ICS ch 2 Add 2 sec 4.3
D. ICS ch 2 Add 3 sec 5.6 - The Communications Unit Leader shall not be used for firefighting purposes.
A recently promoted BC was incorrect in which action taken at a radiological emergency in Penn Station?
A: Dry decontamination measures were ordered to expedite the transfer of patients to EMS for treatment.
B: Since the dose inside of a nursing home was projected to be a maximum of 6 REMs, the BC did not evacuate the nursing home residents.
C: The Operations Chief designated a Rescue Company Officer to oversee Extraction Task Forces to achieve proper lifesaving emergency medical care in high-rise buildings and subway tunnels.
D: Extraction Task Forces included firefighters and EMS personnel in proper PPE to rapidly triage, treat and move patients with life-threatening injuries as quickly as possible out of the area to ambulances outside.
C
Explanation:
A) ERP 4 Sec 6.2.4 Wet Decon may be needed for LARGE scale radiological emergencies because it is a quick way to deal with extensive external contamination
B) Evacuate if the projected dose inside a building will reach 5 Rem for the general population or 10 Rem for special groups such as non-ambulatory hospital patients, prison residents, or nursing home residents.
C) The Operations Chief may need to designate a Battalion Chief to oversee Extraction Task Forces to achieve this goal in high-rise buildings or subway tunnels.
ERP Add 4 3.2.1 C, D, E
Venting the store windows at a taxpayer fire can relieve conditions or make conditions worse. When fighting a cellar fire in a taxpayer, who must firefighters communicate and coordinate with before venting the store front windows?
A: 1st ladder officer
B: 2nd ladder officer
C: Battalion chief (IC)
D: Permission is not needed, because it is a cellar fire and the windows are at store level
A
Explanation:
Taxpayers sec 8.2.2 (cellar fires)
Also look under Store/cockloft Fire, sec 8.3….Store/cockloft fire “Ventilation of the store at the front by the removal of show window shall be done if ordered by the Incident Commander.”
Make sure you know cellar fire vs store/cockloft fire
The incorrect procedure for a HT radio discovered stolen can be found in which choice?
A: If HT is stolen at the scene of a fire/emergency, the IC (Chief Officer) must conduct an investigation. The police shall be notified if the suspect is a civilian , the IG notified if the suspect is a department member
B: If HT is stolen at quarters in connection with an illegal entry, the police shall be immediately notified, an illegal entry or quarters report shall be forwarded by officer on duty to the Chief of Operations, and if false alarm is involved, the fire marshals notified
C: Under no circumstances shall a unit go back in service after a HT has been stolen until all notifications have been made, and a spare HT has been received
D: When a department employee is suspected of stealing a radio from quarters, BITS must be notified
D
Explanation:
Inspector General (IG)
Comm ch 11 add 8 sec 4
This is new (June 2022).
You are designated the Resources Unit Chief. Upon arrival to the Command Board you have several responsibilities . Choose the incorrect responsibility.
A: You shall inform the IC of the need for a Communications Unit if one is not assigned to respond
B: You continued to monitor the HT frequency for emergency transmissions after the arrival of a dedicated Communication Unit Leader
C: After permission from the IC you implemented relief of units especially when operations approach 0800 or 1700 hours
D: You operate on the Command channel and your aide will monitor the tactical channel
D
Explanation:
ICS ch 2 add 2 sec 4.3
Resources Unit Chief will monitor the Tactical channel, and battalion FF (aide) will monitor the Command channel
As the Incident Commander of an operation where Rescue has deployed Scuba Divers off shore to search for a drowning adult, you would be correct to ensure such divers do not dive deeper than?
A: 100 feet
B: 60 meters
C: 90 feet
D: 60 feet
D
Explanation:
AUC 337 p14
water current 2 knot max
up to 60 feet deep
diver must surface with 500 psi
90 minute max operational time
You, the BC, receive a response ticket for a severe flooding condition during a severe storm at the intersection of Queens blvd and 63 drive. You have three engines and two ladder companies on scene and decide to implement dewatering operations because you can immediately alleviate dangerous traffic conditions. Shortly into the operation, you realize that more companies are needed above the first alarm. Your next coarse of action is to?
A: Transmit a 2nd alarm
B: Notify the DC
C: Notify the Command Chief after business hours
D: Notify the Borough Commander during business hours
B
Explanation:
AUC 159 add 9 sec 2.4
2.4 Assignment of units above a first alarm assignment for dewatering operations must be approved by a DC
There is only 4 times that we can dewater during a severe storm….look at sec 2.3
1-Where major safety and dangerous traffic problems can be alleviated by immediately beginning the dewatering of major streets and highways that have been flooded by the storm
2-Where lives are endangered, such as, but not limited to; hospitals, nursing homes, and similar type occupancies
3-Where failure to dewater creates a serious fire hazard, such as; flood or rising water in close proximity to live electrical equipment or service, which cannot be disconnected safely
4- Where extensive property damage can be averted with a reasonable commitment of resources
You are a newly promoted BC working in Battalion 3, quartered with Engine 100. At 1314 hours Engine 100 responds to a Class “E” alarm at a local high-rise office building and you decide to monitor the alarm. In accordance with the FDNY’s policy on “Reduced Response E & J Alarms,” you would be correct in all of the following actions except?
A: If the preliminary report is not received in a reasonable time frame (5-10 minutes), contact the dispatcher and request a preliminary report.
B: If a subsequent alarm is received while the BC is monitoring a Class “E” or “J” alarm, the Battalion shall respond.
C: You may respond, based on your discretion. If you respond, the dispatcher shall be notified.
D: If the report from Engine 100 indicates that the alarm is for a 10-35 or 10-92 and such signal is transmitted, you will return to service.
B
Explanation:
If a subsequent alarm is received while the Battalion Chief is monitoring a Class “E” or “J” alarm, the Battalion shall NOT be directed to respond unless the dispatcher receives information of a serious fire and the assigned Battalion is the nearest available Battalion Chief (i.e. 10-75 or 10-76).
Comm Ch 6 add 2 sec 4.2, 4.3, 4.4
You arrive as the Incident Commander at a fire in a private dwelling just as the 1st due truck transmits three 10-45’s for fire victims. There is an urgent need for EMS yet you don’t see them anywhere near your command post and they are not answering on HT channel 1. Which of the following represents the CORRECT procedure when contacting EMS regarding your 10-45’s?
A: If unable to contact EMS via HT, contact the FD dispatcher with full particulars for relay.
B: You have the aide contact EMS Citywide on the UHF Radio advising that we have three 10-45’s in need of urgent care.
C: You switch to channel 10 in an attempt to raise them on the HT.
D: Use the DARS radio for direct communication on the EMS Borough frequency for relay to EMS units.
A
Explanation:
Communications Chapter 14 – Addendum 1
A. 3.6.2
B. No 10 codes during relay on EMS Citywide (only plain speak. 3.6.3
C. HT Channel 1 is used for fire, non fire and CFR related incidents 2
D. DARS radios can be used for direct communication with EMS CITYWIDE dispatch for relay to EMS units by switching to the EMS Zone, Channel 1 (EMS-CW-1). Transmissions on this frequency will NOT be heard by Fire units.3.6 Note
Any request for an exemption from the yearly limit for discretionary overtime/comp time must be pre-approved in writing by the?
