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Mission Operations Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a mission undertaken to observe by visual or other detection methods, information about the activites and resources of an enemy or adversary?

A

Reconnaissance

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2
Q

Where will the recon unit always be in relation to the supported unit?

A

Front

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3
Q

What are the fundamentals of recon?

A

GODRDRE

Gain and maintain enemy contact
Orient on the recon objective
Do not keep recon assets in reserve
Retain freedom of maneuver
Develop the situation rapidly
Report all information rapidly and accurately
Ensure continuous recon

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4
Q

What are the forms of recon?

A

RAZRS

Recon in force
Area Recon
Zone Recon
Route Recons
Special Recon

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5
Q

What is a Recon in Force?

A

A movement to contact where the objective is to answer a PIR rather than to gain and maintain contact with the enemy

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6
Q

What is an Area Recon?

A

A recon in a SMALLER area with PERMISSIVE boundaries, recon is intended to provide KEY information related to specific terrain or decision points.

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7
Q

What is a Zone Recon?

A

A recon in a LARGER area with NON-PERMISSIVE boundaries, large, deliberate, and TIME CONSUMING effort to provide information to the commander when the enemy situation is vague

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8
Q

Do we conduct special recon?

A

No, primarily a SOF task

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9
Q

What are the elements of the Commander’s Recon Guidance?

A

FTED

Focus
Tempo
Engagement/Disengagement Criteria
Displacement/Bypass Criteria

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10
Q

What are the two aspects of tempo in the Commanders Reconnaissance Guidance?

A

Level of Detail
Level of Covertness

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11
Q

What two mutually exclusive elements compose level of detail?

A

Rapid or Deliberate

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12
Q

What two mutually exclusive elements compose level of covertness?

A

Stealthy or Forceful

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13
Q

What is engagement criteria?

A

When a unit can engage an enemy

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14
Q

What is disengagement criteria?

A

When a unit MUST break contact to avoid DECISIVIE ENGAGEMENT

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15
Q

What is bypass criteria?

A

When a unit should avoid units, generally because they are not large enough to justify engagement.

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16
Q

What is a displacement criteria?

A

Triggers for a planned withdraw, ex. planned withdraw, recon objective met, phaseline passed, BHO, etc.

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17
Q

What are the two Recon Techniques?

A

Push
Pull

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18
Q

What is a recon push?

A

A commander has a relatively thorough understanding of the operational environment and PUSHES recon assets out to confirm assumptions.

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19
Q

What is a recon pull?

A

A commander is uncertain of AO, recon assets PULL the main body to identified positions of tactical advantage.

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20
Q

What are the three aspects of recon management?

A

Cueing
Mixing
Redundancy

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21
Q

What is cueing?

A

One platform calls on another platform to provide increased detail (Apache cues a shadow to an NAI)

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22
Q

What is mixing?

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A

Two different platforms collecting on the same intel requirement

23
Q

What is redundancy?

Study These Flashcards
A

Two identical platforms collecting on the same intelligence requirement

24
Q

A screen is one of the five forms of ____________.

25
What is a screen?
A security task that provides early warning to the protected force. 1. Purely defensive in nature 2. Squadron level 3. Covers extended flanks or large gaps in between units
26
What is a Movement to Contact?
An offensive task designed to establish or regain enemy contact with the purpose of gaining contact while allowing the commander to further develop the situation
27
What is a deliberate attack?
An attack that is integrated with the overall ground scheme of maneuver and tactical plan in order to provide synchronization of combat power at the decisive point
28
What is a hasty attack?
An attack launched with the forces at hand and minimal preperation to maintain the momentum or take advantage of an enemy situation. SPEED is paramount.
29
Who identifies battle positions?
Batallion Staff
30
What is the acronym used to evaluate potential battle positions?
NORMA Nature of the target Obstacles Range to target Manuevering area Altitude above target area
31
Who identifies firing positions within a battle position?
Individual Aviators
32
What acronym is used to evaluate potential firing positions?
BRASSCRAFO Background Range to Target Altitude Sun/Moon Shadows Cover and Concealment Rotor Wash Adequate manuever area Fields of fire Obstacles
33
What are the fundamentals of security?
MOPP Maintain enemy contact Orient on the protected force, area, or facility Perform continuous recon Provide reaction time and maneuver space Provide early and accurate warning
34
What movement technique is utilized when enemy contact is not likely?
Traveling
35
What terrain flight mode is associated with traveling?
Low level or contour
36
What movement technique is utilized when enemy contact is possible?
Traveling Overwatch
37
What terrain flight mode is associated with traveling overwatch?
Contour or NOE
38
What movement technique is utilized when enemy contact is expected?
Bounding Overwatch
39
What terrain flight mode is associated with bounding overwatch?
NOE
40
How close is a TIGHT formation?
Approximately 2 rotor disks
41
How close is a CLOSE formation?
3-5 rotor disks
42
How close is a LOOSE formation?
6-10 rotor disks
43
How close is an EXTENDED formation?
More than 10 rotor disks
44
What is STEPPED UP vertical separation?
Lead aircraft is lowest, each aircraft is 1-10 ft above the aircraft in front
45
What is STEPPED DOWN vertical seperation?
Lead aircraft is highest, each aircraft is 1-10 ft below the aircraft in front
46
47
What is the CAS check in brief?
Wake up call Mission number Number and type of aircraft Position and altitude Ordnance Playtime Capabilities Abort code
48
What is the situation update format?
TTFACOR Threat Targets Friendly Update Artillery Clearance Authority Ordnance Remarks/Restrictions
49
What is the CAS 9-Line?
1. IP/BP 2. Heading 3. Distance 4. Target Elevation 5. Target Description 6. Target Location 7. Type Mark/Terminal Guidance 8. Location of Friendlies 9. Egress
50
What is the BDA format?
SALT-R Size Activity Location Time Remarks
51
What lines are required read back for the CAS 9-Line?
Lines 4 (Target Elevation), 6 (Target Location), Remarks and Restrictions
52
What is the Army Aviation 5 line?
Observer ID/WARNO Friendly location and mark Target location Target description and mark Remarks
53
For danger close engagements the aircrew must receive what?
Ground Force Commander's Initials

ACAT Topics (3 decks)

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