Mixed Flashcards

(48 cards)

1
Q

NNRTI drug of choice among TB pts

A

Efavirenz

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2
Q

Monitoring months for retreatment cases

A

3, 5, 8 months

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3
Q

Group A pts for dengue hydration

A

40-50 mL/kg/day

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4
Q

Hydration for dengue:
Group B without warning signs
Group B with warning signs
Shock

A

w/o warning signs: > 20: 1500 mL + 20 mL/kg > 20
w/ warning signs: 5-7 mL/kg for 1-2 hrs; 3-5 mL/kg for 2-4 hrs, 2-3 mL/kg for succeeding
5-10 mL/kg

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5
Q

Which of the following is the most common
manifestation of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis? (HPIM

A

Fever

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6
Q

Mortality benefit group with albumin for PBP?

A

Crea >= 1 mg/dL
TB >= 4 mg/dL
BUN >= 30

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7
Q

Organisms presenting as enteric fever with penetration of distal small bowel. Lab findings of fecal mononnuclear cells

A

S. typhi
Yersinia enterocolita *(also presents with fecal pmn)

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8
Q

Markers for severe C. diff

A

WBC >= 15
Crea >= 1.5x premorbid value

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9
Q

Proteus indole _ lactose _

A

negative

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10
Q

Hydration for typhoid fever according to severity

A

Mild: Ad libitum. Goal is to 2L/day
Moderate: 2200-4000 mL/day
Severe: 100 mL/kg in 1st 3hrs then 200 mL/kg over 24 hrs

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11
Q

Pathognemonic finding of miliary TB

A

Choroidal tubercle

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12
Q

HRZE drug causing thrombocytopenia

A

Rifampicin

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13
Q

DOC MAC infections

A

Macrolide, Rifampicin, Ethambutol

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14
Q

Definitive diagnosis of Amebic colitis requires demonstration of what?

A

Amebic trophozites

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15
Q

Mc isolate among splenic abscess

A

Streptococcus

2nd- Staphlococcus

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16
Q

Most valuable lab tests for low grade fever with suspected occult disease

A

CRP and ESR

CRP induces IL-6

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17
Q

Test with highest diagnostic yield for miliary tb?

A

Liver biopsy for AFB
PCR

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18
Q

At what PaO2 level is it recommended not to have any supplemental oxygen?

A

PaO2 >= 72

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19
Q

Diagnostic order in pts with meningitis

A

Blood CS –> Abx –> Imaging –> Tap

“BAIT”

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20
Q

Duration of tx for osteomyelitis if bone uncompletely removed by surgery?

A

4-6 weeks

  • 3 months - dead bone cannot be removed
21
Q

ADR of Linezolid

A

Thrombocytopenia
Optic neuritis
Peripheral neuropathy

22
Q

Essentially diagnostic of anaerobic bacteria

A

Putrid-foul smelling discharge

23
Q

Parasitic infection that cause IDA

A

Necator/Ancyclostoma (hookworm)

Trichuris (Whipworm) - anemia in severe infection

24
Q

Agents with macrofilaricidal activity

A

DAD

DEC
Albendazole
Doxycycline

25
For typhoid oral live vaccine, how many doses for primary and booster series and every when is the booster?
4 doses every 5 years
26
Most severe complication of hepatosplenic schistosomiasis
Hematemesis
27
Species involved in intestinal and hepatosplenic schistosomiasis?
INTESTINAL SCHISTOSOMIASIS (S. Mansoni, S. Japonicum, S. Mekongi) HEPATOSPLENIC SCHISTOSOMIASIS (S. Mansoni, S. Japonicum)
27
Species involved in intestinal and hepatosplenic schistosomiasis?
INTESTINAL SCHISTOSOMIASIS (S. Mansoni, S. Japonicum, S. Mekongi) HEPATOSPLENIC SCHISTOSOMIASIS (S. Mansoni, S. Japonicum)
28
Alternative abx for penicillin allergic pt for human occlusional and clenched fist wounds?
occlusional - Erythromycin/ Fluoroquinolone Clenched - Cefoxitin (Eikenella)
29
Best indicator of immunologic competence for HIV
CD4 count
30
Best indicator of disease progression
HIV RNA
31
Ancillary test most associated with all-cause mortality among HIV infected patients
D-dimer IL-6 hsCRP
32
Blunted febrile response of the following populations
Newborn Elderly Chronic renal Chronic liver disease Patients taking steroids or anti-cytokines
33
MC symptom in Typhoid fever
PROLONGED FEVER (38.8-40.5 degC)
34
Most specific source of culture for typhoid despite 5 days of antibiotic therapy?
Bone marrow
35
Source of culture of typhoid that can be positive during THIRD week if no treatment given
Stool
36
Empirical treatment for typhoid
Ceftriaxone 2g IV OD x 10-14 days Azithromycin 1g OD x 5 days
37
MDR Tx for typhoid
Ceftriaxone 2g IV OD x 10-14 days Azithromycin 1g OD x 5 days
38
Optimal treatment for fully susceptible typhoid
Ciprofloxacin 500 mg BID x 5 days ; 400 mg IV q12 Azithromycin 1g OD x 5 days
39
Tx of choice of typhoid fever among pregnant patients
Ampicillin 1-2 g IV q6 Ceftriaxone 1-2 g IV q24
40
Definition of chronic carrier of Salmonella
After 1 year, positive stool culture or rectal swab
41
Indication for typhoid vaccination
Vi capsular polysaccharide vaccine (Age 2 and above) - 1 dose of primary -1 dose of booster (2 yrs interval) Oral live attentuated (Age 6 and above) - 4 doses primary (0,2,4,6) -4 booster (every 5 yrs interval)
42
Live vaccines are given through what route of administration
SC
43
Vaccines that CI with latex allergy
Hep A Hep B TdAP (severe) Meningococcemia
44
Vaccine CI to those with egg allergy
Hep B
45
Vaccine with TTP as precaution
MMR
46
Secondary prevention of PBP
Norfloxacin 400 mg/d Ciprofloxacin 500 mg/weekly TMP SMX 1 DS tab
47
Duration of sBP Treatment
As short as 5 days Until 14 days of bacteremic