A: Chief of Operations
B: Chief of Department
C: Fire Commissioner
D: Overtime Control Officer in the Mayors Office
A
Explanation:
PAID 3 ch 4 sec 2.5
Two BCs discussing outside operations at a recent 5th alarm warehouse fire pointed out one incorrect action taken. Indicate the incorrect action.
A: Since distance was short and sufficient slack was in the line, TL1 was moved without disconnecting lines as adequate manpower was available.
B: Since distance was great and hose lines had to be disconnected, lines were stretched and made ready at the new location before shutting down TL2’s stream at the TL Siamese and repositioning.
C: When special called for use of their master stream, members of TL3 will generally operate as a unit and focus on getting the apparatus properly positioned and supplied. Chief officers should assign an Engine Company to pre-stretch 3 1/2” supply lines, and inform the TL officer of the identity of the supply Engine
D: Being notified that TL1 bucket is wedged on the parapet the IC immediately notified all units on scene that the TL is unavailable for use, had members remain low in bucket, formulated a rescue plan, ordered the apparatus to be shut down with the PTO still engaged, and requested a Rescue or Squad to evaluate the structure and assist in formulating a rescue plan
B
Explanation:
Tower Ladders (L-6)
A) Ch 4 sec 4.1
B) Ch 4 sec 4.1- Water is not shut down at the TL siamese, but at the supply pumper.
C) Ch 6
D) Ch 3 p-7….remember, this is an Urgent transmission (after depressing the EAP) from the member in the bucket to the IC stating the bucket is wedged
Light, Medium, & Heavy Clutter are fire scene characteristics we frequently deal with. Of the following, which choices correctly describe medium clutter conditions? 1-Entrances & interior pathways will be partially blocked hampering movement. **2-Smoke/CO detectors will not likely be present or operating correctly. **3-Primary searches possible but delayed. Secondary searches will be delayed. **4-Fire load may exceed the capability of landlines. ***5-Minimal concern for entrapment, structural issues or unusual fire spread.
A: 2,4,5 are Correct
B: 1,3,4 are Correct
C: 3,4,5 are Correct
D: 2,3,4 are Correct
B
Explanation:
Safety Bulletin 7 ch 4 pg 4.
All of these choices are from the chart on Page 3.
Option 1 is listed under the access/egress section of medium clutter characteristics.
Option 3 is listed under the search section of medium clutter characteristics.
Option 4 is listed under the suppression section of medium clutter characteristics.
Option 2 is listed under the heavy clutter characteristics.
Option 5 is listed under the light clutter characteristics.
A Phase II “Water Pressure Emergency” procedure has just been implemented. Units shall patrol their districts as per schedules established by their DCs. Upon completing their assigned patrol duties, officers on duty shall fax to the Battalion the following information: 1) The number of illegally opened hydrants……..2) The number of hydrants shut down………3) The number of spray caps placed………4) Any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressure that could adversely affect firefighting operations. The Battalion Chief on duty receiving this information shall provide the administrative DC this information every _______ hours.
A: 2
B: 3
C: 4
D: 5
A
Explanation:
Eng 3 Add 2 sec 5.3.4 and 5.3.5
A must read for a chief officers exam
BCs may find themselves responsible for proper notifications during “noteworthy” or “potentially noteworthy” incidents. Which choice below is an incorrect example of a noteworthy incident?
A: Fires/emergencies in high-profile occupancies/locations.
B: Transportation incidents (aviation, railroad, subway, etc.) involving multiple casualties or severe service disruption.
C: A BC may be special called as the Resources Unit Leader to assist the IC with appropriate notifications.
D: One (1) or more 10-45 Code 1, Two (2) or more 10-45 Code 2 or Four (4) or more 10-45 Code 3 or 4.
D
Explanation:
D) Two (2) or more 10-45 Code 1, Three (3) or more 10-45 Code 2 or Eight (8) or more 10-45 Code 3 or 4.
Also:
Large scale evacuation of buildings, special events, etc.
Vacates involving public buildings or shelters.
Regs 11 11.5.9
There are many notifications/procedures that are made or implemented when an IC decides to use auxiliary radio communications systems (ARCS) during a fire/emergency. Choose the incorrect notification/procedure
A: IC must notify the Dispatcher for relay to responding units any time an ARCS is activated
B: IC must notify the FAST Unit when additional communication channels are used. The FAST Unit will need to obtain an additional HT for each channel in use
C: IC must notify the Dispatcher/FDOC to request a Building/Facility representative report to the Command Post if one is not on the scene
D: IC should attempt to contact members through utilization of the H/T on Channel 1 for an ARCS failure
E: IC should consider conducting a Roll Call on the Command channel of all Chiefs at the scene of an incident to insure they are operating on the correct communications channel, once a Command channel is established
E
Explanation:
IC MUST conduct a Roll Call on the Command channel of all Chiefs at the scene of an incident to insure they are operating on the correct communications channel, once a Command channel is established
Comm ch 13 sec 4 and 5.1
Which of the following private dwelling construction characteristics is correctly stated?
A: Balloon frame construction has fire stopping between floors on exterior walls, preventing rapid fire extension.
B: Open joist construction will lead to early collapse.
C: Secondary entrances can be located on the front, side and/or rear.
D: The main entrance is always located in the front of a PD.
C
Explanation:
PD Ch 2-Size Up sect 2.6
A. Balloon frame construction LACKS fire stopping between floors on EXTERIOR walls, allowing for rapid fire extension.
B. Open lightweight construction (absence of a sheetrock ceiling) will lead to early collapse.
C. sect 2.6
D. The main entrance is USUALLY located in the front of a PD.
In general, Department of Transportation regulations require placards to be posted only on trucks that are transporting _______ pounds of the particular material. Choose the most correct answer.
A: 500 or more
B: more than 500
C: 1,000 or more
D: more than 1,000
D
Explanation:
It is possible to have vehicles transporting up to 1000 pounds of a hazardous substance without placards visible on the outside of the vehicle
Haz Mat 2 Precautions 7. 1st bullet
***Code-Placard 1,001
When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in a third preventable collision in an 18-month period, they will be given a Supervisory Conference by the Battalion Commander and he/she will evaluate the circumstances of the collisions and if deemed necessary recommend to the Division Commander the revocation of Chauffeur status for up to ___ days, and/or reassignment of the Officer for a ___ day period.
A: 180
B: 120
C: 90
D: 60
D
A BC reviewing procedures for handling possible arson cases was incorrect in which choice?
A: Overhauling operations should be terminated immediately when the fire is suspicious.
B: If the officer in charge of a commercial fire establishes that it may be of an incendiary origin, there is likelihood a Fire Marshal will arrive before overhauling is completed.
C: Request the Photo Unit to respond to take pictures of the evidence if a marshal is not responding.
D: If after arrival at a commercial fire, the Fire Marshal classifies it as being incendiary, the police can thereafter maintain security.
Explanation:
A) Overhauling operations should be minimized, if possible, when the fire is suspicious.
TB Arson 5.4.1, 7.2, 8.1, 8.3
A BC should know that for a detail exceeding two (2) tours that will extend more than thirty (30) days, an OSA - 2 shall be forwarded through the chain of command to the _____ for approval.
A: Chief of Operations
B: Chief of Department
C: Chief of Personnel
D: Borough Commander
A
Explanation:
AUC 304 2.1, 2.2
You are working in B-100 for the 9X6 tour on August 12, 2018. A ticket comes in for a derailed Airtrain in the Borough of Queens. Enroute to the scene, you remember all of the following procedures to be correct for this type of incident except?
A: After power is requested to be turned off via FDNY dispatcher, Airtrain personnel will place grounding straps forward and aft of the operation to insure that the power is grounded and cannot be restored between the two grounding straps
B: Two TLs will be assigned to all Airtrain derailments
C: When an emergency is reported onboard an AirTrain that is stopped between stations, the Airtrain Operations Center will provide the Fire Department Borough Communications Office with the column number of the reported incident/location.
D: The primary method for evacuating passengers from an Airtrain that is located between stations is to have Airtrain personnel bring a rescue train from either the front or the rear of the disabled train, or to the adjoining track, and safely evacuate and transport the passengers to the next station
E: If using a TL to evacuate passengers from the guideway, the TL must be followed closely by another unit FD apparatus, whose purpose shall to block traffic, shut down roadway, and provide protection from oncoming traffic
B
Explanation:
At least ONE TL must be assigned to all Airtrain incidents/emergencies
If they give you a response ticket for this type of question, make sure there is a TL on the ticket
AUC 207 add 12
BC Brown is the IC for a top floor brownstone fire and hears the following transmission: L-115 roof to command, we have fire in the cockloft. Which of the following best describes the height of the cockloft in a brownstone?
A: This cockloft may vary in height from one foot to a height tall enough for a man to stand in.
B: Can vary in height from four inches to more than six feet.
C: Approximately 2’ to 3’ in height.
D: Some cocklofts are as much as four feet deep.
C
Explanation:
A. Rowframe 5.2.2
B. Taxpayer 3.2.1
C. Brownstone 2.2.18
D. MD H-Type Ch 1 4.9.9.I
While operating at a collapse site you hear three short blasts (1 second each) from an apparatus air horn. The three short blasts are a signal to do what?
A: Continue operations
B: Evacuate the area
C: Cease operations
D: Report to the command post
B
Explanation:
Collapse Operations 9.2
1 Long Blast (3 seconds)….. Cease Operations/All Quiet
3 short blasts (1 second each) Evacuate the area
1 long and 1 short blast…… Resume Operations
Which of the following choices is not in accordance with the FDNY’s policy on school attendance variances?
A: Mutual exchange of tours may only be made between members assigned to the same battalion.
B: Partial tour mutuals shall be not less than one (1) hour.
C: Partial tour mutuals shall be not more than six (6) hours.
D: If the cooperator desires, the reimbursement of several part tour mutuals may be accumulated to be reimbursed as a complete tour. Not more than one 15 hour tour may be accumulated.
A
Explanation:
Mutual exchange of tours may be made between members assigned to the same DIVISION.
PAID 7 ch 2 sec 3
chief study group discussing unconscious firefighter removal should know that once an unconscious member is supplied with air, turn the purge valve _____ to allow a constant flow of air.
A: 1/2 way
B: 1/4 of the way
C: Fully open
D: 3/4 of the way
A
Explanation:
MMID ch 3 7.9
*FAST PAK Training Bulletin SCBA Add.#1 Sec 8.6.3 states turn the purge valve downward
This is not a conflict, but we recommend knowing both.
BC Wrecker has a band-aide for the day and is involved in an accident just blocks away from arrival at a second alarm fire. Which action taken by Chief Wrecker was correct according to department policy?
A: The BC/Vehicle Operator is only required to obtain a copy of the police report if death or serious injury is involved.
B: Any police report or MV-104 report is to be emailed to CollisionRecordingUnit@fdny.nyc.gov email following the collision/incident.
C: The collision report shall be submitted by the BC/Vehicle Operator within 48 hours of the apparatus collision.
D: The Collision Investigation Report may be submitted by the Chief Officer involved in the collision/incident.
C
A- The BC/Vehicle Operator is REQUIRED to obtain a copy of the police report.
B- No police reports or MV-104 reports are to be forwarded to the CollisionRecordingUnit@fdny.nyc.gov email. That email address can be used to request instructions to upload the documents the the CRS using the desktop app.
D-The Collision Investigation Report shall be submitted by the Chief Officer assigned to INVESTIGATE the collision/incident. A Chief Officer involved in an apparatus collision/incident may not investigate their own collision/incident. A different Chief Officer will be assigned to investigation the collision/incident.
SB3 11, 12.1, 12.4
You the BC, are in attendance at a HQ nightly conference. The hot topic of the conference is the use of the NYC transit subway repeater system. The following statements were made in reference to the subway repeater system: 1) The repeater system is on 24/7………2) Power backup for the repeater provides a minimum of 4 hours of protection in the event of a power outage………3) The CORE H/T relay can be eliminated if the repeater system is tested and operational……..4) The IC shall test the functionality of the repeater system prior to the start of operations………5) Any member operating on the repeater channel must be teamed with an H/T equipped member operating on H/T channel 1…….6) On the Post Radio, “Subway 1” is for channel 14 and “Subway 2” is for Channel 15………..Choose the correct statements made at this conference.
A: 1,2,3,5,6
B: 2,4,5
C: 2,3,4,5
D: 1,2,4,5,6
E: 1,2,5,6
E
Explanation:
3) CORE HT relay must be established whether the station is equipped with a repeater or not……..4) Once operations are underway and conditions dictate, the IC can have the repeater system tested to see if it is functioning.
AUC 207 add 16
Accidents are classified as preventable and those that may or may not be considered preventable depending upon the circumstances. Which of the accidents listed below shall be considered preventable? **1- Ladder 1’s apparatus strikes a parked car while proceeding without an operator in the tiller. ***2- Ladder 1’s apparatus strikes a double parked car while responding in 10-20 mode to a fire. ***3- Ladder 1’s apparatus rolls into a parked car while operating at a fire (no chocks). **4- Ladder 1’s apparatus strikes several parked cars making a turn responding to a reported gas leak in 10-20 mode.
A: 1, 2 & 3 only
B: 1, 2, & 4 only
C: 2, 3, & 4 only
D: 1, 3, & 4 only
A
Explanation:
1,2, & 3 are listed as collisions that are considered preventable.
4 is listed as a collision that may or may not be considered preventable depending upon circumstances. 10-20 mode is only listed in reference to striking a vehicle while passing a double parked car.
Make sure you know this bulletin. BCs investigate collisions
SB 3 add 3 Sec 2.1 & 2.2
The Chief in charge at a 4th alarm factory fire orders the exposure 4 sector, B-28, to use a large caliber stream. A large caliber stream is any fire stream with a flow of _____ gallons per minute or more
A: 250
B: 300
C: 350
D: 400
B
Engine Company 222 is ordered by the IC to stretch the third hoseline at a 2nd alarm in a fully involved brownstone building. There is no extension into the exposures at this time. According to Brownstones, this line may be stretched to what position?
A: Through an exposure to the rear yard of the fire building
B: The top floor of the most severe exposure
C: The top floor of the least severe exposure
D: To the front of the fire building
A
Explanation:
When a brownstone is fully involved in fire, the 1st two lines are stretched into the fire building. 3rd line will be stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander and may be:
1. Advanced into the fire building.
2. If fire is reported in an exposure, stretched to that exposure.
3. If there is no fire in the exposures, stretch through an exposure to the rear yard of the fire building.
Brownstones (3.4)
Buildings supplied with steam will have a steam control room filled with pipes. There will be a number of valves to control the supply of steam. Which of the following would be correct regarding these buildings and the control valves?
A: Con Edison is the only entity generating high pressure steam in New York City.
B: Members may never shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed.
C: At a HELB in a building, it is mandatory that units immediately enter the affected area for search and rescue.
D: Monitor for the presence of radiological contaminants at a ruptured steam incident.
D
Explanation:
Steam
A. sect 1.2 - Con Edison is NOT the only entity generating high pressure steam in New York City.
B. sect 4.4 - In an emergency, members may shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed.
C. sect 4.4 - The high heat may make it impossible to enter the affected area for search and rescue until the steam is shut and the area vented.
D. sect 5
Recently, NYC has seen a few catastrophic gas explosions. You arrive on scene at a major indoor gas leak in the center store of a 9-store taxpayer. Which would be an incorrect action to take?
A: At all major natural gas leaks, notify the dispatcher to have the appropriate Electric Utility Company respond and request an ETA.
B: Check at least 3 exposures on each side of the affected occupancies for the presence of a gas odor or leak.
C: The Gas Utility Company should be contacted by the IC to define the underground infrastructure for subsurface leaks and determine any additional exposures that may be affected.
D: The IC should consider the evacuation of all buildings in proximity to the incident location when necessary.
B
Explanation:
Emergency Procedures Gas Page 40
B. That has been deleted from our books… not now reads… Members should access exposures to define the extent of gas migration.
Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the mutual exchange of scheduled RSOT tours?
A: Both RSOT mutual tours must be “scheduled” RSOT tours.
B: A RSOT tour that has been mutualed or rescheduled may only be mutualed or rescheduled again once more.
C: Mutual exchange of RSOT tours must be submitted to the Battalion on Form RS-6 at least 24 hours before the first RSOT tour for approval.
D: Mutual exchange of scheduled RSOT tours by full duty Firefighters must be completed (worked) by both parties within thirty (30) days of the first scheduled RSOT tour or by the end of the calendar year (whichever is earlier).
B
Explanation:
A RSOT tour that has been mutualed or rescheduled may not be mutualed or rescheduled again.
Choice “D” explained…you normally have to swap RSOT tours within 30 days of each other, however, the exception is the end of the year. A 12/15/2018 tour cannot be swapped for a 1/14/2019 tour even though it is within 30 days; this is because your are going into the next calendar year. In this case, the 12/15/2018 tour can only be swapped within 16 days (12/31/2018).
PAID 3 ch 2 sec 8.1-8.5
Tower Ladder 71 is responding to a reported fire in a taxpayer. Upon arrival, heavy smoke is found issuing from the roll down gates. The ladder officer ordered the following. Which should be corrected?
A: The tower ladder was positioned in front of the building.
B: The 2 ½” tip is preferable when deep penetration of the stream is necessary to hydraulically overhaul stock.
C: The basket of the tower ladder can be positioned a foot or two above the street level and the tower ladder stream can be directed into the store or stores.
D: A street level attack using a LCS to penetrate the ceiling and collapse it, thereby exposing fire in the cockloft.
B
Explanation:
A. Taxpayer sect 8.1.19
B. Ladder 6 ch 4 sec 4.2 The 1 ½” tip is preferable when deep penetration of the stream is necessary to hydraulically overhaul stock. Increasing
C. Taxpayer sect 8.1.20
D. Ladder 6 ch 4 page 3 A street level attack at Taxpayer fires using a LCS to penetrate the ceiling and collapse it, thereby exposing fire in the cockloft, enables extinguishment of fire therein.
Fresh off vacation, BC Breezes begins her first tour back by reviewing documents that landed on her desk. It was a busy week of fire duty and four multiple member injury reports are first on deck. Which of the following documents was she correct to sign and forward?
A: Engine 1 submitted a multiple injury report that listed one member who received minor injuries not requiring medical leave and two others that were granted medical leave. The member with minor injuries takes medical leave the next day from these injuries.
B: Engine 2 submitted a multiple injury report that had the officer and one member suffering burn injuries requiring medical leave and a third firefighter suffering a minor injury not requiring medical leave. The member with the minor injury gets hurt at another incident and goes on medical leave the same tour.
C: Engine 3 submitted a multiple injury report that had two firefighters receiving strains that required medical leave, the officer with burns requiring medical leave, and a minor injury to another member not requiring medical leave.
D: Sign and forward both A and C
E: Sign and forward all of the above
C
Explanation:
Safety Bulletin 1 ch 2
1.3 – The Chief of Operations requires the supervisor of a unit to submit a multiple member injury report when Three or more members suffer injuries at the SAME incident resulting in medical leave THAT TOUR.
Regulations discusses the responsibilities of Battalion Chiefs. Which of the statements below incorrectly describes Battalion Chief duties?
A: Battalion Chiefs shall not leave their administrative districts, except in response to an alarm for fire or other emergency, without the approval of the Borough Commander.
B: When a Battalion Chief arrives on the scene of an operation where an ABC is the Incident Commander, the BC shall assume command of the operation and assign the ABC as needed.
C: Each assigned Battalion Chief must visit, at least once each week, every department building over which the battalion has supervision & inspect members, uniforms, apparatus, equipment, records, and all areas of quarters.
D: Battalion Chiefs shall be responsible for investigating all injuries occurring in quarters with particular attention given to injuries at or immediately after the change of tours.
A
Explanation:
Regulations Chapter 7
A - Incorrect – the Deputy Chief on duty in the Battalion’s Administrative Division 7.2.1
B - Correct 7.2.2 A
C - Correct 7.4.1
D - Correct 7.5.1
Upon notification of an alleged incident of discrimination by a member, the Officer/Supervisor is required to notify the Fire Department’s EEO Officer. Select the incorrect method of doing so.
A: Telephone between 0800 to 1800 hours, Monday to Friday
B: Email directly to EEO
C: For incidents that effect operations during non-office hours, the EEO Officer can be reached through the Fire Department Operations Center
D: Memo with endorsements to the EEO officer via the chain of command
D
Explanation:
PA/ID 8 Ch 2 6.2, 6.3, 6.4
Confidential EEO Incident Report shall be submitted DIRECTLY to the EEO Officer in a sealed envelope marked “Confidential” without intermediate endorsement.
The High-Rise Roof Chief (HRRC) duties can be found in all of the following except?
A: While responding to the mobilization point, obtain a progress report, ID of attack and evacuation stairs, and ID of stairs that lead to the roof
B: Notify the IC of the fire through the Borough dispatcher wherein the mobilization point is located when the High Rise Roof Teams (HRRT), NYPD aviation, and ESU are assembled
C: Ensure that the HRRC, HRRTs and PD ESU are on the HT channel 1 prior to lift off
D: If available, ensure the Post Radio is taken for use on/within the structure
E: Once on the building, the HHRC shall use the Primary Command channel for contacting the Incident Command Post
C
Explanation:
AUC 269 add 1 pages 2,3
Ensure that the HRRC, HRRTs and PD ESU are on the HT channel 1 prior to lift off. The TAC U Channel would be a suitable choice during air operations and necessary for coordination and communication between FDNY/NYPD personnel
NOTE: The HRRC’s Battalion FF will remain at the mobilization point to provide security for the Battalion vehicle and HRRT apparatus
NOTE: The HRRC’s Battalion firefighter must obtain keys to both HRRT apparatus. If additional equipment is needed, a helicopter will return to the mobilization point to transport it. The Battalion firefighter will monitor the department radio for instructions.
Members studying for the upcoming chiefs exam were reviewing air pressurized standpipe systems, which are required in buildings under construction greater than 75 feet and buildings undergoing demolition with an existing standpipe. They were correct in all statements made except?
A: The number of air release valves is required to be such that air pressure shall be released in no more than 5 minutes
B: To use an air pressurized system at a fire operation the air pressure must be released from the system prior to uncapping the siamese and supplying it with water
C: A 2 1/2” manual air release/drain valve (usually a standard outlet) is required to be installed immediately adjacent to the siamese connection
D: Remove the manual air release valve cap and open the valve fully
A
Explanation:
A- The number of air release valves is required to be such that air pressure shall be released in no more than 3 minutes (2.2)
B- 2.1
C- 2.2
D- 2.2
Engine Ops ch 8 add 4
Which of the following statements correctly describes administrative actions after an investigation deems an apparatus collision preventable?
A: When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in their first preventable collision, they will be given a Supervisory Conference that shall be performed by the member’s assigned Company Commander only.
B: When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in a second preventable collision in an 18-month period they will be given a Supervisory Conference that shall be performed by the administrative Battalion Chief.
C: When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in a third preventable collision in an 18-month period, they will be given a Supervisory Conference by the Battalion Commander from the assigned Battalion.
D: When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in a second preventable collision in a 18-month period, they will be assigned to attend a one-day Collision Awareness Training (C.A.T.) class at the Bureau of Training.
C
Explanation:
C
SB3 Add 3
A- When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in their first preventable collision, they will be given a Supervisory Conference that shall be performed by the member’s assigned Company Commander and a Chief Officer from the Officer/Chauffeur’s assigned Battalion.
B- When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in a second preventable collision in a 12-MONTH period they will be given a Supervisory Conference that shall be performed by the Battalion COMMANDER.
D- When an Officer and/or Chauffeur is involved in a second preventable collision in a 12-MONTH period, they will be assigned to attend a one-day Collision Awareness Training (C.A.T.) class at the Bureau of Training.
Your battalion is 10-84 at a fire in a high-rise office building under construction. The fire is on the 38th floor and 40 floors have had their concrete poured. As the chief considers firefighting options, which characteristic regarding fire conditions on this floor is most correct?
A: Structural failure as a result of heavy fire is a real possibility on this floor.
B: The fire load on this floor would represent a bigger problem because of the storage of wood forms.
C: The shoring studs for this floor would be spaced four feet apart.
D: Shoring studs for this floor should be 8 feet apart and will present a problem if exposed to fire conditions.
B
Explanation:
Safety Bulletin 7 Ch 5
A – 40 is the most recently poured floor. The temporary storage is 2 floors below the most recently poured floor (38), which also happens to be the fire floor. Problems associated with structural failure will usually not occur on this temporary storage floor. 2.4
B – CORRECT – The problem on this floor would be a fast moving fire caused by the heavy fire load and the large horizontal and vertical openings.
C – The shoring for the most recently poured floor (40) would be 4’ apart. The shoring for the fire floor (38) would be spaced 8’ apart. 2.11
D – If units observe studs placed approximately 8’ apart, reshoring is indicated. It can be assumed that these floors are in their advanced curing stage and SHOULD NOT present a problem if exposed during fire conditions. 2.12
You’re the IC at an ammonia leak from an ice skating rink. You’re deciding whether to evacuate downwind or shelter- in-place. Sheltering-in-place is the preferred alternative when the hazardous material displays all of the following characteristics except?
A: Partially released and dissipating
B: Low to moderate toxicity
C: Small quantity solid or liquid leak
D: A migrating vapor of low toxicity and quantity and people are safer indoors than outside
A
Explanation:
ERP, Hazardous Materials
B. Totally released and dissipating
9.5.5 C 2
* Sheltering-in-place is also the preferred alternative when the release of hazardous materials can be rapidly controlled at the source
9.5.5 C 5
You just received a response ticket for a major aircraft incident at the airport. En-route you glance at the ticket and notice you are the second due battalion chief for this run. You would be correct to believe that your designation would be the ___________?
A: All-Hands Chief
B: Resource Unit Leader
C: Safety Officer
D: Staging Area Manage
D
Explanation:
AUC 325 3.3.1
Know this bulletin cold, it was rewritten since last BC exam.
Probationary Firefighters evaluations #1 (9th month) and #2 (13th month) shall be endorsed by the Division Commander who will forward these reports directly to the Evaluation Coordinator, Bureau of Personnel. Report #1 and #2 must be time to arrive within how many days of the end of the rating period at the Bureau of Personnel?
A: Within 2 days
B: Within 5 days
C: Within 15 days
D: Within 30 days
B
Explanation:
Within 5 days…..
Evaluation #3 (17th month) to arrive at the Bureau of Personnel at least 30 days before the date of tenure
This is a Battalion Chief bulletin. Another must read PA/ID 2 ch 1 sec 2
Fire extension in a private dwelling is a serious concern for everyone operating at the scene. Members need to be aware of certain construction features and how they affect fire travel. As the IC at this fire, you would know that one statement below is incorrect. Choose the most incorrect answer?
A: A quick determination as to whether a structure is balloon frame is to remove a baseboard on an exterior wall and check for the presence of a sole plate.
B: In Queen Anne balloon frame construction the 2”x4” exterior wall studs are continuous and are capped with a top plate.
C: High heat accompanied by a light to medium smoke condition with no visible fire is a sign of fire burning in the walls of balloon frame construction.
D: Platform construction effectively acts as a fire stop, and limits or restricts vertical extension via the exterior walls.
C
Explanation:
PD Ch 4-Ladder Company Ops
A. sec 3.1
B. sec 3.1
C. sec 3.1 High heat accompanied by heavy smoke with no visible fire is a sign of fire burning in these hidden spaces.
D. sec 3.3
In preparation for the Battalion Chief rank, Battalion Chief Houser assembled all the captains for the annual captains meeting to discuss District Service Cabinet (DSC) and Community Board (CB) Public Meetings. Chief Houser made the following statements about DSC and CB meetings: 1) DSC meetings are generally conducted in the morning or early afternoon……2) CB meetings are generally are conducted in the evening…….3) If the CB Battalion Coordinator (or alternate) is unable to attend on compensatory time, the Battalion Commander shall have the BC on duty (assigned or not) attend such meetings while on duty…….4) Off duty BCs will attend these meetings in Class “A” uniform…….5) On duty BCs will attend these meetings in work duty uniform, and will remain in service unless the administrative DC gives permission to be OOS for the duration of meeting…….6) On duty BCs scheduled for a DSC or a CB meeting shall notify their respective Divisions and Dispatchers at the start and conclusion of the meetings……..Battalion Chief Houser was correct in which statements?
A: 1,2,3,4,5,6
B: 1,2,4,5,6
C: 2,3,4,6
D: 1,2,4,6
D
Explanation:
3) If the CB Battalion Coordinator (or alternate) is unable to attend on compensatory time, the Battalion Commander shall have a regularly assigned BC on duty attend such meetings while on duty ( a regularly assigned BC is a chief officer working in the Battalion for more than a vacation period)
5) On duty BCs will attend these meetings in work duty uniform, and will remain OOS for the duration of such meetings unless the Supervising Dispatcher determines that circumstances necessitate their response
NOTE: If no BC is available to attend a DSC or CB meeting, a regularly assigned BC should notify the District Manager by phone prior to the meeting.
AUC 285 sec 3
You, the BC, working the 9x6 tour in B-101 on January 1, 2018, receive a phone call from a newly promoted lieutenant working in L-201 telling you that he cannot find his Metrocard, and needs advice on what to do. Before you provide advice, you make the following statements: 1) Each Metrocard has an expiration date and is identified with a unique number assigned by the MTA NYC Transit…….2) Once a day, the officer on duty shall record an entry in the Company Journal stating that the assigned Metrocard is accounted for and on the apparatus…….3) When a Metrocard is reported lost, stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall immediately notify the administrative battalion chief……4) The officer on duty shall file a police report and complete a loss property report and forward via the chain of command to the Chief of Department………You were correct in which statements?
A: 1,2,3,4
B: 1,2,3 only
C: 1,4 only
D: 2,4 only
E: 1 only
E
2- After each roll call, the officer on duty shall record an entry in the Company Journal stating that the assigned Metrocard is accounted for and on the apparatus
3- When a Metrocard is reported lost, stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall immediately notify the FDNY resource center by phone
4- Forward to FDNY resource center requesting that a replacement Metrocard be issued
AUC 207 add 3 sec 3
May or may not be an in-basket.
Firefighting operational tactics can be quite complex for most buildings, especially when cell sites are involved. Choose the incorrect operational tactic for a building with a cell site.
A: Special call an additional engine and ladder company, if the cell site installation is involved
B: Insure TL response on the initial alarm for a fire reported in these buildings
C: Consider stretching a handline to the roof at upper floor fires
D: Special call an additional Safety Officer above the 10-75 to supervise roof operations
D
Explanation:
D- Special call an additional BATTALION CHIEF above the 10-75 to supervise roof operations
AUC 331 6.3, 6.4, 6.5, 6.7
NOTE: in AUC 351 Photo-voltaic Electrical Systems (last bullet on bottom of page 6) it states: A Safety Officer should be assigned to the roof to oversee operations when FFs are working in close proximity to a PV system
You are working in B-400 on January 1st, 2018, when you receive a phone call from E-200 that the apparatus has a flat tire and the unit will be OOS for a few hours. B-400 consists of three double firehouses besides E-200; E-300, L-400, B-400; E-400, L-500; E-500, L-600, and BFU1. As the Battalion Chief of B-400, with E-200 OOS, you decide correctly to do what with the members?
A: Leave the unit intact since the repair would be less than four hours
B: Activate the BFU
C: Detail members to the Division for clerical work
D: Detail members to the Borough for clerical work
B
Explanation:
When a unit quartered in the same battalion as a BFU goes OOS for mechanical reasons during periods when the BFU is not staffed independently, the BC may utilize members of the OOS unit to activate the BFU
BFU independently staffed from March 17 to April 30 and October 17th to November 30th
AUC 151 4.5.17
You are taking up from a subway incident for a rubbish fire on the tracks. You transmit what 10 code?
A: 10-21
B: 10-22
C: 10-27-2
D: 10-28-2
D
Explanation:
A- Brush fire
B- Outside rubbish fire
C- 10-27 Compactor or Incinerator
D- 10-28 (Subway or Railroad System-Fire, Emergency (non-medical) or Smoke Condition
10-28-1 Structural fire
10-28-2 Non-Structural fire (train fire, rubbish on the tracks)
10-28-3 Emergency (non medical
Communications ch 8
Which choice below most accurately reflects the locations which are defined as a “workplace” for the purposes of the New York City Fire Department’s EEO Policy? 1. Firehouse 2. Drill site 3. Fire/Emergency scene 4. Field Building 5. Hydrant inspection 6. Fire Department Headquarters, Medical Office, etc. 7. Fire Department affiliated functions (parades, marathon runs, ball games, funerals, company dances, parties and picnics, etc.) in the city 8. Fire Department affiliated functions (parades, marathon runs, ball games, funerals, company dances, parties and picnics, etc.) outside the city
A: 1,2,3,4,5,6
B: 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
C: 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
D: 1,2,4,5,6
B
Explanation:
These include functions whether members are on or off duty
TB EEO 1.4
Who may approve the issuance of an FDNY Vacate Order?
A: Any Fire officer
B: Only a Battalion Chief or higher
C: Only a Deputy Chief or higher
D: Only a Staff Chief
D
Explanation:
AUC 5 ch 4 add 4 sec 3.1 Note
Upon inspection of a firehouse located in your Battalion, you notice that the Hydrant Pressure Chart is not posted. In regards to the Hydrant Pressure Chart, the most correct statement can be found in which choice?
A: Units shall use the Hydrant Pressure chart to monitor the PSI of the hydrant nearest quarters during the first full week in June.
B: Units shall use the Hydrant Pressure chart to monitor the PSI of the hydrant nearest quarters during the second full week in May.
C: All Engine, Ladders and Squads will take pressure readings.
D: The Hydrant Pressure chart shall be posted at the housewatch area.
D
Explanation:
A. May
B. first full week
C. Engines and Squads (NOT Ladders)
Engine Ops Ch 3 Add 2 4.1
At an incident where a tank truck carrying gasoline rolled over and caught fire, the BC should anticipate that this situation will escalate and that a large caliber foam nozzle will be required. All of the following actions will be necessary except in which choice?
A: A Satellite apparatus or Tower Ladder, if height is an issue, utilizing the Modified Angus Foam Cannon should be positioned as close as possible to the incident.
B: A 2000 GPM pumper attached to a positive water source is needed for supply. This apparatus should be as close to the incident as possible.
C: Determine a Foam Assembly Point for the Foam Tanker or Tender to deliver foam concentrate. The best placement for this is at an intersection where the units can come in and leave from the same direction.
D: The Foam Assembly Point location and direction of access should be relayed to the dispatcher for transmittal over the Department Radio. A Battalion Chief should be assigned this duty.
C
Explanation:
The best placement for this is at an intersection where the units can come in from one direction and leave by another.
TB Foam 8.8
Two Battalion Chiefs discussing the Department’s self-mutual policy for firefighters were able to identify which incorrect comment made during their discussion?
A: Requests for self-mutual on and self-mutual off shall be submitted using E-Staffing. Company
B: If possible, such requests should be made at least 72 hours in advance.
C: Firefighters shall only be permitted to link a payback self-mutual tour with a regularly scheduled work tour (24 hours) when assignments for both tours are within the same Battalion.
D: Friday 6x9 and Sunday 6x9 shall both be considered weekends
C
Explanation:
Firefighters shall only be permitted to link a payback self-mutual tour with a regularly scheduled work tour (24 hours) when assignments for both tours are within the SAME or ADJOINING COMPANY.
PAID 5 ch 2 sec 2 and 4.3
The NYC Transit Authority’s Emergency Evacuation Device (EED) can be found at a number of locations throughout the transit system. Which location below is listed incorrectly?
A: At underground stations, the EED is located at the first Blue Light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).
B: At grade level stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth.
C: At elevated stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth.
D: An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit, at both ends of each under river tunnel.
B
Explanation:
At grade level stations, the EED is located at the first Blue Light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).
In Staten Island, EEDs are located near Tower B, at the Saint George Rail Terminal and near the crew quarters at the Tottenville Train Yard.
“Keys” to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are available at EVERY token booth.
AUC 207 Add 11 3
While on BISP, your unit encounters a vacant building in poor condition. The senior member driving you reports that he has never noticed this structure before and that it has probably never been reported. You should know all of the following choices to contain correct information with the exception of which choice?
A: To report the discovery of a vacant building, the Administrative Company shall forward a DOB Referral Report Normal Priority to the Department of Buildings citing Building Vacant, Open and Unguarded.
B: If a vacant building is discovered whose structural integrity is suspect the company should forward a DOB Referral Report as High Priority. Note the structural stability affected and state specific building conditions in the remarks section of the report.
C: All units in their admin area are requested to ensure that a CIDS card is submitted for a Vacant Building. The CIDS card should state that the building is vacant and any apparent safety hazards should be listed.
D: Items not in compliance with the Fire Code may be enforced by Vacate Orders
D
Explanation:
Items not in compliance with the Fire Code may be enforced by with a V.O., or FDNY summons, or referred to FPOSU via an A-8 Fire Department Referral Report
Vacants sec 3.1,
Which point below is incorrect regarding the Department’s Extra Departmental Employement (EDE) policy?
A: While on medical leave, members are prohibited from engaging in any EDE, profession, occupation or business.
B: While on light duty or limited service, members are prohibited from engaging in any EDE, profession, occupation or business.
C: EDE is automatically revoked when a member is put on Supervised Medical Leave Program (SMLP).
D: Illness or injury sustained in EDE or while serving as a member of a volunteer fire department must be immediately reported to the Bureau of Personnel Resources and to the Medical Office by letterhead report.
B
Explanation:
B) While on light duty or limited service, members may engage in EDE only with the approval of the Fire Commissioner or the Commissioner’s designee.
D) Note: Members covered by or filing for assistance under workmen’s compensation or disability laws as a result of injury or illness sustained in EDE must make a statement to this effect in the report.
PAID 7 ch 1 sec 1.2, 1.4, 3.1.4, 4.2, 4.3
A Fast unit drill is being conducted and a member makes several statements regarding who is responsible for monitoring EFAS when all units are on scene. The member was most correct in which choice?
A: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion Firefighter, after performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit
B: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion Firefighter, before performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by the Division Firefighter
C: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Division Firefighter, after performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by a member of the FAST Unit whether or not that member is EFAS trained
D: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Division Firefighter, before performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by a Battalion Firefighter
A
Explanation:
Comm 9 Add 3 2.1
Cross Ref 2.3: When the Division is on scene, it shall be the responsibility of the Division back-up FF, if available, to report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS to either assist the EFAS trained member of the FAST unit or relieve the Battalion FF if the Battalion FF has not yet been relieved by the EFAS trained member of the FAST unit.
One of an Incident Commander’s responsibilities includes communication of details of noteworthy events to the on-duty Command Chief for relay to the Chief of Department and Fire Commissioner. Of the following choices, which is not accurately defined as a “noteworthy incident”?
A: Large scale evacuation of buildings
B: Transportation incidents (aviation, railroad, subway, etc.) involving multiple casualties or severe service disruption
C: Vacates involving public buildings or shelters
D: Fire/emergencies in any type of occupancy
D
Explanation:
D) Fire/emergencies in “high profile” occupancies/locations
Regulations ch 11 sec 11.5.9
Backdrafts and smoke explosions are dangerous fire events that do not occur often but tend to occur more frequently during taxpayer fires than in other types of occupancies. They occur when there is an introduction of oxygen to a compartment that has been pressurized by the smoke and fire gases of an oxygen-deficient fire in the _______ Stage.
A: Decay
B: Incipient
C: Fully Developed
D: Growth
A
Question 4:
Which of the following statements is not in accordance with the Department’s Workplace Violence Prevention Policy?
A: Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report shall ensure that it is forwarded in a sealed envelope directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. This report shall not be forwarded through the chain of command.
B: A copy of the written Workplace Violence Prevention Policy is available on the Fire Department Intranet. It may also be obtained by requesting a hard copy from a supervisor or the FDNY OSHA Unit.
C: In the event of a workplace violence emergency, employees are instructed to first report the emergency by calling 911, and then report to their supervisor or the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.
D: Supervisors (in consultation with their chain of command) may take any measures within their authority to correct a potential for workplace violence or to respond to a workplace violence incident including contacting law enforcement authorities, temporarily re-assigning personnel, or referring personnel for discipline.
A
Explanation:
Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report (or a verbal report) shall ensure that it is forwarded via the chain of command to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. All supervisors within the chain of command shall ensure that the report is forwarded on an expedited basis
PA/ID 8 Ch 5 1.5, 1.6, 11.1.1, 11.2.1
You are the incident commander on the scene of a confined space emergency where members will have to make an entry to remove an injured and unconscious worker. According to the confined space bulletin, which of the atmospheric conditions listed below needs correcting?
A: Carbon Monoxide toxicity levels of 35ppm or less
B: Oxygen concentration levels between 18.5% and 23.5%
C: Hydrogen Sulfide levels of 10PPM or less
D: Flammability range not over 10% of LEL
B
Explanation:
Should be 19.5% & 23.5%.
Confined Space 4.1
All marine companies carry an International Shore Connection (ISC). The ISC is a fitting designed to augment the ships fire main system when deemed necessary. It is required on vessels of 500 gross tons and greater. The fitting is connected to the vessels fire main system. All marine companies, as well as some Battalions, carry a corresponding ISC which when attached to a corresponding fitting aboard the vessel permits ______ FDNY threaded hose to be connected to the vessels fire main system.
A: 1 3/4 inch
B: 2 1/2 inch
C: 3 1/2 inch
D: 5 inch
B
Explanation:
Marine Manual Ch 2 1.12.1 Note
The ISC was hit on a previous BC exam
The new Marine Manual was released in 2021. Don’t give it up.
Repeater channel 14 has just failed during a subway incident. You, the BC, have to transmit an emergency message to all members operating on scene. You decide to instruct your aide to activate the UHF Mobile Radio located in the Battalion vehicle to switch to what channel?
A: Rev Subway 1
B: Rev Subway 2
C: Rev Subway 14
D: Rev Subway 15
A
Explanation:
One the Post radio and the UHF Mobile radio, channel “Rev Subway 1” has been added for use if Channel 14 fails, and Channel “Rev Subway 2” has been added for use if Channel 15 fails
AUC 207 add 16 sec 5.3
During a large scale incident within NYC, the DC asked you to retrieve the NYMAC radio and establish a communication link with NYPD. You retrieve the radio and turn it on and switch to which channel?
A: NYMAC channel 1
B: NYMAC channel 2
C: NYMAC channel 3
D: NYMAC Channel 4
E: NYMAC Channel 5
A
Explanation:
NYMAC channel 1 is always active and continuously staffed by NYPD personnel
Read this bulletin
Communications ch 14 add 3 sec 2.1.2
Comp time is accrued by department members during the Memorial Day and Veterans Day Holidays. Ladder 1 is a company of veterans and their Memorial Day 6x9 riding list reads as follows… Lt. Force (PCOT), Fr. Marine (mx), Fr. Army (mx), Fr. Navy (msot), Fr. Coast (11), Fr. Guard (12), Fr. Rescue (mx off)… Which members are entitled to Comp Time during the night tour?
A: All members except Fr. Rescue are entitled to 6 hours Comp Time.
B: Lt. Force, Fr. Navy, Fr. Coast, Fr. Guard, Fr. Rescue only are entitled to 6hrs Comp Time.
C: Lt. Force, Fr. Marine, Fr. Army, Fr. Navy, Fr. Rescue only are entitled to 6hrs Comp Time.
D: Lt. Force, Fr. Navy only are entitled to 6hrs Comp Time.
B
Explanation:
PAID 1 Ch 16
Eligibility is not affected by mutual exchange of tours. It shall be considered as if no mutual exchange has taken place and eligible member who was scheduled in accordance with working charts shall be entitled to actual or comp time.
** Far more likely to see this as an in-basket type question, but it could easily appear like this or as a day book photo asking you who is eligible for Comp Time and how much based on the tour. The rule of thumb is if you’re scheduled to work or on overtime, you get it… Hire a Vet! Members on mutuals are not entitled to Comp Time…
A knowledgeable BC would know that Japan had an attack on their subway system using the nerve agent Sarin (GB). Sarin has which of the following odors?
A: No odor
B: Camphor
C: Fishy, musty odor
D: Odor of musky hay
A
Explanation:
ERP Add 2 page 18
B. Soman has a camphor odor and fruit odor
C. ***Nitrogen mustard has a Fishy, musty odor. Don’t confuse with Phosphine gas which has a Fish or Garlic Like odor
D. Phosgene has an Odor of musky hay
Following the overturned tanker fire, BC Barloftster was supervising a company drill on basic foam operations and the following statements were made. Which statement below regarding when to operate a foam hand-line needs correcting?
A: When the product is a flammable liquid
B: Any source of ignition is located in the area
C: When the product causes an exposure problem
D: When members are working in the product
B
Explanation:
FOAM – Section 8.2
B is incorrect - When the product is on fire
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING TWO QUESTIONS BASED ON THE CIDS. (CLICK ON THE CIDS CARD AFTER IT OPENS TO MAKE IT CLEAR AND BIG)… An after action review was performed following a fire on the 43rd floor of the Banker’s Trust Building. Different elevators were used during the operation to access the fire area. Considering all elevators were functional, which of the choices below was most correct regarding elevator usage at High Rise Office Building fires? .
A: The A elevator car was taken to the 42nd Floor
B: The B Elevator car was taken to the 41st Floor
C:✔The C Elevator car was taken to the 40th Floor
D: The D Elevator car was taken to the 41st Floor
Explanation:
Elevators 6.1.3 – Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within 5 floors of the fire floor
6.1.4 – When necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor, select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest
C-Correct – The fire floor was 43 and the C bank of elevators terminated within 5 floors of the fire floor – This was the first and best choice
D-Incorrect – The access stair would require an elevator that services the fire floor to be taken to 39. D starts at 40
BC Welch is in charge of an “All Hands” fire where the 1st arriving OV heard a victim’s cries for help and entered the IDLH atmosphere alone to rescue the victim, you correctly performed which action following the incident?
A: Took no action
B: Forwarded a report to the Chief of Operations
C: Forwarded a report to the Fire Commissioner
D: Forwarded a report to the Chief of Safety
B
Explanation:
In all incidents of such individual action, the Incident Commander shall forward a report to the Chief of Operations. A thorough review of each of these incidents will be conducted.
Ladders 3 5.7.3 Note
You are the incident commander arriving at the location an overt biological incident. Which of the following considerations made upon your arrival needs correcting?
A: Biological agents released at dawn, dusk, or during the night will have a greater impact
B: For a release indoors, avoid entry into the area for 15 to 30 minutes to allow the biological to settle to reduce exposure to the inhalation hazard
C: Protection from a secondary device is a top priority before establishing a command post and staging areas.
D: Establish an initial exclusion zone of at least 300 feet in all directions from the source or point of release
Explanation:
ERP ADDENDUM 1 - CHAPTER 1 BIOLOGICAL AGENTS
B is incorrect – 30 minutes to 1 hour 5.2.3
Which code was incorrectly given?
A: 10-26 for cooking carelessness
B: 10-28 code 2 for a non structural fire such as a train fire
C: 10-37 for blocking traffic on a highway for EMS
D: 10-34 code 2 for a sprinkler system emergency where there was a surge in pressure
C
Explanation:
10-31 All calls for assistance other than medical assignments, including a unit assigned to protect EMS by diverting or blocking traffic at a highway incident, good intention calls, calls handled by other agencies, any type of investigation, searches and complaints, and lock-outs
comm 8
The hot topic at the annual education day for chief officers was the policies and procedures for manhole fires. The following policies and procedures were mention: 1) Only a chief officer can order the application of FireIce…..2) The objective of the application of FireIce is to enable Chief officers operating at 10-25-1, 10-25-2, and 10-25-4 manhole incidents the opportunity to suppress fires prior to the utility company arrival at the scene…….3) The member operating the nozzle should commence operations at a safe standoff distance of 50 feet……..4) Vehicles within the area which are parked over manholes, transformer vaults or service boxes can be moved at the direction of Chief Officer or left in place and protected by a handline……..5) If size-up dictates, water of FireIce may be operated into a manhole, vault or service box prior to the arrival of Con Ed by order of an on-scene FD Chief Officer (BC/ABC or higher in rank)…..6) When operating water into a manhole, vault or service box, maintain a distance of at least 15 feet from the nozzle to the manhole, vault or service box…….Which policies and procedures are correct?
A: 1,2,3,4,5,6
B: 1,2,3,4,5
C: 2,3,4,5
D: 1,2,4,5
E: 1,3,4,5
E
Explanation:
2) 10-25-1 and 10-25-2 ** FireIce is not intended for use at any type of transformer fire…10-25-4 is for a transformer
3) this is correct, however, after establishing an adequate gel solution, and as conditions allow, the nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a minimum safe distance of 25 feet from the manhole opening
6) 25 feet
AUC 180 4.6, 4.7.2, 4.8 and AUC 180 add 2 7.2, 7.3, 8.4
This AUC was rewritten in November 2021 and it will be asked
A BC is attending an interagency meeting with Con Ed. Con Ed is discussing their process when they are notified of a fault condition when one of their feeders fail and trips a breaker. The following items are mentioned. Which one is incorrect?
A: In order to locate the failure, Con Ed intentionally sends out a high-voltage test signal.
B: The condition poses no safety threat to the public.
C: Notify Con Ed whenever encountering this condition and report that you detected a “fault finding signal”.
D: At the location of the failure, there will be a loud rhythmic banging noise approximately every 12 seconds without smoke or fire present.
D
Explanation:
AUC 180 5.1
Every 6 seconds
A lot of new information in this rewritten bulletin since last exam. Make sure you know it.
An officer who was notified by a member of an alleged incident of harassment would be correct in all actions below except?
A: Complete a Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report and submit it directly to the EEO Officer.
B: The Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report should be in a sealed envelope.
C: The Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report should have intermediate endorsements.
D: No copies of the Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report shall be retained by the Officer on Duty.
C
Explanation:
C) should be submitted WITHOUT intermediate endorsements.
TB EEO 7.2 F
